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JKSSB Naib Tehsildar 2018 Previous Year Questions

Practice authentic exam questions with answers and explanations

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2018
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Maths 8 questions

2018 Prelims Maths
0.2 metres is the height of water in a cylindrical container of radius ‘r’ cm. What is the height of this quantity of water if it is poured into a cylindrical container of radius ‘4r’ cm?
A 0.125 metres
B 1.25 cm
C 12.5 cm
D 2.35 cm
Correct Answer: Option B
When water is poured from one container to another, its volume remains constant. We can solve this by equating the volume of the water in both cylindrical containers.

1. The Formula

The volume (V) of water in a cylinder is: V = pi r^2 h

2. Step-by-Step Calculation 

Step 1: Calculate the volume in the first container Radius =( r)Height (h_1) = 0.2 { metres}V_1 = pi times r^2 times 0.2

Step 2: Express the volume in the second container 
Radius = 4r Height (h_2) = ?
V_2 = pi times (4r)^2 times h_2  
V_2 = pi times 16r^2 times h_2
Step 3: Equate the volumes (V_1 = V_2)
Since the quantity of water is the same: pi times r^2 times 0.2 = pi times 16r^2 times h_2
Step 4: Solve for h_2 Cancel  pi and r^2 from both sides: 0.2 = 16 times h_2 
h_2 = {0.2} \ {16} { metres} 
h_2 = 0.0125 \text{ metres}
Step 5: Convert the unit to centimeters Since the options are in different units, let's convert metres to cm (1 { m} = 100 { cm})  h_2 = 0.0125 times 100 { cm}
h_2 = 1.25 { cm} 
Final Result: The height of the water in the new container is 1.25 cm
2018 Prelims Maths
If the diameter of the internal and external surface of a hollow hemispherical shell are 12 cm and 8 cm respectively, then the volume of the solid part in the hemisphere shell is
A 196π/3 cm³
B 304π/3 cm³
C 140π/3 cm³
D 133π/3 cm³
Correct Answer: Option B
To find the volume of the solid part of a hollow hemispherical shell, we subtract the volume of the internal empty space from the total volume of the external hemisphere.
1. The Formula 
The volume (V) of a solid hemisphere is given by: V = 2\3pi R^3
For a hollow shell with external radius (R) and internal radius (r), the volume of the solid part is:{Volume} = 2\3}pi(R^3 - r^3)

2. Step-by-Step Calculation 
Step 1: Identify the radii The problem provides diameters, so we must first divide them by 2: 
External Radius (R): 12cm\2 = 6cm 
Internal Radius (r) : 8cm \2 = 4 cm
(Note: In the question wording, 12 cm refers to the larger external surface and 8 cm to the smaller internal surface).
Step 2: Calculate the cubes of the radii 
R^3 = 6^3 = 216 cm^3
r^3 = 4^3 = 64cm^3
Step 3: Plug the values into the formula {Volume} = {2}\{3}pi (216 - 64)$ {Volume} = {2}\{3}pi (152)
Step 4: Final calculation {Volume} = 2 times 152 pi}\{3}
{Volume} = 304\pi\{3}\ cm}^3

Final Result:
The volume of the solid part in the hemisphere shell is 304π/3 cm³
2018 Prelims Maths
A right circular cone is 27 cm high and the radius of its base is 2 cm. The cone is melted and recast into a sphere
The diameter of the sphere is
A 4 cm
B 6 cm
C 8 cm
D 3 cm
Correct Answer: Option B
When one geometric shape is melted and recast into another, the volume remains the same. To find the diameter of the sphere, we must equate the volume of the cone to the volume of the sphere.

1. Formulas Needed

Volume of a Cone: V (cone)  = 1\3pir^2h 
Volume of a Sphere: $V_{sphere} = 4\3\pi R^3

2. Step-by-Step Calculation

Step 1: Calculate the volume of the cone Given: 
Radius (r) = 2 cm, Height (h) = 27 cm V_{cone} = 1\3 times pi times (2)^2 times 27 V_{cone} = pi times 4 times 9 
V _cone = 36 pi cm^3

Step 2: Equate to the volume of the sphere.
Let the radius of the sphere be R
36\pi = 4\3pi R^3

Step 3: Solve for  R 
Cancel pi from both sides:
36 = 4\3 R^3 
Multiply by 3 and divide by 4 
R^3 = 36 times 3\4}
R^3 = 9 times 3 R^3 = 27
R = sqrt[3]{27} = 3 cm 

Step 4: Find the diameter 
The diameter is twice the radius: 
Diameter = 2 times R = 2 times 3 = 6  cm

Final Result:
The diameter of the sphere is 6 cm
2018 Prelims Maths
Area of trapezium is 500 sq. cm. Length of one of the parallel sides is 20 cm and the distance between the parallel sides is 10 cm then the length of other parallel side is
A 80 cm
B 48 cm
C 98 cm
D 60 cm
Correct Answer: Option A
To find the length of the missing side, we use the standard formula for the area of a trapezium.

The Formula:
The area (A) of a trapezium is given by: 
A = 1\2 times (a + b) times h 
Where: a and b are the lengths of the two parallel sides. h  is the height (the perpendicular distance between the parallel sides).

Step-by-Step Calculation:
1. Plug in the known values: 
Area (A) = 500{ sq. cm}
Side 1 (a) = 20{ cm}
Distance (h) = 10{ cm} 
Side 2 (b) = ?
500 ={1}\{2} times (20 + b) times 10

2. Simplify the equation:
First, divide 10 by 2: 

500 = (20 + b) times 5

3. Solve for b:
Divide both sides by 5:
100 = 20 + b
Subtract 20 from both sides: b = 100 - 20
b = 80cm

Final Result: The length of the other parallel side is 80cm
2018 Prelims Maths
The perimeter of a triangle is 24 cm and inradius of the triangle is 3.5 cm, then the area of the triangle is
A 35 sq. cm
B 49 sq. cm
C 42 sq. cm
D 21 sq. cm
Correct Answer: Option C
Step-by-Step Calculation:
1. Find the semi-perimeter (s):The perimeter of the triangle is given as 24{ cm}. The semi-perimeter is half of the perimeter
s = {Perimeter}\{2} = {24}\{2} = 12{ cm}

2. Calculate the Area (A):Using the inradius (r = 3.5{ cm}) and the semi-perimeter (s = 12cm)
A = 3.5{ cm} times 12cm
A = 42{ sq. cm}

Final Result:
The area of the triangle is 42sq.cm
2018 Prelims Maths
A floor is 6 m long and 3 m wide. A square carpet of sides 2 m is laid on the floor. Then the area of the floor that is un-carpeted is:
A 10 sq.m
B 12 sq.m
C 14 sq.m
D 8 sq.m
Correct Answer: Option C
Step-by-Step Calculation:
1.Calculate the total area of the floor:

The floor is a rectangle, so its area is length width
{Area of Floor} = 6{ m} times  {3{ m} = 18{sq.m}

2. Calculate the area of the square carpet:

The area of a square is side times side{Area of Carpet} = 2{ m} times 2{ m} = 4{ sq.m}

3. Calculate the un-carpeted area:

To find the area not covered by the carpet, subtract the carpet area from the total floor area:
{Un-carpeted Area} = {Total Area} - {Carpet Area} {Un-carpeted Area}
 = 18{ sq.m} - 4{ sq.m} = 14{ sq.m}
2018 Prelims Maths
The ratio of the length and breadth of a plot is 5:4. If the breadth is 60 m less than the length, then the perimeter of the plot is
A 1080 m
B 1198 m
C 890 m
D 1280 m
Correct Answer: Option A
Step-by-Step Calculation:
1. Define the variables using the given ratio:
The ratio of the length (L) and breadth (B) is 5:4. We can express them as:

Length (L) =5x

Breadth (B) =4x

2. Use the difference to find the value of x:
We are told that the breadth is 60 m less than the length:

L−B=60

Substitute the ratio values:

5x−4x=60
x=60
3. Calculate the actual length and breadth:

L=5×60=300 m

B=4×60=240 m

4. Calculate the perimeter:
The formula for the perimeter (P) of a rectangle is 2(L+B):

P=2(300+240)
P=2(540)
P=1080 m

Final Result:
The perimeter of the plot is 1080 m.
2018 Prelims Maths
A fruit-seller bought 47kg 500g of mangoes from one garden, 64kg 900g of mangoes from another garden and 55kg 250g of mangoes from the third garden. If he sold 30kg 750g mangoes, then how many mangoes does he have now?
A 136kg 900g
B 167kg 750g
C 125kg 500g
D 154kg 150g
Correct Answer: Option A
Step-by-Step Calculation:

1. Calculate the total weight of mangoes bought:

To find the total, add the quantities from the three gardens: 

Garden 1: 47kg500g
Garden 2: 64kg900g
Garden 3:55kg250g

{Total Weight} = 
(47 + 64 + 55)kg + (500 + 900 + 250){ g}
= 166 {kg} + 1650{ g} 
=166{ kg} + 1{ kg } 650{ g} (Since} 1000{g} = 1{kg)} 
= 167{ kg } 650{ g}

2. Subtract the weight of mangoes sold:

Now, subtract the sold quantity (30 kg } 750{ g}) from the total weight:

{Remaining} = 167{ kg } 650{ g} - 30{ kg } 750{ g}

Since 750{ g} is greater than 650{ g}, we "borrow" 1{ kg} (1000{ g}) from the 167{ kg}167{ kg } 650{ g} becomes 166{ kg } 1650{ g}

{Remaining} = (166 - 30){ kg} + (1650 - 750){ g} = 136{ kg } 900{ g}

Final Result: The fruit-seller now has 136{kg} 900{g} of mangoes.

J&K 23 questions

2018 Prelims J&K
Nubra Valley Temperatures are repeatedly below zero degree for most of the months. The best time to visit the Nubra valley is:
A February to April
B July to September
C December to February
D October to December
Correct Answer: Option B
While Nubra Valley is a high-altitude cold desert, its accessibility and climate vary drastically throughout the year. The window from July to September is considered the peak tourist season for several reasons.

Why July to September is the Best Time:
Climate: During these months, the daytime temperatures are pleasant, ranging between 15°C and 25°C, though they still drop significantly at night.

Accessibility: The Khardung La Pass (one of the highest motorable roads in the world), which serves as the gateway to Nubra from Leh, is safest to traverse during this period when the snow has melted.

Lush Landscapes: This is the time when the valley's greenery is at its peak, and the famous sea buckthorn bushes are in full bloom.

Festivals: Many local monastic festivals and cultural events occur during the late summer, providing a glimpse into the Ladakhi way of life.

Comparison of Other Seasons:
December to February (Option C): This is the peak of winter. Temperatures can plummet to -20°C or lower, and heavy snowfall often closes the mountain passes, making the valley largely inaccessible to casual travelers.

February to April (Option A): This is the "thaw" period. While the valley begins to wake up, the roads are still prone to closures due to sliding snow and slush, and it remains extremely cold.

October to December (Option D): This is the onset of winter. The "vibrant" colors fade to brown, and by November, most guest houses and tourist facilities begin to shut down due to the impending freeze.

Must-See Attractions in Nubra:
If you visit during the peak season, you can enjoy:

Hunder Sand Dunes: Famous for the double-humped Bactrian camels.

Diskit Monastery: Home to the giant 32-meter statue of Maitreya Buddha.

Panamik: Known for its natural hot water springs.
2018 Prelims J&K
Jammu and Kashmir State is capitalizing its potential of hydroelectricity with new hydro power projects installed by NHPC. One such project, Chutak Hydroelectric Project is 
A Chenab
B Zanskar
C Suru
D Tawi
Correct Answer: Option C
The Chutak Hydroelectric Project is a "run-of-the-river" power station constructed by the National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC) on the Suru River, which is a major tributary of the Indus River.

Key Facts about the Project:
Location: It is situated in the Kargil district of the Ladakh region (formerly part of the state of Jammu and Kashmir).

Capacity: The project has an installed capacity of 44 MW, consisting of four units of 11 MW each.

Purpose: It was specifically designed to provide a stable power supply to the remote Kargil region, which previously relied heavily on expensive and polluting diesel generators.

Inauguration: While the units began commissioning in 2012, the project was formally dedicated to the nation by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in August 2014.

Understanding the Options:
Suru: The correct river; it flows through the heart of the Kargil district.

Chenab: Home to other major NHPC projects like Salal, Dulhasti, and Baglihar, but not Chutak.

Zanskar: A different tributary of the Indus; the Nimoo Bazgo project is located nearby on the Indus itself, downstream from the Zanskar confluence.

Tawi: A major river in the Jammu region, far from the location of the Chutak project.
2018 Prelims J&K
The six rivers of the Indus basin flow across the Himalayan ranges to end in the Arabian sea south of Karachi. They originate from
A Tibet
B Bangladesh
C Pakistan
D Jammu and Kashmir
Correct Answer: Option A
While the six rivers of the Indus basin flow through India and Pakistan, their primary headwaters and geographical origins are located in the Tibetan Plateau (specifically the Trans-Himalayan region).

Origins of the Indus System:
The Indus basin is comprised of the Indus river itself and its five major tributaries: the Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej.

Indus & Sutlej: Both of these massive rivers originate in Tibet near Lake Mansarovar and Mount Kailash.

Other Tributaries: Rivers like the Chenab, Ravi, and Beas originate in the Indian Himalayas (Himachal Pradesh), while the Jhelum originates in the Verinag Spring of Jammu and Kashmir.

However, when looking at the basin as a whole and the source of its namesake river, Tibet is the recognized point of origin.

Why the other options are incorrect:
Bangladesh: Located in Eastern India/South Asia, it is part of the Ganges-Brahmaputra basin, not the Indus basin.

Pakistan: This is the "lower riparian" state where the rivers reach the sea, but they do not originate there.

Jammu and Kashmir: While the rivers flow through this region (and the Jhelum starts here), the primary "Trans-Himalayan" sources of the system lie further east in Tibet.
2018 Prelims J&K
It is printed register with Patwari, separately maintained for each village consisting of normally 100 leaves. Each leaf has a foil and counterfoil and is duly numbered. The title page depicts the name of village, Tehsil, District and date of issue etc. What is being referred here?
A Registrar Booklet
B Parat-Sarkar
C Parat-Patwar
D Mutation Register
Correct Answer: Option D
In the revenue system of Jammu and Kashmir, the Mutation Register (also known as the Register Intiqalat) is a vital document used to record changes in land ownership, title, or tenancy.

Key Features of the Mutation Register:
Structure: It is a printed register containing 100 leaves. Each leaf consists of two parts: a foil (which is eventually detached and sent to the Tehsil office) and a counterfoil (which remains in the register with the Patwari).

Purpose: Whenever land is sold, inherited, or gifted, a "Mutation" (Intiqal) is entered here. This entry serves as a temporary record until it is verified by a Revenue Officer (usually a Tehsildar or Naib-Tehsildar) and subsequently incorporated into the Jamabandi (Record of Rights).

Identification: As described, the title page contains the administrative details like the name of the Village, Tehsil, and District to ensure clear record-keeping.

Comparison of the Options:
Mutation Register: The specific 100-leaf register with foils/counterfoils for recording changes in land titles.

Parat-Sarkar: This refers to the Government copy of a revenue record (like a Mutation or Jamabandi) which is kept in the District Record Room.

Parat-Patwar: This refers to the Patwari's copy of the same record, which he keeps for field reference.

Registrar Booklet: A more general term that doesn't specifically define the technical 100-leaf structure used for mutations in J&K land records.
2018 Prelims J&K
Which of the following is a major tributary of the Ravi river and its source is located in the Kailash Mountains at an elevation of 14,100 ft close to Bhaderwah Mountains of the State?
A Chenab
B Ujh
C Jhelum
D Tawi
Correct Answer: Option B
The Ujh River is a critical tributary of the Ravi River. It originates from the Kailash Mountains (not to be confused with the Mount Kailash in Tibet) near the Bhaderwah hills in the Doda district, at an elevation of approximately 14,100 feet.

Key Geographical Details:
Course: After originating in the high mountains, it flows through the Kathua district of Jammu and Kashmir before entering Pakistan, where it eventually joins the Ravi River.

Significance: The river is the focus of the Ujh Multipurpose Project, designed for irrigation and hydroelectric power to benefit the Kandi belt of the Jammu region.

Comparison of the Options:
Ujh: The only major tributary of the Ravi among the choices that originates in the Bhaderwah/Kailash range.

Tawi: Known as the "Surya Putri," it is a major tributary of the Chenab River, not the Ravi. It flows through Jammu city.

Chenab: A primary river of the Indus system, not a tributary of the Ravi (though they eventually merge much further downstream in Pakistan).

Jhelum: The main river of the Kashmir Valley, located in a completely different geographical basin.
2018 Prelims J&K
What is known as harvest inspection and is conducted twice in a year for Kharif and Rabi crops, it is carried out by the Patwaris after spot inspection of each field for recording the condition of the standing crop including kharaba?
A Jamabandi
B Girdawari
C Parat-Patwar
D Misalihaquat
Correct Answer: Option B
Khasra Girdawari is the critical legal document used by the Revenue Department to record the harvest statistics and the ground reality of land use.

How Girdawari Works:
The Process: The Patwari (village accountant) visits every field in their jurisdiction twice a year.

Kharif Girdawari: Conducted in October to record the summer crops.

Rabi Girdawari: Conducted in March to record the winter crops.

Kharaba: This refers to a portion of the crop that has failed or been damaged by natural calamities. The Patwari records this specific status to help the government decide on land revenue remissions or farmer compensation.

Comparison of the Options:
Jamabandi: This is the Record of Rights (RoR). It is essentially the "Register of Land Holdings" and is typically updated every five years (Quadrennial). It contains details of ownership and cultivation.

Parat-Patwar: This is the copy of the revenue record that stays with the Patwari for daily administrative use (as opposed to Parat-Sarkar, which is the copy kept in the government treasury).

Misal-haquat: This is the Settlement Record, prepared at the time of a new land settlement or the first time a village is surveyed. It serves as the foundation for the Jamabandi.
2018 Prelims J&K
Which of the following languages is widely spoken amongst the Gujjars and Bakarwal tribes of Jammu and Kashmir region?
A Garo
B Gojri
C Kinnauri
D Kangri
Correct Answer: Option B
Gojri (also known as Gujari) is the mother tongue of the Gujjars and Bakarwals, who represent one of the largest ethno-linguistic groups in Jammu and Kashmir.

Cultural and Linguistic Context:
The Tribes: The Gujjars and Bakarwals are traditionally nomadic or semi-nomadic pastoralists who move between the plains of Jammu and the high-altitude pastures of Kashmir and Ladakh.

Language Roots: Gojri is an Indo-Aryan language. It shares linguistic roots with Rajasthani and Gujarati, reflecting the historical migration patterns of these tribes from western India into the Himalayas.

Official Recognition: In Jammu and Kashmir, Gojri is recognized as a significant regional language and is included in the Sixth Schedule of the erstwhile state's constitution to ensure its promotion and preservation.

Comparison of the Options:
Garo: A Tibeto-Burman language spoken primarily by the Garo people in Meghalaya and parts of Assam/Bangladesh.

Kinnauri: A Sino-Tibetan language spoken in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh.

Kangri: An Indo-Aryan language spoken in the Kangra valley of Himachal Pradesh, closely related to Dogri and Punjabi.
2018 Prelims J&K
According to the Department of Geology and Mining, Dolomite is found in large quantities in Rajouri, Udhampur, Reasi districts of Jammu and Kashmir. It is mainly used in the manufacture of:
A Refractory bricks
B Cement
C Crucibles
D Decorative stones
Correct Answer: Option A
Dolomite is a calcium magnesium carbonate with the chemical formula CaMg(CO3)2 . While it has several industrial applications, its primary use in the context of Jammu and Kashmir's mineral resources is in the metallurgical and masonry industries.
Why Refractory Bricks?
High Melting Point: Dolomite has a high resistance to heat. When "dead-burnt," it can withstand the extreme temperatures found in industrial furnaces. 
Steel Industry: These bricks are used to line the inside of Open Hearth Furnaces and Bessemer converters in the steel-making process because they don't break down easily under intense thermal stress.Understanding the Options:Refractory Bricks: Used for furnace linings; this is the primary industrial application for the high-quality dolomite found in Reasi and Rajouri.Cement: While limestone (a close relative) is the main ingredient for cement, dolomite is sometimes used as a filler, but it is not its primary industrial classification in this region.Crucibles: These are usually made from graphite or clay-graphite mixtures to melt metals, rather than raw dolomite.Decorative stones: Some forms of dolomite (like dolomitic marble) are used for construction, but the mining department's focus in J&K is largely on its industrial/chemical utility.
2018 Prelims J&K
Which architectural structure of Jammu and Kashmir is also known as ‘Lhachen Palkhar’?
A Thiksey Monastery
B Kathi Darwaza
C Jama Masjid
D Leh Palace
Correct Answer: Option D
The Leh Palace is historically referred to as Lhachen Palkhar. It is a former royal palace overlooking the town of Leh in Ladakh.

Key Details about Lhachen Palkhar:
Construction: Built in the 17th century (around 1600) by King Sengge Namgyal, the most famous ruler of the Namgyal dynasty.

Architecture: It is a prime example of Tibetan architecture and is said to be modeled after the Potala Palace in Lhasa, Tibet. The structure is nine storeys high; the upper floors were for the royal family, while the lower floors held stables and storerooms.

Current Status: The palace was abandoned in the mid-19th century when Dogra forces took control of Ladakh, forcing the royal family to move to Stok Palace. Today, it is maintained by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) and offers one of the best panoramic views of the Indus Valley and the Zanskar mountain range.

Why the other options are incorrect:
Thiksey Monastery: A famous Tibetan Buddhist monastery (gompa) in Ladakh, but not known as Lhachen Palkhar.

Kathi Darwaza: The main entrance gate to the Hari Parbat Fort in Srinagar.

Jama Masjid: The principal mosque located in Nowhatta, Srinagar, known for its unique Indo-Saracenic wooden architecture.
2018 Prelims J&K
Which of the following is the summer capital of Jammu and Kashmir?
A Srinagar
B Jammu
C Kashmir
D Ladakh
Correct Answer: Option A
Srinagar serves as the summer capital of Jammu and Kashmir, while Jammu serves as the winter capital.

The "Darbar Move" Tradition
Historically, this seasonal shift was part of a 149-year-old tradition known as the Darbar Move.

Summer (May–October): The government functioned from Srinagar due to its pleasant climate.

Winter (November–April): The government shifted to Jammu to escape the harsh Kashmiri winters and heavy snowfall.

Comparison of the Options:
Srinagar: The summer capital, famous for Dal Lake and its Mughal gardens.

Jammu: The winter capital, known as the "City of Temples."

Kashmir: This refers to the entire valley/region, not a specific capital city.

Ladakh: Formerly a district of J&K, it became a separate Union Territory in 2019 with Leh and Kargil as its capitals.

Note: In June 2021, the government officially ended the bi-annual "Darbar Move" practice to save costs and transitioned to a digital ecosystem where offices function permanently in both cities. However, for administrative and symbolic purposes, the dual capital status remains.
2018 Prelims J&K
Which of the following is located on Gopadari Hill in the south-east of Srinagar and lies at a height of 1100 feet above surface level of the city?
A Venkateshwara Temple
B Somnath Temple
C Jagannath Temple
D Shankaracharya Temple
Correct Answer: Option D
The Shankaracharya Temple, also known as the Jyeshteshwara Temple, is one of the most prominent landmarks in Srinagar. It is dedicated to Lord Shiva and sits atop the Gopadari Hill (also called the Shankaracharya Hill).

Key Features of the Temple:
Elevation: It is situated at an altitude of approximately 1,100 feet above the main city level, offering a panoramic view of the Dal Lake and the entire Srinagar valley.

Historical Significance: While the current structure is believed to date back to the 9th century AD, the site has been sacred for much longer. It is named after the great philosopher Adi Shankaracharya, who is said to have visited the site and stayed there during his travels.

Architecture: The temple is built on a high octagonal plinth and is characterized by its ancient stone masonry and a survival of early Kashmiri temple architecture.

Why the other options are incorrect:
Venkateshwara Temple: The famous "Tirupati" temple located in Andhra Pradesh (though a replica was recently built in the Jammu region, it is not on Gopadari Hill).

Somnath Temple: One of the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines, located in Gujarat.

Jagannath Temple: A major Hindu temple dedicated to Jagannath (a form of Vishnu) located in Puri, Odisha.
2018 Prelims J&K
A revival of Jammu and Kashmir’s first hydroelectric project constructed in 1905, is on the state government’s radar. This was constructed as run-of-river scheme back in 1905, with the initial installed capacity of 4 Megawatts. What is the name of this project?
A Kiru
B Kirthai
C Salal
D Mohra
Correct Answer: Option D
The Mohra (or Mahura) Hydroelectric Project is one of the oldest in South Asia and holds a significant place in the technological history of Jammu and Kashmir.

Key Facts about the Mohra Project:
Establishment: Constructed in 1905 (some records cite its commissioning in 1908) under the reign of Maharaja Pratap Singh.

Design: It was designed as a run-of-river scheme on the left bank of the Jhelum River in the Baramulla district.

Engineering Marvel: A unique feature of this project was its 11-km-long wooden flume (water conductor) made of high-quality deodar timber, which carried water along the steep mountain terrain to the turbines.

Initial Capacity: It began with an installed capacity of 4 Megawatts (MW), which was used to power dredgers for flood control in Sopore and famously to electrify the silk factory in Srinagar.

Revival Status: After being severely damaged by floods in 1959 and 1992, the project became defunct. In recent years, the J&K government has prioritized its revival as a heritage project with a proposed new capacity of approximately 10.5 MW.

Comparison of the Options:
Kiru: A much newer, large-scale (624 MW) hydroelectric project currently under construction on the Chenab River.

Kirthai: A proposed mega-hydro project on the Chenab River.

Salal: A major 690 MW power station in Reasi, commissioned in 1987—much later than the Mohra project.
2018 Prelims J&K
The temperature in Jammu dips during the rainy season, however the humidity remains high. The average temperature in this region during peak summer is approximately in the range:
A 35°-39°C
B 42°-46°C
C 20°-24°C
D 44°-48°C
Correct Answer: Option A
While Jammu is known for being significantly hotter than the Kashmir Valley, its average peak summer temperatures (typically in May and June) generally settle in the 35°-39°C range.

Climate Context
It is important to distinguish between "average" and "extreme" temperatures:

Average Range: Most summer days fall within the 35°-39°C bracket.

Extreme Peaks: On exceptionally hot days, the mercury can certainly cross 40°C and even touch 45°C, but these are considered heatwave conditions rather than the sustained seasonal average.

Humidity: As your question notes, once the monsoon arrives in July, the temperature may dip slightly, but the high humidity makes the "real feel" or heat index quite high.

Comparison of the Options:
35°-39°C: The standard average for the peak summer months.

42°-46°C / 44°-48°C: These represent extreme heatwave conditions, not the general average.

20°-24°C: This range is more characteristic of a pleasant spring day in Jammu or a summer day in the higher altitude stations like Patnitop.
2018 Prelims J&K
River Jhelum is the main waterway of the Kashmir valley. This river is also known by the name:
A Sagarmati
B Vyeth
C Vipasa
D Kishan Ganga
Correct Answer: Option B
In the Kashmiri language, the Jhelum is traditionally called Vyeth, which is derived from the ancient Sanskrit name Vitasta.

Historical and Geographical Context
The Jhelum is the lifeline of the Kashmir Valley, flowing through Srinagar and the Wular Lake before entering Pakistan. It is one of the five major rivers of the Punjab region.

Understanding the Options:
Vyeth: The local and historical name for the Jhelum.

Vipasa: This is the ancient Sanskrit name for the Beas River.

Kishan Ganga: A major tributary of the Jhelum (known as the Neelum River in Pakistan), but not the Jhelum itself.

Sagarmati: This name is often associated with the Luni River in Rajasthan or specific religious contexts, but not the Jhelum.
2018 Prelims J&K
Jammu, the winter capital of the maharajas (the former Hindu rulers of the region) and second largest city in the state, was historically the seat of which dynasty?
A Morya
B Dogra
C Aryan
D Agadha
Correct Answer: Option B
Jammu was the historical seat of the Dogra Dynasty, which played a pivotal role in the formation of the modern state of Jammu and Kashmir.

Historical Context
The Dogra dynasty was established by Maharaja Gulab Singh, who became the first Maharaja of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir in 1846 following the Treaty of Amritsar. The dynasty continued to rule the region until 1947.
2018 Prelims J&K
The temperature in Kashmir in winters may go down to -15°C in the hilly areas, while as the plains have a comparatively better temperature at -5 to -8°C. The local people wear woollen clothes and a long gown to save them from the chill. The gown is called:
A Mundu
B Punachei
C Pheran
D Dhotar
Correct Answer: Option C
The Pheran is the iconic, loose-fitting gown worn by both men and women in Kashmir. Traditionally made of wool (especially for winter), it is designed to be spacious enough to hold a Kangri—a small earthenware pot filled with hot embers—underneath it for warmth.
Quick Breakdown of the Options:
Pheran: The traditional long gown of Kashmir, essential for surviving those  winters.
Mundu: A garment worn around the waist, primarily in Kerala and the Maldives.
Dhotar: Another term for a Dhoti, commonly worn in Maharashtra and parts of Central India. 
Punachei: A traditional attire, though not associated with the Kashmiri climate or culture.
2018 Prelims J&K
As of October 2017, who amongst the following is the Managing Director of Jammu and Kashmir State Power Development Corporation Limited?
A Mehbooba Mufti
B Kifayat Rizvi
C Shah Faesal
D Shazia Bashir
Correct Answer: Option C
In late 2016, Shah Faesal was appointed as the Managing Director of the Jammu and Kashmir State Power Development Corporation (JKSPDC), and he held that position through October 2017.

Key Context for the Options:
Shah Faesal: A former IAS officer (the first from J&K to top the civil services exam) who headed the JKSPDC before later resigning from government service to enter politics.

Mehbooba Mufti: At that time, she was the Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir.

Kifayat Rizvi: A senior bureaucrat who held various administrative roles in the state, but not the MD of JKSPDC during that specific window.
2018 Prelims J&K
This is one of the India’s most scenically beautiful wildlife reserves. It is located 22 kilometres from Srinagar and forms almost half of the Dal Lake’s catchment area. Which of the following is this?
A Dachigam
B Jasrota
C Coorg
D Tadoba
Correct Answer: Option A
Located just a short drive from the heart of Srinagar, Dachigam National Park is not only famous for its breathtaking landscapes but also for its critical role in the local ecosystem. Why Dachigam is Unique The name "Dachigam" literally translates to "Ten Villages," in memory of the ten villages that were relocated to create the park in the early 20th century. The Catchment Area: It forms roughly half of the catchment area for Dal Lake and is the primary source of clean drinking water for Srinagar via the Dagwan River. The Hangul (Kashmir Stag): Dachigam is the last viable home of the Hangul  , a critically endangered species of red deer. It is the only place in the world where they can still be found in the wild. Varied Topography: The park is divided into Lower Dachigam (accessible to tourists) and Upper Dachigam (reaching heights of over 4,000 meters). This variation allows for a diverse range of flora, from coniferous forests to alpine pastures. 
Why the other options are incorrect: Jasrota (B): This wildlife sanctuary is located in the Kathua district of the Jammu region, far from Srinagar.
Coorg (C): Also known as Kodagu, this is a beautiful hill station in the state of Karnataka in Southern India.
Tadoba (D): This is a famous Tiger Reserve located in the state of Maharashtra.
2018 Prelims J&K
A fort built by Raja Bahulochan approximately 3000 years ago and remains to be the oldest and the most iconic of all monumental marvels in Jammu. This fort is known as:
A Bag-e-Bahu Fort
B Dhanidhar Fort
C Hari Parbat Fort
D Pari Mahal
Correct Answer: Option A
Located on a high plateau on the left bank of the Tawi River, this fort is a central landmark of Jammu city. While the current structure has been modified and renovated over the centuries (most notably by the Dogra rulers), its origins are traditionally traced back 3,000 years to Raja Bahulochan.

The Legend of Bahu Fort
According to local folklore, Raja Bahulochan was the brother of Raja Jambulochan (the founder of Jammu city). The legend says that Jambulochan saw a tiger and a goat drinking water from the same spot on the Tawi River without the tiger attacking. Taking this as a sign of peace and virtue, he founded the city, while his brother Bahulochan constructed the fort on the opposite bank.

Key Features of the Fort
The Bawe Wali Mata Temple: Located inside the fort, this temple is dedicated to the Goddess Kali and is the spiritual heart of the complex.

Bagh-e-Bahu: A magnificent terraced Mughal-style garden surrounds the fort, featuring waterfalls, flower beds, and a large underground aquarium.

The Structure: The fort stands at an altitude of about 325 meters and features thick walls built with lime and brick mortar, designed to withstand ancient sieges.

Why the other options are incorrect:
Dhanidhar Fort (B): This is located in the Rajouri district and was built by Mian Hathu in the mid-19th century to protect the town and store grain.

Hari Parbat Fort (C): This is located in Srinagar (Kashmir). While ancient, the current fort was largely built during the Durrani Empire in the 18th century.

Pari Mahal (D): Also known as "The Palace of Fairies," this is a seven-terraced garden located in Srinagar, built by Prince Dara Shikoh in the mid-17th century.
2018 Prelims J&K
A Permanent Indus Commission was set up as a bilateral commission to implement and manage the Treaty. The Commission solves disputes arising over
A water logging
B water cleaning
C water sharing
D water distributing
Correct Answer: Option C
The Permanent Indus Commission (PIC) is a bilateral body with representatives from both India and Pakistan. It was established to implement and manage the Indus Waters Treaty (IWT), which was signed in 1960 with the mediation of the World Bank.

The Purpose of the Commission
The primary goal of the Commission is to ensure that the water of the Indus River system is shared according to the agreed-upon rules. Under the treaty:

Eastern Rivers (Sutlej, Beas, Ravi): Allocated to India for unrestricted use.

Western Rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab): Allocated to Pakistan, though India is allowed specific "non-consumptive" uses such as power generation, navigation, and agriculture.

Key Functions of the PIC
The Commission acts as the first line of defense in preventing conflict between the two nations regarding water. Its duties include:

Data Exchange: Sharing information on the flow of rivers and the amount of water being used.

Inspection: Carrying out periodic site visits to see the dams and projects being built on both sides.

Conflict Resolution: Meeting at least once a year (alternating between India and Pakistan) to resolve any technical "questions" or "differences" regarding project designs.

Why the other options are incorrect:
Water Logging (A): While an environmental issue, it is a domestic agricultural management problem, not a bilateral treaty issue.

Water Cleaning (B): Pollution control is generally handled by the respective national environmental agencies of each country.

Water Distributing (D): "Distribution" usually refers to the internal piping and canal systems within a country. "Sharing" is the legal term for how much water crosses the border from one nation to the other.
2018 Prelims J&K
Which of the following places of Jammu and Kashmir is also known as ‘Anglers Paradise’?
A Baramulla
B Kupwara
C Anantnag
D Pahalgam
Correct Answer: Option D
Situated at the confluence of the streams flowing from the Sheshnag Lake and the Lidder River, Pahalgam is world-renowned as an 'Angler’s Paradise' primarily because of its abundance of Trout.

Why Pahalgam is the Angler’s Choice
The crystal-clear, cold waters of the Lidder River provide the perfect habitat for both Brown Trout and Rainbow Trout. These species were famously introduced to the region by the British during the colonial era.

The Experience: Angling in Pahalgam is a regulated sport. The river is divided into different "beats," and enthusiasts must obtain a fishing license from the Department of Fisheries.

Best Time: The angling season typically runs from April to September, when the snowmelt keeps the river levels ideal for the fish to remain active.
2018 Prelims J&K
According to the Department of Geology and Mining, Magnesite is used as refractory bricks for furnaces and has a wide range of usage in pharmaceuticals. The magnesite 
A Udhampur
B Puga valley
C Rajauri
D Baramulla
Correct Answer: Option A
In the Jammu and Kashmir region, Magnesite deposits are primarily found in the Udhampur district, specifically in the Panthal area. These reserves are of high quality and are commercially significant for industrial applications. Why Magnesite is Important Magnesite is a mineral that remains stable at very high temperatures, which is why it is categorized as a "refractory" material. Refractory Bricks: Because it doesn't melt easily, it is used to line the insides of high-temperature kilns and furnaces in the steel and cement industries. Pharmaceuticals: It is used as an antacid (Magnesium Carbonate) and in the production of various mineral supplements. 
Industrial Use: It is also a key component in the manufacturing of synthetic rubber and fertilizers.
2018 Prelims J&K
Which wildlife sanctuary is bounded to the north by Gumsar Lake, east by Rupri, south by Saransar and to the west by the Pir Panjal pass and is located in Shopian district of Kashmir?
A Lachipora Wildlife Sanctuary
B Karkoram Wildlife Sanctuary
C Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary
D Hirpora Wildlife Sanctuary
Correct Answer: Option D
Located in the Shopian district of South Kashmir, Hirpora (also spelled Hirpur) is a vital ecological corridor and a critical habitat for several endangered species.

Key Geographical Markers
The boundaries mentioned in your question perfectly define the sanctuary's rugged terrain:

North: Gumsar Lake.

East: Rupri.

South: Saransar.

West: The historic Pir Panjal Pass, which connects the Kashmir Valley to the Jammu region via the Mughal Road.

Why Hirpora is Unique
This sanctuary is most famous for being a primary home to the Markhor (Capra falconeri), the world’s largest species of wild goat. The Markhor is listed as Near Threatened and is known for its spectacular corkscrew horns.

Vegetation: The area is dominated by sub-alpine and alpine pastures, featuring forests of Kail pine, Spruce, and Fir.

Fauna: Besides the Markhor, you can find the Himalayan Black Bear, Leopard, and over 130 species of birds, including the Spotted Forktail and Western Tragopan.

The Mughal Road: This historical route passes right through the sanctuary, which has sparked ongoing debates between infrastructure development and wildlife conservation.

Why the other options are incorrect:
Lachipora (A): Located in the Kupwara district (North Kashmir), near the Line of Control.

Karakoram (B): Located in Ladakh, specifically in the Leh district, covering high-altitude cold desert terrain.

Changthang (C): Also located in Ladakh (Leh), home to the famous Tso Moriri lake and the Tibetan Wild Ass.

Polity 32 questions

2018 Prelims Polity
Which of the following regions is the major producer of saffron in the state of Jammu and Kashmir?
A Leh district
B Kashmir valley
C Jammu district
D Suru valley
Correct Answer: Option B
Specifically, the Pampore region in the Pulwama district is often referred to as the "Saffron Town of Kashmir" because it produces the bulk of the crop.

Why the Kashmir Valley?
Saffron (Crocus sativus) is a temperamental plant that requires very specific climatic and soil conditions, which the Kashmir Valley provides in spades:

The Soil (Karewas): Saffron thrives in the unique lacustrine (lake-derived) soil deposits known as Karewas. These are flat-topped mounds found in the valley that are rich in nutrients and provide excellent drainage.

Altitude: It grows best at an altitude of about 1,600 to 1,800 meters above sea level.

Climate: The crop needs a specific mix of cold winters and dry, sunny summers.

Key Facts About J&K Saffron  GI Tag:
 In 2020, Kashmir Saffron was granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag, which helps protect its identity in the global market and prevents the sale of inferior adulterated versions.

Quality: Kashmiri saffron is world-renowned for its high levels of crocin (which gives it color), safranal (aroma), and picrocrocin (bitterness). It is darker and more potent than Iranian or Spanish varieties.

The "Red Gold": It is the most expensive spice in the world because it is labor-intensive; it takes roughly 75,000 flowers to produce just one pound (about 450 grams) of dry saffron.

Why the other options are incorrect:
Leh (A): While it has the altitude, the climate is too arid and cold (high-altitude desert) for traditional saffron cultivation.

Jammu (C): Generally too warm; however, some small-scale trials have been attempted in higher reaches like Kishtwar, but it doesn't compare to the Valley's output.

Suru Valley (D): Located in Ladakh, it is beautiful but lacks the specific "Karewa" soil profile required for large-scale production.
2018 Prelims Polity
What is the meaning of the word Quorum?
A Minimum number of members required to be present in the House to make the proceedings of that meeting valid
B Maximum number of members allowed in the house to continue with the Parliamentary procedures
C The discipline of maintaining decorum in the house to continue the proceedings of the House
D Approval of majority members present during the sitting to make any critical decision of the House
Correct Answer: Option A
In simpler terms, a quorum is the "threshold" of attendance. If the number of members falls below this mark, the person presiding over the meeting (like the Speaker or Chairman) must either adjourn the House or suspend the meeting until the minimum requirement is met.

Key Facts about Quorum in India
In the context of the Indian Parliament, the rules are quite specific:

The Magic Number: Under Article 100 of the Indian Constitution, the quorum for either House of Parliament is one-tenth (10%) of the total number of members of that House.

Including the Chair: This 10% count includes the person presiding (the Speaker or the Chairman).

The Requirement: If there is no quorum, it is the duty of the presiding officer to stop the proceedings. It ensures that a tiny minority cannot pass laws or make major decisions behind the backs of the rest of the legislature.
2018 Prelims Polity
As per J&K Constitution, every person appointed to be a Judge of the High Court shall, before he enters upon his office, make and subscribe oath before
A The President of India
B The Prime Minister of India
C The Governor of the state or some person appointed in that behalf by him
D The Chief Justice of the state or some person appointed in that behalf by him
Correct Answer: Option C
While this might feel like a "trick" question given the significant legal changes in recent years, here is the breakdown of why this was the rule under the J&K Constitution and how it stands today.

The Historical Context
Under the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir (1956), specifically Section 97, every person appointed to be a Judge of the High Court was required to make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the Governor (or a person appointed by them) before entering office.

The Modern Shift
It is important to note that the J&K Constitution was abolished following the abrogation of Article 370 and the passage of the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019.

Current Status: Since October 31, 2019, Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh are Union Territories.

The Rule Now: High Court Judges now take their oath under the Constitution of India (Article 219). Interestingly, the procedure remains largely the same: the oath is administered by the Governor (or, in the case of a Union Territory, the Lieutenant Governor) or their appointee.
2018 Prelims Polity
As per the J&K Constitution, which of the following measures may be taken against the member if he sits or votes as a member of the Legislative Assembly or the Legislative Council even after knowing that he is not qualified or that he is disqualified for:
A He is imposed a permanent ban on voting
B He is thrown out of the House forcibly
C He may be penalised
D He may be sent to jail
Correct Answer: Option C
Under Section 63 of the former Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir (which mirrors Article 193 of the Indian Constitution), if a person sits or votes as a member of the Legislature before taking the oath or when they know they are disqualified, they are liable to a monetary penalty.

The Nature of the Penalty
The "penalty" is not a criminal sentence like jail time, but a financial fine. Here are the specifics:

The Amount: The penalty is usually 500 rupees for each day the person sits or votes in the House.

How it is Recovered: This amount is recovered as a debt due to the State.

Conditions for Penalty:

The member has not taken the prescribed oath or affirmation.

The member knows they are not qualified (e.g., they don't meet the age requirement).

The member knows they are disqualified (e.g., they hold an "Office of Profit" or have been disqualified under the Anti-Defection law).

The member is prohibited from sitting or voting by any law made by the Legislature or Parliament.

Why the other options are incorrect:
Option A: A ban on voting is usually a result of a specific conviction under electoral laws (like the Representation of the People Act), but it isn't the immediate penalty for simply sitting in the House while disqualified.

Option B: While the Speaker can order a member to be removed for "unruly behavior," the specific legal remedy for sitting while disqualified is a financial fine.

Option D: Jail time is a criminal punishment. Sitting in the House while disqualified is considered a constitutional/civil lapse rather than a criminal offense under this specific section.

Current Context
Since the J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019, these matters are now governed by Section 29 of that Act, which maintains the same principle: a penalty of 500 rupees per day is applicable for such violations in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
2018 Prelims Polity
As per the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir, no person to be ineligible for inclusion in electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex, under section
A 136
B 137
C 138
D 139
Correct Answer: Option D
Just as Article 325 of the Indian Constitution ensures a secular and non-discriminatory electoral process for the whole of India, Section 139 of the former Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir mirrored this principle for the state.

Understanding Section 139
Section 139 stipulated that there shall be one general electoral roll for every constituency and that no person shall be ineligible for inclusion in such a roll on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or any of them.

This was fundamental in ensuring:

Universal Suffrage: Every citizen meeting the age and residency criteria could vote.

Secularism: It prevented the creation of "separate electorates" based on religious or social backgrounds.
2018 Prelims Polity
As per section 99 under Part VII of J&K Constitution, a Judge of the High Court may resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to
A The Chief Justice of India
B The Governor of the state
C The President of India
D The Prime Minister of India
Correct Answer: Option C
Why the President? 
Although the High Court operates within a State (or now a Union Territory), Judges of the High Court are part of the higher judiciary of India. Under Section 99 of the J&K Constitution (and similarly under Article 217 of the Indian Constitution), the President is the appointing authority; therefore, the resignation must be addressed to the President. 
Summary of Resignation/Removal Authorities Position Addressed To High Court Judge The President of India Governor / Lt. Governor The President of India Chief Minister The Governor / Lt. Governor Advocate General The Governor / Lt. Governor
2018 Prelims Polity
Which of the following is a CORRECT statement in respect of Money Bills?
A Legislative Council will have to return the bill to the Legislative Assembly with its recommendations within a month of the receipt of bill after its transmission from Legislative Assembly
B A Money Bill shall be introduced in a Legislative Council
C If the Legislative Assembly does not accept any of the recommendations of the Legislative Council, the Money Bill shall not be passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the Legislative Assembly, without any of the amendments recommended
D If a Money Bill passed by the Legislative Assembly and transmitted to the Legislative Council for its recommendations is not returned to the Legislative Assembly within the said period of fourteen days, it shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses
Correct Answer: Option D
In the Indian parliamentary system (both at the Union and State levels), the Lower House holds supreme authority over financial matters. The Upper House (Legislative Council) has a very limited, advisory role regarding Money Bills.

Why Option D is Correct
According to the Constitution, once the Legislative Assembly passes a Money Bill, it is sent to the Legislative Council. The Council has exactly 14 days to act. If they do nothing and the clock runs out, the bill is automatically considered passed by both Houses in the original form passed by the Assembly.

Analysis of the Incorrect Statements
Statement A is incorrect because the time limit is 14 days, not "a month."

Statement B is incorrect because a Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Legislative Council. It must originate in the Legislative Assembly.

Statement C is incorrect because the Legislative Assembly has the power to reject all recommendations made by the Council. If it does so, the bill is still considered passed by both Houses in the form the Assembly originally chose.

The Money Bill Lifecycle (State Level)
The procedure for a Money Bill at the state level (Article 198) mirrors the procedure at the Union level (Article 109):

Introduction: Only in the Legislative Assembly (Lower House).

Recommendation: Requires the prior recommendation of the Governor.

Transmission: Sent to the Legislative Council after being passed by the Assembly.

Council's Powers: * Cannot reject the bill.

Cannot amend the bill (can only suggest recommendations).

Must return it within 14 days.

The Speaker's Role
One crucial detail often tested is that the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly has the final authority to decide whether a bill is a "Money Bill" or not. Their decision cannot be questioned in a court of law or by either House.
2018 Prelims Polity
According to State Judiciary of J&K, a person who is an advocate or pleader shall be eligible to be appointed as a district judge if he has been for
A Not less than five years an advocate or pleader and is recommended by the High Court for appointment
B Not less than seven years an advocate or pleader and is recommended by the High Court for appointment
C Not less than ten years an advocate or pleader and is recommended by the High Court for appointment
D Not less than one year an advocate or pleader and is recommended by the High Court
Correct Answer: Option B
This requirement is rooted in both the Constitution of India (Article 233) and the former Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir (Section 109). These provisions ensure that individuals entering the higher judiciary from the legal profession possess substantial experience.

Understanding the Eligibility Criteria
For a person to be eligible for direct recruitment as a District Judge, they must satisfy the following conditions:

Experience: They must have been an advocate or a pleader for a minimum of seven years.

Current Status: They should not already be in the service of the Union or the State (meaning they are applying from the "Bar" and not from the "Bench").

Recommendation: The appointment is made by the Governor (or Lieutenant Governor) only on the recommendation of the High Court.

The J&K Higher Judicial Service Rules
Specifically for Jammu & Kashmir, the J&K Higher Judicial Service Rules, 2009 further detail these requirements for candidates:

Age: Generally must be between 35 and 45 years of age.

Language: Must be proficient in reading and writing Urdu.

Practice: Must have been in actual practice as an advocate in Civil or Criminal courts for at least seven years as of the last date of application.

Recent Legal Evolution
In a landmark ruling in 2025, the Supreme Court of India clarified that judicial officers (such as Civil Judges) who had completed seven years of practice at the Bar before joining the judicial service are also eligible to compete for these direct recruitment posts. This decision aims to attract the best talent to the District Judiciary by allowing experienced "in-service" candidates to compete alongside advocates.
2018 Prelims Polity
The first full-fledged High Court of Judicature for the Jammu and Kashmir State was established in the year
A 1928
B 1929
C 1935
D 1947
Correct Answer: Option A
The High Court of Judicature for the then-Princely State of Jammu and Kashmir was established on March 26, 1928, by a order (Order No. 1) issued by the then-Ruler, Maharaja Hari Singh.

Historical Context of the J&K High Court
Before 1928, the Maharaja himself was the highest authority for justice. The establishment of the High Court marked a significant shift toward a formal, modern judicial system in the region.

First Chief Justice: Lala Kanwar Sain was appointed as the first Chief Justice of the court.

The Seat of the Court: The court was designed to move between the two capitals: Srinagar (summer) and Jammu (winter), a tradition that continues today.

Constitutional Evolution: After the state acceded to India, the High Court's powers were further solidified under the J&K Constitution of 1956 and later integrated into the Indian judicial framework.
2018 Prelims Polity
According to the constitution of J&K, 1956, when the office of the Chief Justice is vacant or when the Chief Justice is by reason of absence or otherwise unable to perform the duties of his office, the duties of the office, shall be performed by
A One of the other Judges of the Court as the President may appoint for the purpose
B One of the other Judges of the Court as the Governor may appoint for the purpose
C One of the other Judges of the Court as the Chief Justice of High Court may appoint for the purpose
D One of the other Judges of the Court as the Chief Justice of Supreme Court may appoint for the purpose
Correct Answer: Option D
Under the Indian Constitution, the Governor of a State is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal (Article 155). This remains true for all states in India.

Important Context: Jammu & Kashmir (J&K)
It is important to note the significant changes regarding Jammu & Kashmir following the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019:

State to Union Territory: On October 31, 2019, the state of Jammu & Kashmir was officially bifurcated into two Union Territories: Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.

Lieutenant Governor (LG): Because it is now a Union Territory, the constitutional head is technically called the Lieutenant Governor (LG) rather than a Governor.

Appointing Authority: Even with this change, the President of India remains the authority who appoints the Lieutenant Governor.
2018 Prelims Polity
Who appoints the Governor of Jammu & Kashmir?
A Chief Minister of Jammu & Kashmir
B Prime Minister of India
C Chief Justice of High Court of Jammu & Kashmir
D President of India
Correct Answer: Option D
Under the Indian Constitution, the Governor of a State is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal (Article 155). This remains true for all states in India.

Important Context: Jammu & Kashmir (J&K)
It is important to note the significant changes regarding Jammu & Kashmir following the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019:

State to Union Territory: On October 31, 2019, the state of Jammu & Kashmir was officially bifurcated into two Union Territories: Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.

Lieutenant Governor (LG): Because it is now a Union Territory, the constitutional head is technically called the Lieutenant Governor (LG) rather than a Governor.

Appointing Authority: Even with this change, the President of India remains the authority who appoints the Lieutenant Governor.
2018 Prelims Polity
Which of the following is dealt under Article 325 of Indian Constitution?
A Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters
B Elections to the House of the people
C No discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste or sex
D Power of Parliament to make provisions for elections to Legislatures
Correct Answer: Option C
Article 325 is a cornerstone of Indian democracy because it ensures that the "Electoral Roll" (the list of people who can vote) is secular and universal.

Understanding Article 325
The text of Article 325 specifically provides that:

There shall be one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency.

No person shall be ineligible for inclusion in that roll on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or any of them.

No person can claim to be included in any special electoral roll based on these grounds (abolishing the "separate electorates" seen during British rule).
2018 Prelims Polity
Based on whose recommendations fundamental duties were included in the Indian Constitution?
A Swaran Singh Committee
B Kher Committee
C Pant Committee
D Amitabh Kant Committee
Correct Answer: Option A
Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution of 1950. They were added during the Emergency period to emphasize that while citizens enjoy rights, they also have specific obligations toward the nation.

The History of the Swaran Singh Committee
Formation: In 1976, the Congress government set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations about fundamental duties.

The 42nd Amendment: Based on these recommendations, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 was passed, which inserted a new Part (Part IV-A) and a new Article (Article 51A) into the Constitution.

Number of Duties: Interestingly, the Swaran Singh Committee suggested 8 duties, but the 42nd Amendment actually included 10 duties. An 11th duty was added much later in 2002.
Key Fact: Recommendations Not Accepted
The Swaran Singh Committee had suggested a few points that the Parliament did not include in the Constitution, such as:

The power of Parliament to impose penalties or punishment for non-compliance with duties.

The duty to pay taxes (this was suggested as a Fundamental Duty but rejected).
2018 Prelims Polity
From which fund the salaries and other expenses of the Supreme Court are drawn?
A Public Accounts
B Grants
C Consolidated Funds
D Emergency funds
Correct Answer: Option C
Specifically, the salaries, allowances, and pensions of the judges and the administrative expenses of the Supreme Court are "charged" upon the Consolidated Fund of India.

Why the "Charged" Status Matters
According to Article 146(3) of the Constitution, these expenses are categorized as "charged" rather than just "voted." This is a crucial distinction for judicial independence:

Non-Votable: While these expenses can be discussed in Parliament, they are not subject to a vote. This ensures that the legislature cannot use financial pressure (like cutting salaries) to influence the judiciary.

Administrative Control: The Chief Justice of India has the power to appoint officers and servants of the Court, and their conditions of service are prescribed by the CJI (subject to any law made by Parliament regarding rules).
2018 Prelims Polity
Which article empowers the Supreme Court of India to review any judgement pronounced or made by it earlier?
A Article 137
B Article 138
C Article 139
D Article 139A
Correct Answer: Option A
The correct answer is A) Article 137.

In the legal world, "final" doesn't always mean "unchangeable." Article 137 grants the Supreme Court the specific power to review its own previous judgments or orders. This ensures that if a significant error or a "miscarriage of justice" is discovered later, the Court has the constitutional authority to correct itself.
+1

Understanding the Review Power
The Supreme Court is a "Court of Record," and while its decisions are generally binding, Article 137 allows for a Review Petition. However, this isn't an automatic "second chance" for a losing party; it is usually granted only under specific conditions:

Discovery of new evidence that wasn't available during the initial trial.

An error apparent on the face of the record (a clear clerical or legal blunder).

Any other sufficient reason that justifies a look-back.
2018 Prelims Polity
Which article of Indian constitution provides, 'Right to Minorities to establish educational institutions'?
A Article 29
B Article 30
C Article 31
D Article 31A
Correct Answer: Option B
While both Articles 29 and 30 are grouped under "Cultural and Educational Rights," Article 30 specifically grants all minorities (whether based on religion or language) the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Understanding Articles 29 vs. 30
It is very common to confuse these two, but they serve different purposes:

Article 29 (Protection of Interests of Minorities): This is a general provision that gives any section of citizens the right to conserve their distinct language, script, or culture. It also prohibits discrimination in admission to state-aided educational institutions.

Article 30 (Right of Minorities to Establish Educational Institutions): This is a specific right for religious and linguistic minorities. It ensures that the State, when granting aid, shall not discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority.

Why the other options are incorrect:
Article 31: Originally the Right to Property. However, it was repealed as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 (it is now a legal right under Article 300A).

Article 31A: Deals with the saving of laws providing for the acquisition of estates. It was added later to protect land reform laws from being challenged on the grounds of violating fundamental rights.


Key Feature of Article 30
Did you know that Article 30 is often called the "Charter of Education Rights" for minorities? Under this article, minority institutions can:

Have their own governing body.

Follow their own method of admission (subject to certain academic standards).

Exercise reasonable control over the appointment of staff.
2018 Prelims Polity
Which article of Indian Constitution empowers the parliament to make provisions for elections to legislatures?
A Article 324
B Article 325
C Article 327
D Article 329
Correct Answer: Option C
While Article 324 is the most famous article related to elections, it deals with the superintendence and control of elections by the Election Commission. Article 327, specifically, gives the Parliament the power to make laws regarding the preparation of electoral rolls, the delimitation of constituencies, and all other matters necessary for securing the due constitution of the Houses.


Understanding the Election Cluster (Part XV)
Part XV of the Constitution (Articles 324 to 329) creates the legal framework for India's democratic process. Here is how they differ:

Article 324: Establishes the Election Commission of India and gives it the power of direction and control of elections.

Article 325: States that no person shall be ineligible for inclusion in the electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste, or sex.

Article 326: Defines Adult Suffrage (the right to vote for every citizen above 18 years).

Article 327: Empowers Parliament to make provisions with respect to elections to Legislatures.

Article 328: Empowers the State Legislature to make provisions for elections to that Legislature (only if Parliament hasn't already made a law on the matter).

Article 329: Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters (e.g., courts cannot question the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies).

Why this distinction matters
Article 327 is the reason why Parliament was able to pass major acts like:

The Representation of the People Act, 1950 (Allocation of seats and preparation of rolls).

The Representation of the People Act, 1951 (Actual conduct of elections and disqualifications).

The Delimitation Commission Act.
2018 Prelims Polity
Which one of the following falls under State List?
A Bankruptcy and insolvency
B Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries
C Insurance
D Population control and family planning
Correct Answer: Option B
In India’s federal structure, the Seventh Schedule divides subjects into three lists to ensure clear governance. Public health is a "State subject," which is why you often see different states implementing their own health schemes and managing their own government hospitals.

Key Details about the State List
The State List (List II) currently contains 61 subjects (originally 66). Some of the most common ones include:

Police and Public Order

Agriculture (including education and research)

Local Government (Panchayats and Municipalities)

Water (Water supplies, irrigation, and canals)

Fisheries

Note: Under certain extraordinary circumstances (like a National Emergency or if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution), the Union Parliament can make laws on subjects mentioned in the State List.
2018 Prelims Polity
Which schedule of Indian Constitution deals with Centre-State-Concurrent list?
A Sixth Schedule
B Seventh Schedule
C Eighth Schedule
D Ninth Schedule
Correct Answer: Option B
The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is the backbone of India's federal structure. It defines and specifies the allocation of powers and functions between the Union (Central Government) and the States.

The Three Lists of the Seventh Schedule
The division of powers is categorized into three distinct lists:

Union List (List I): Contains subjects of national importance where only the Central Parliament has the power to make laws.

Examples: Defense, Banking, Foreign Affairs, Railways, and Atomic Energy.

State List (List II): Contains subjects of local or state importance where State Legislatures usually have the exclusive power to make laws.

Examples: Public Order, Police, Public Health, Agriculture, and Fisheries.

Concurrent List (List III): Contains subjects where both the Parliament and State Legislatures can make laws. However, if there is a conflict, the Central law generally prevails.

Examples: Education, Forest, Trade Unions, Marriage and Divorce, and Adoption.
2018 Prelims Polity
Which article of the Indian constitution deals with the, 'Continuance of the rights of citizenship'?
A Article 7
B Article 8
C Article 9
D Article 10
Correct Answer: Option D
While Articles 5 through 9 define who became a citizen at the time the Constitution was commenced, Article 10 ensures that once a person is deemed a citizen under any of those provisions, their citizenship continues, subject to any laws made by Parliament.

Why Article 10 is Important
It acts as a "guarantee" clause. It states that every person who is or is deemed to be a citizen of India shall continue to be such a citizen, subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament. This means:


Your citizenship isn't "temporary" or "at-will" by the government.

Only a formal law passed by Parliament (like the Citizenship Act of 1955) can alter or terminate these rights.
2018 Prelims Polity
Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution deals with the Rights of citizenship of persons who migrated to India from Pakistan?
A Article 5
B Article 6
C Article 8
D Article 9
Correct Answer: Option B
Article 6 provides citizenship rights to persons who migrated from Pakistan to India before the commencement of the Constitution, provided they met certain residency or registration requirements.

Breakdown of the Options
To keep these straight, it helps to look at the "Citizenship" cluster (Articles 5 to 11) in Part II:

Article 5: Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution (for those domiciled in India).

Article 6: Rights of those who migrated to India from Pakistan.

Article 7: Rights of those who migrated to Pakistan but later returned to India under a permit for resettlement.

Article 8: Rights of persons of Indian origin residing outside India (NRI/PIO context).

Article 9: States that any person who voluntarily acquires citizenship of a foreign state automatically loses their Indian citizenship.

Key Conditions of Article 6
For a migrant from Pakistan to be considered an Indian citizen under this article, they (or their parents/grandparents) must have been born in undivided India, and:

If they migrated before July 19, 1948, they must have been ordinarily resident in India since their migration.

If they migrated on or after July 19, 1948, they had to be registered as a citizen by an officer after residing in India for at least six months.
2018 Prelims Polity
Which age group has Right to education according to article 21 A of Indian Constitution?
A 3 to 16 years
B 4 to 14 years
C 5 to 13 years
D 6 to 14 years
Correct Answer: Option D
Article 21A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine.

Understanding Article 21A
The 86th Amendment: This right wasn't in the original Constitution. It was inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, which made elementary education a Fundamental Right.

Fundamental Right: By placing it under Part III of the Constitution, education became a justiciable right, meaning citizens can approach the court if it is violated.

The RTE Act: To give effect to Article 21A, the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 was passed, which came into force on April 1, 2010.

Constitutional Connections
It's interesting to note that the age group of 6–14 appears in three different places in the Constitution to ensure a "360-degree" coverage:

Fundamental Right (Article 21A): The State must provide education.

Directive Principle (Article 45): The State should endeavor to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

Fundamental Duty (Article 51A(k)): It is the duty of every parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of 6 and 14 years.
2018 Prelims Polity
Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties?
A Part 3
B Part 4
C Part 4A
D Part 5
Correct Answer: Option C
While the original Constitution of India did not include a section on duties, they were added later to remind citizens that rights and duties go hand in hand.

Key Facts about Fundamental Duties
Amendment: They were incorporated by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

Article: They are contained within a single article, Article 51A.

Inspiration: The concept was borrowed from the constitution of the former USSR.

Recommendation: They were added based on the recommendations of the Saran Singh Committee.

Number of Duties: Originally there were 10; an 11th duty (regarding education for children) was added by the 86th Amendment Act in 2002.
2018 Prelims Polity
From which date did Article 370 become operative?
A Fifth March, 1948
B Fifth September, 1950
C Seventeenth November, 1952
D Twenty fifth December, 1954
Correct Answer: Option C
While Article 370 was included in the Constitution of India when it was adopted in 1949 and came into force on January 26, 1950, it became "fully operative" in its specific constitutional form following the 1952 Delhi Agreement between Jawaharlal Nehru and Sheikh Abdullah.

Specifically, on November 17, 1952, the Constituent Assembly of Jammu & Kashmir formally adopted the provisions that defined the state's relationship with India under Article 370.

Important Timeline of Article 370
Key Historical Context
The "Temporary" Nature: Article 370 was placed in Part XXI of the Constitution, which deals with "Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions."

The Sadar-i-Riyasat: It was on this date in 1952 that the hereditary monarchy was officially replaced by an elected Head of State (Sadar-i-Riyasat), marking a major shift in the state's internal governance under the Article.

1954 Order (Option D): While 1954 is a famous date, that was the year of the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, which extended several provisions of the Indian Constitution to the state, but it was not the date the Article itself became operative.
2018 Prelims Polity
Which of the following articles of Indian constitution deals with the Right to Freedom of Religion?
A Articles 14 to 18
B Articles 19 to 22
C Articles 23 to 24
D Articles 25 to 28
Correct Answer: Option D
The Right to Freedom of Religion is one of the six fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution. It ensures that India remains a secular state where all religions are treated with equal respect.

Breakdown of Articles 25 to 28
Why the other options are incorrect:
It helps to know these categories, as they often appear together in exams:

Articles 14 to 18 (Option A): Right to Equality (e.g., equality before the law, abolition of untouchability).

Articles 19 to 22 (Option B): Right to Freedom (e.g., freedom of speech, protection of life and personal liberty).

Articles 23 to 24 (Option C): Right against Exploitation (prohibition of forced labor and child labor).

A Quick Tip: While Article 25 gives you the right to practice your religion, it is not absolute. The State can impose restrictions in the interest of public order, morality, and health.
2018 Prelims Polity
Article 370 of the Indian Constitution is related to which of the following states?
A Assam
B Meghalaya
C Jammu & Kashmir
D Mizoram
Correct Answer: Option C
Article 370 was a "temporary provision" in the Indian Constitution that granted special autonomous status to the region of Jammu & Kashmir.

Key Features of Article 370 (Prior to 2019)
Under this article, Jammu & Kashmir was allowed to:

Have its own separate Constitution.

Fly its own State Flag alongside the National Flag.

Exercise jurisdiction over all matters except Defense, Foreign Affairs, Finance, and Communications (which were managed by the Central Government).

The 2019 Amendment
On August 5, 2019, the Government of India issued a Presidential Order that effectively rendered Article 370 inoperative. This led to significant structural changes:

Reorganization: The state was bifurcated into two Union Territories (UTs): Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.

Full Integration: All provisions of the Indian Constitution now apply to the region, just like any other part of India.

Article 35A: This article, which stemmed from Article 370 and defined "permanent residents" (restricting land ownership to locals), was also abolished.
2018 Prelims Polity
The Election Commission was established in accordance with the Indian Constitution in the year:
A 1948
B 1949
C 1950
D 1951
Correct Answer: Option C
The Election Commission of India (ECI) was established on January 25, 1950, just one day before India became a Republic.

Key Historical Facts
National Voters' Day: To mark the foundation day of the Election Commission, January 25th is celebrated every year as National Voters' Day in India.

Constitutional Provision: The power and structure of the Commission are derived from Article 324 of the Indian Constitution.

First Chief Election Commissioner: Sukumar Sen was the first person to hold this office.

Why the other dates are significant (but incorrect):
1948/1949: During these years, the Constituent Assembly was still drafting the Constitution. While the Article relating to the Election Commission was adopted in 1949, the formal body was not "established" until 1950.

1951: This was the year the first General Elections actually began (October 1951 to February 1952), but the Commission had to be established beforehand to organize them.
2018 Prelims Polity
‘To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India’, is established under which of the following sections of the Indian Constitution?
A Fundamental Rights
B Fundamental Duties
C Directive Principles of State Policy
D Preamble of Constitution
Correct Answer: Option B
While the words "Sovereignty, Unity, and Integrity" appear in the Preamble, the specific phrasing "To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India" is a codified duty for every citizen.

Where is it located?
This provision is found under Article 51A(c) of the Indian Constitution.

Understanding the Difference
It is easy to confuse this with the Preamble or Directive Principles, but each serves a different legal function:

Preamble (Option D): It sets the objectives of the Constitution. It declares India to be a "Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic."

Fundamental Duties (Option B): These were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (based on the Swaran Singh Committee recommendations). They are moral obligations of citizens to help maintain the spirit of the nation.

Fundamental Rights (Option A): These are enforceable rights given to individuals against the state (e.g., Right to Equality).

Directive Principles (Option C): These are guidelines for the Government to follow while making laws.
2018 Prelims Polity
Code of Criminal Procedure falls in which of the following lists?
A Union List
B State List
C Concurrent List
D Not Related to Constitution
Correct Answer: Option C
The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)—now replaced by the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) in recent legal reforms—is placed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

Why the Concurrent List?
Under the Seventh Schedule, the Constitution divides legislative powers between the Union and the States. Items in the Concurrent List allow both the Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws on the subject.

Criminal Procedure is listed under Entry 2 of the Concurrent List.

This allows the Central Government to maintain a uniform procedural framework across India, while individual States can make specific amendments to suit their local requirements (provided they receive Presidential assent if they conflict with Central law).
2018 Prelims Polity
Which Government of India (GOI) Act was referred under Article 6 of the Indian Constitution?
A GOI Act 1848
B GOI Act 1909
C GOI Act 1919
D GOI Act 1935
Correct Answer: Option D
Article 6 of the Indian Constitution deals with the citizenship rights of certain persons who migrated to India from Pakistan. It specifically mentions the Government of India Act, 1935, to define the ancestral requirements for citizenship.

Why the GOI Act 1935?
The Act is referenced to establish a legal baseline for "original" residency. Under Article 6, a person is deemed a citizen of India if:

They (or either of their parents or any of their grandparents) were born in India as defined in the Government of India Act, 1935 (which at the time included undivided India).

They migrated to India before July 19, 1948, and had been ordinarily resident since then, OR migrated after that date and registered as a citizen after residing in India for at least six months.
2018 Prelims Polity
As of 31st Dec 2017, what is the age of retirement of Supreme Court judge?
A 55 years
B 65 years
C 60 years
D No age limit
Correct Answer: Option B
In India, the retirement age for a Supreme Court judge is established by the Constitution and has remained consistent for quite some time, including as of December 31, 2017.
Key Details on Judicial Retirement While the Supreme Court retirement age is fixed, it is often confused with the High Court limits. Here is a quick comparison: Position Retirement Age Supreme Court Judge65 Years High Court Judge62 Years Important Context Constitutional Provision: Under Article 124(2) of the Indian Constitution, a judge of the Supreme Court holds office until they attain the age of 65.Determination of Age: If any question arises regarding the age of a Supreme Court judge, it is decided by such authority and in such manner as provided by Parliament .Post-Retirement: After retiring, a Supreme Court judge is barred from pleading or acting in any court or before any authority within the territory of India.
2018 Prelims Polity
The number of members in the United Nations Economic and Social Council is:
A 54
B 57
C 56
D 58
Correct Answer: Option A
About ECOSOC
The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations. Its primary role is to coordinate the economic, social, and environmental work of the UN.

Member Count: It consists of 54 members.

Election: Members are elected by the General Assembly for overlapping three-year terms.

Representation: Seats are allocated based on geographical representation to ensure all regions of the world have a voice.

General Science 8 questions

2018 Prelims General Science
Choose the INCORRECT statement from the following.
A The main constituent of bio-gas is ethane
B Gober-gas is produced when crops, vegetable wastes etc., decompose in the absence of oxygen
C Bio-mass is a renewable source of energy
D Planting more trees is encouraged to ensure clean environment
Correct Answer: Option A
The main constituent of bio-gas is actually Methane , which typically makes up 50% to 75% of the mixture. Ethane is usually found in natural gas but is not the primary component of bio-gas .Analysis of the Statements
Statement A (INCORRECT): Bio-gas is primarily Methane  and Carbon Dioxide  with small traces of Hydrogen Sulfide and moisture.
Statement B (CORRECT): "Gober-gas" (cow dung gas) is produced through anaerobic digestion—the breakdown of organic matter by bacteria in the absence of oxygen. Shutterstock 
Statement C (CORRECT): Bio-mass is considered renewable because the organic materials (plants, wood, waste) can be regrown or replenished in a relatively short timeframe. 
Statement D (CORRECT): Afforestation (planting trees) is a standard environmental practice to sequester carbon dioxide and release oxygen, leading to a cleaner environment.
2018 Prelims General Science
Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of
A Vitamin A
B Vitamin C
C Vitamin B6
D Vitamin E
Correct Answer: Option B
Scurvy is a disease resulting from a chronic lack of Vitamin C (also known as Ascorbic Acid). Vitamin C is essential for the production of collagen, a protein that acts as the "glue" holding our skin, blood vessels, and tissues together.

Symptoms of Scurvy
Swollen and bleeding gums: One of the most common early signs.

Skin spots: Small red or purple spots caused by bleeding under the skin.

Joint pain: Due to weakened connective tissues.

Slow wound healing: The body cannot repair tissues effectively without collagen.
2018 Prelims General Science
In a biotic community, the primary consumers are:
A Carnivores
B Detritivores
C Herbivores
D Omnivores
Correct Answer: Option C
Understanding the Biotic Community
In an ecosystem, energy flows through different levels called Trophic Levels. Every living organism is classified based on what it eats:

Producers: These are green plants that create their own food through photosynthesis.

Primary Consumers: These are the first organisms to eat. Since they eat the producers (plants), they are Herbivores (e.g., rabbits, grasshoppers, cows).

Secondary Consumers: These organisms eat the primary consumers. These are usually Carnivores or Omnivores (e.g., frogs, snakes).

Tertiary Consumers: These are top-level predators that eat secondary consumers (e.g., hawks, lions).

Why the other options are incorrect:
Carnivores (A): These are secondary or tertiary consumers because they eat other animals.

Detritivores (B): These are "clean-up" organisms (like earthworms or vultures) that feed on dead and decaying matter. They operate at all levels of the food chain.

Omnivores (D): These eat both plants and animals. While they can be primary consumers, they are not the primary classification for that level because their diet is mixed.
2018 Prelims General Science
Which of the following is a disease that results in inflammation of the skin and also known as eczema?
A Dermatitis
B Dysmenorrhoea
C Scabies
D Constipation
Correct Answer: Option A
Why Dermatitis?
The term "Dermatitis" literally translates to "skin inflammation."

Derma: Refers to the skin.

-itis: A medical suffix used to denote inflammation.

Eczema is actually a specific type of dermatitis (Atopic Dermatitis). It results in itchy, red, and inflamed patches of skin.

Why the other options are incorrect:
Dysmenorrhoea (B): This is the medical term for painful menstrual cramps. It is related to the reproductive system, not the skin.

Scabies (C): While this affects the skin, it is a contagious infestation caused by tiny burrowing mites (Sarcoptes scabiei), rather than a general term for inflammatory eczema.

Constipation (D): This is a digestive system condition where a person has difficulty emptying their bowels.
2018 Prelims General Science
Which of the following is NOT a noble gas?
A Helium
B Nitrogen
C Argon
D Neon
Correct Answer: Option B
Why Nitrogen is the odd one out: 
Noble Gases (Group 18): These are a group of chemical elements with similar properties. They are all odorless, colorless, monatomic gases with very low chemical reactivity because their outer electron shells are full. The noble gases include Helium ($He$), Neon ($Ne$), Argon ($Ar$), Krypton ($Kr$), Xenon ($Xe$), and Radon ($Rn$).Nitrogen (Group 15): While Nitrogen ($N$) is a gas at room temperature and makes up 78% of Earth's atmosphere, it is highly reactive compared to noble gases and belongs to the "Non-metals" category. It typically exists as a diatomic molecule ($N_2$)
2018 Prelims General Science
India being a tropical country, gets abundance of sunlight. Of late, solar cells have become popular in the country even in its remotest locations. These cells are also called:
A Photovoltaic cells
B Dry cells
C Galvanic cells
D Electrochemical cells
Correct Answer: Option A
Why "Photovoltaic"?
The term comes from the Greek word phos, meaning "light," and the name of the physicist Alessandro Volt.

Mechanism: Photovoltaic (PV) cells are electronic devices that convert sunlight directly into electricity using the photovoltaic effect. When sunlight hits the semiconducting material (usually silicon) inside the cell, it knocks electrons loose, creating an electric current.

Structure: Multiple solar cells are connected to form a solar panel, and multiple panels can be linked to create a solar array.

Why the other options are incorrect:
Dry cells (B): These are standard batteries (like the ones in your TV remote) that use a paste electrolyte rather than a liquid. They store chemical energy, they don't generate it from light.

Galvanic cells (C): Also known as voltaic cells, these derive electrical energy from spontaneous chemical reactions (like a car battery).

Electrochemical cells (D): This is a broad category that includes any device capable of either generating electrical energy from chemical reactions or using electrical energy to cause chemical reactions.

Solar Power in India
Because India is a tropical country, it receives about 5,000 trillion kWh of solar energy per year. The government has pushed for PV cells in remote areas because they are:

Low Maintenance: No moving parts means they last a long time.

Scalable: You can have one small panel for a single light or a massive "Solar Park" for an entire city.
2018 Prelims General Science
What is the unit of measurement for the total amount of ozone in the atmosphere above a point on the earth’s surface?
A Dobson Unit
B Darson Unit
C Datsun Unit
D Dalton Unit
Correct Answer: Option A
What is a Dobson Unit?
The Dobson Unit is the most common way to measure the concentration of ozone in the atmosphere. It represents how thick the ozone layer would be if all of the ozone molecules in a column of air were brought down to the Earth's surface at standard temperature and pressure (0°C and 1 atmosphere of pressure).
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The Measurement: One Dobson Unit is equivalent to a layer of pure ozone only 0.01 millimeters thick.

A "Healthy" Layer: A typical ozone layer has a concentration of about 300 Dobson Units. This means if you compressed it all, it would only be about 3 millimeters thick—roughly the thickness of two pennies stacked together!

Why the other options are incorrect:
Darson Unit: This is not a recognized scientific unit of measurement for ozone.

Datsun Unit: Datsun is actually a famous brand of Japanese automobiles, not a scientific unit.

Dalton Unit: A Dalton (Da) is a unit of mass used to express atomic and molecular weights (also known as the unified atomic mass unit).

The Origin
The unit is named after G.M.B. Dobson, a British physicist and meteorologist who, in the 1920s, built the first instrument (the Dobson spectrophotometer) to measure total ozone from the ground.
2018 Prelims General Science
Ozone layer which absorbs harmful solar UV radiation is found in which layer of the atmosphere?
A Troposphere
B Stratosphere
C Mesosphere
D Ionosphere
Correct Answer: Option B
The atmosphere is divided into layers based on temperature and altitude. The stratosphere sits directly above the troposphere (the layer where we live and breathe).

The Ozone Layer: About 90% of the Earth's ozone is concentrated in the lower portion of the stratosphere, typically between 15 to 35 kilometers above the Earth's surface.

The Function: This layer acts as a "shield," absorbing about 97% to 99% of the sun's medium-frequency ultraviolet (UV) light, which would otherwise damage living organisms on the surface.

Environment & Ecology 1 questions

2018 Prelims Environment & Ecology
The Taj Mahal is built with white marble and is threatened by environmental pollution. Threat to Taj Mahal from Mathura refinery is due to the effect of which gases)?
A Oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen
B Mercury vapours
C Oxides of Silicon and Arsenic
D Osmium tetroxide
Correct Answer: Option A
The Mathura Oil Refinery, located about 50 km from the Taj Mahal, has been a major source of concern because it releases Sulphur Dioxide  and Nitrogen Oxides  into the atmosphere.
How it affects the Taj Mahal: Acid Rain When these gases react with the moisture (water vapor) in the air, they form Sulphuric Acid and Nitric Acid. These acids fall to the earth as Acid Rain. The Taj Mahal is made of white marble, which is chemically Calcium Carbonate . The acid rain reacts with the marble through a process called "Marble Cancer," which corrodes the stone and turns it yellow.

Geography 2 questions

2018 Prelims Geography
Which of the following energy sources cannot be replenished in a short period of time?
A Natural gas
B Hydro energy
C Geo thermal energy
D Wind energy
Correct Answer: Option A
Renewable vs. Non-Renewable Resources
Energy sources are generally categorized based on how quickly they can be replaced by nature:

Non-Renewable Resources: These exist in a fixed amount and take millions of years to form. Once we use them, they cannot be replenished in a human timeframe. Natural gas, along with coal and oil (fossil fuels), falls into this category.
+2

Renewable Resources: These are naturally replenished on a human timescale, such as sunlight, wind, and water.

Why the other options are incorrect:
The other three options are all Renewable sources:

Hydro energy (B): Relies on the water cycle, which is continuous.

Geothermal energy (C): Comes from the heat generated within the Earth's core, which is virtually inexhaustible.

Wind energy (D): Caused by the heating of the atmosphere by the sun; as long as the sun shines, there will be wind.
2018 Prelims Geography
Which of the following energy sources cannot be replenished in a short period of time?
A Natural gas
B Hydro energy
C Geo thermal energy
D Wind energy
Correct Answer: Option A
Renewable vs. Non-Renewable Resources
Energy sources are generally categorized based on how quickly they can be replaced by nature:

Non-Renewable Resources: These exist in a fixed amount and take millions of years to form. Once we use them, they cannot be replenished in a human timeframe. Natural gas, along with coal and oil (fossil fuels), falls into this category.
+2

Renewable Resources: These are naturally replenished on a human timescale, such as sunlight, wind, and water.

Why the other options are incorrect:
The other three options are all Renewable sources:

Hydro energy (B): Relies on the water cycle, which is continuous.

Geothermal energy (C): Comes from the heat generated within the Earth's core, which is virtually inexhaustible.

Wind energy (D): Caused by the heating of the atmosphere by the sun; as long as the sun shines, there will be wind.

Current Affairs 1 questions

2018 Prelims Current Affairs
What is the name of the satellite that was sent into orbit by a SAARC country for technical and scientific contribution?
A CARTOSAT
B METSAT
C GSAT-9
D PSAT-4
Correct Answer: Option C
The South Asia Satellite
GSAT-9 is popularly known as the South Asia Satellite (formerly the SAARC Satellite). It was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on May 5, 2017, using the GSLV-F09 rocket.


Key Contributions and Features
The satellite was a gift from India to its fellow SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) member nations to foster regional cooperation in science and technology.

Participating Nations: Aside from India, the beneficiaries include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, and Sri Lanka. (Pakistan opted out of the project).
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Scientific Utility: It provides crucial support in areas like tele-education, tele-medicine, disaster management, and weather forecasting.

Technical Specs: It is a Geostationary communication satellite equipped with 12 Ku-band transponders.

Why the other options are incorrect:
CARTOSAT (A): This is a series of Indian Earth observation satellites primarily used for high-resolution mapping and resource management.

METSAT (B): Now known as Kalpana-1, this was India's first dedicated meteorological satellite, but it was not a specific SAARC-wide joint contribution.

PSAT-4 (D): This is not a recognized satellite in the context of major SAARC scientific contributions.

History 1 questions

2018 Prelims History
Who among the following conferred the title of ‘Father of the Nation’ on Mahatma Gandhi?
A C. Rajagopalachari
B Vallabhbhai Patel
C Jawaharlal Nehru
D Subhash Chandra Bose
Correct Answer: Option D
The History of the Title
While the Government of India does not officially confer the title of "Father of the Nation" (as the Constitution does not permit such titles), it has become a deeply ingrained part of Indian identity.

The First Instance: Subhash Chandra Bose first used the term "Father of the Nation" (Pita-ma) in a radio address from Singapore on July 6, 1944.

The Context: During a broadcast on the Azad Hind Radio, Bose addressed Gandhi, saying, "Father of our Nation! In this holy war for India's liberation, we ask for your blessings and good wishes."

The Relationship: Despite their significant ideological differences regarding the method of achieving independence (non-violence vs. armed struggle), Bose held Mahatma Gandhi in the highest personal esteem.

Economy 1 questions

2018 Prelims Economy
Which type of inflation is caused due to excessive growth of money supply in the economy?
A Cost-push Inflation
B Cost-pull Inflation
C Demand-pull Inflation
D Demand-push Inflation
Correct Answer: Option C
Why Demand-pull Inflation?
Demand-pull inflation occurs when the demand for goods and services exceeds the economy's ability to produce them. It is often described by the phrase: "Too much money chasing too few goods."

When the money supply grows excessively (for example, if a government prints too much money or interest rates are very low), people have more cash to spend. This surge in spending "pulls" prices upward because the supply of products cannot keep up with the new, higher demand.

Why the other options are incorrect:
Cost-push Inflation
 (A): This is caused by a decrease in supply due to rising costs of production (like higher wages or more expensive raw materials like oil). It "pushes" prices up from the supply side.

Cost-pull / Demand-push (B & D): These are not standard economic terms. They are "distractor" options designed to sound similar to the real terms.

English 16 questions

2018 Prelims English
Choose the correct narration:
My brother had lost his charger and he asked me to give him mine.

A My brother said, "Give me my charger."
B I said, "Give me my charger."
C My brother said, "Give me your charger."
D I said, "Give me your charger."
Correct Answer: Option C
Breaking Down the Narration To change Indirect Speech (reported) back into Direct Speech (quotes), you have to look at who is speaking and who they are speaking to :Identify the Speaker: The sentence says "he [my brother] asked me." So, the quote must start with My brother said .Adjust the Pronouns: In Indirect Speech, he wants "him mine" (meaning he wants the brother to give the narrator's charger).In Direct Speech, the brother would look at you and say "your" charger.The Command: Since he "asked me to give," the direct quote is an imperative (a command or request): "Give me..."Pronoun Shift TableWhen moving from Indirect to Direct speech, pronouns often shift to reflect the "real-time" conversation:Indirect (Reported)Direct (Quoted)Why?He asked meMy brother saidIdentifying the original speaker.Give himGive meThe speaker refers to himself as "me."Mine (Narrator's)YourThe speaker refers to the listener's item as "yours."Why the others are wrong:Option A: "Give me my charger" implies the brother lost his and is asking for his own back, but the original sentence says he asked for mine (the narrator's).Option B & D: These start with "I said," but the original sentence clearly states the brother was the one doing the asking.
2018 Prelims English
Fill in the blanks with a suitable modal verb:
There is no forecast of rain and it is sunny now. But it still _______ rain.

A may
B should
C must
D could
Correct Answer: Option D
Why "could"?
In English, modal verbs express different levels of probability. Here is why "could" is the best fit for this specific context:

Could (Remote Possibility): We use "could" when something is possible, but not necessarily likely. Since the sentence mentions there is "no forecast" and it is "sunny," the chance of rain is very low or unexpected. "Could" perfectly captures this remote possibility.

May (Stronger Possibility): "May" is usually used when there is a more realistic or 50/50 chance of something happening.

Should (Expectation): "Should" implies you expect it to rain based on evidence. This contradicts the fact that it is currently sunny.

Must (Certainty): "Must" expresses a logical conclusion or strong necessity. You wouldn't say it "must rain" if the sky is clear and sunny.
2018 Prelims English
Rearrange the following jumbled up sentence into a meaningful one.
postman/tired/very/the/day/end/looked/at/of/the
A The end of day looked the very tired the postman.
B The very tired of the postman looked at the end of the day.
C The postman looked very tired at the end of the day
D The very end of the tired day looked at the postman.
Correct Answer: Option C
Breaking Down the Sentence Structure
To rearrange jumbled sentences, it helps to identify the Subject, the Verb, and the Object/Adverbial Phrase:

Subject: Who is the sentence about? (The postman)

Verb: What did the subject do or how did they appear? (looked)

Adjectives/Adverbs: How did he look? (very tired)

Time/Place: When did this happen? (at the end of the day)

Why the others are incorrect:
Option A: The grammar is scrambled and doesn't follow a logical "Subject + Verb" order.

Option B: This suggests that the "tiredness" itself was looking at the day, which doesn't make sense.

Option D: This personifies the "day," suggesting the day was tired and looking at the postman.

The Logical Result:
"The postman (Subject) looked (Verb) very tired (Adjective phrase) at the end of the day (Time phrase)."
2018 Prelims English
Fill in the blanks with the correct option:
The vegetable cutlet made of potatoes and____ broke into small _______.


A pieces, peas
B peas, pieces
C peas, peace
D peace, pieces
Correct Answer: Option B
Breaking Down the Homophones
This sentence uses homophones—words that sound exactly the same but have different meanings and spellings.

Peas (Noun): Small, round green seeds eaten as a vegetable. Since the sentence mentions "vegetable cutlet" and "potatoes," this is the logical ingredient.

Pieces (Noun): Portions or fragments of something that has been broken or divided.

Peace (Noun): A state of tranquility or the absence of war/conflict. (You wouldn't want "peace" inside a cutlet!)
2018 Prelims English
Fill in the blanks with the correct option:
I was wondering, _______ gift is this?

A Whom
B Whose
C When
D Who
Correct Answer: Option B
Why "Whose"?
In English, we use Whose to ask about possession or ownership. It functions as the possessive form of "who."

Whose: Used to ask which person owns or is responsible for something.

Example: "Whose shoes are these?"

Who: Used to ask about the subject of a sentence (the person doing the action).

Example: "Who bought this gift?"

Whom: Used to ask about the object of a verb or preposition (the person receiving the action).

Example: "To whom should I give this gift?"

When: Refers to time, not people or objects.
2018 Prelims English
Fill in the blanks with the correct option:
I will _______ all your terms and conditions _______ the last one.

A accept, expect
B expect, accept
C accept, except
D expect, except
Correct Answer: Option C
Understanding the Difference
This is a classic case of homophones—words that sound similar but have very different meanings and spellings.

Accept (Verb): This means to agree to something, to receive something offered, or to say "yes."

Example: "I accept your apology."

Except (Preposition/Conjunction): This means "excluding" or "but not." It points out an exclusion from a group.

Example: "I like all fruit except bananas."

Why the other options are wrong:
Expect: This means to regard something as likely to happen (e.g., "I expect it to rain"). It doesn't fit the logic of agreeing to terms and conditions.

Option A & B: These swap the words into positions where the sentence no longer makes logical sense.

The Completed Sentence:
"I will accept all your terms and conditions except the last one."
2018 Prelims English
Fill in the blanks with the correct tense form of the verb.

I am hungry. I _______ to eat.


A want
B wants
C am wanting
D will wants
Correct Answer: Option A
Why "want"?
This sentence requires the Simple Present tense. Here is the breakdown of why the other options don't work:

Subject-Verb Agreement: The subject is "I". In the simple present, we only add an "-s" to the verb for third-person singular subjects (he, she, it). Since the subject is "I," we use the base form want.

Stative Verbs: "Want" is a stative verb (a verb that describes a state of being or a desire rather than a physical action). In English, we rarely use stative verbs in the continuous "-ing" form. Saying "I am wanting" sounds unnatural in this context.

Grammar Rules: "Will wants" is grammatically incorrect because the modal verb "will" is always followed by the base form of a verb without an "-s" (e.g., "I will want").
2018 Prelims English
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate article:
I like learning new languages. French is ____________ easy language.

A a
B an
C the
D no article
Correct Answer: Option B
Why "an"?
In English, the choice between "a" and "an" depends on the sound that follows the article:

Use "an" before words that begin with a vowel sound (a, e, i, o, u).

Use "a" before words that begin with a consonant sound.

In your sentence, the word "easy" begins with the vowel sound /iː/, so "an" is the correct fit.

The full sentence: "French is an easy language."
2018 Prelims English
Rearrange the following jumbled up sentence into a meaningful one.

asked/I/come/to/him/today

A I asked to come him today.
B I asked him to come today.
C Today I come to him asked
D Today I come him to asked
Correct Answer: Option B
To rearrange a jumbled sentence correctly, it helps to follow the standard English sentence structure: Subject + Verb + Object + Phrase.

Breaking Down the Structure
Subject: Who is doing the action? (I)

Verb: What is the action? (asked)

Object: Who received the action? (him)

Infinitive Phrase: What was he asked to do? (to come)

Adverb of Time: When? (today)

Why the others are incorrect
A) I asked to come him today: This incorrectly places the object "him" after the infinitive "to come." In English, the person being asked must follow the verb "asked" immediately.

C & D: These options confuse the verb tenses and the placement of "today," resulting in a sentence that doesn't follow logical English syntax.
2018 Prelims English
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate articles:
Mr. Sharma became ____________ Chancellor of a university in 1965.

A a
B an
C the
D no article
Correct Answer: Option C
The sentence should read: "Mr. Sharma became the Chancellor of a university in 1965."

Why "The" is the Correct Article
In English grammar, we use the definite article (the) when referring to a specific title or a unique post held by one person at a time within an organization.

Uniqueness of the Role: A university typically has only one Chancellor at any given time. Because the position is a specific, unique title, "the" is required.

The "Of" Construction: When a noun is followed by a phrase starting with "of" (e.g., Chancellor of a university), it usually makes the first noun specific, which triggers the use of "the."

Why the others don't fit:
A / An: Using "a" would imply that there are many Chancellors at the same university and Mr. Sharma was just one of them. This doesn't fit how high-ranking titles usually work.

No Article: While some titles (like President or Queen) can sometimes drop the article when used directly before a name (e.g., "Chancellor Sharma"), when the title is used as a noun following a verb like became, the article is generally necessary.
2018 Prelims English
Fill in the blanks with the correct preposition:

The dog saw the cat on the other side of the fence, so the dog jumped the fence.

A above
B over
C into
D onto
Correct Answer: Option B
When an animal or object moves from one side of a barrier to the other by going through the air, "over" is the standard preposition to describe that path.

Why "Over" is the Right Choice
In English, prepositions of movement describe the specific trajectory of an object. Here is why over fits and why the others don't quite work:

Over: Describes movement from one side to the other, often involving an arc that passes above the object without necessarily touching it. Since the dog wants to get to "the other side," this is the most logical action.

Above: Usually describes a fixed position higher than something else (e.g., "The bird hovered above the tree"). It doesn't typically imply the action of crossing from Point A to Point B.

Into: Implies moving to the inside of something (e.g., "The dog jumped into the pool"). You cannot jump "into" a solid fence.

Onto: Implies landing on top of a surface (e.g., "The dog jumped onto the sofa"). While a dog could jump onto a fence, it usually implies they stayed there rather than crossing to the cat's side.
2018 Prelims English
Identify the clause of the underlined part of sentence: 
you can go, whenever you want.
A adverb clause of time
B adverb clause of place
C adverb clause of manner
D adverb clause of reason
Correct Answer: Option A
Why it is an Adverb Clause of Time
An adverb clause is a group of words that functions as an adverb, meaning it modifies a verb, adjective, or another adverb. In this sentence, the clause "whenever you want" modifies the verb "go."

The Trigger Word: The subordinating conjunction "whenever" refers to a point in time (or any time).

The Question Test: To find an adverb clause of time, ask the question "When?"

Question: When can you go?

Answer: Whenever you want.
2018 Prelims English
Fill in the blanks with the correct tense form of the verb.
I am feeling quite full. I _______________.

A eat
B ate
C have just eaten
D will eat
Correct Answer: Option C
The Logic: Present Perfect Tense
The sentence "I am feeling quite full" describes your current state. When a past action (eating) has a direct, visible, or physical result in the present (feeling full), we use the Present Perfect tense.

Structure: Have/Has + Past Participle (eaten).

The "Just" Factor: The word "just" is commonly used with the Present Perfect to indicate that the action happened very recently.

Why the other options don't fit:
A) eat (Simple Present): This implies a habit or a general fact (e.g., "I eat apples every day"). It doesn't explain why you feel full right now.

B) ate (Simple Past): While grammatically possible in casual conversation, the Simple Past usually refers to a finished time in the past (e.g., "I ate an hour ago"). It doesn't emphasize the connection to your current physical state as strongly as Option C.

D) will eat (Simple Future): This refers to an action that hasn't happened yet. If you are already full, you likely aren't planning to eat immediately!
2018 Prelims English
Choose the correct narration:
"How is your father?", asked my friend.

A my friend asked how was my father?
B my friend asked how is my father?
C my friend asked how my father is.
D my friend asked how my father was.
Correct Answer: Option D
The Rules of Reported Speech When you change a direct question into reported (indirect) speech, two major things happen: Tense Shift (Back shifting): Since the reporting verb ("asked") is in the past tense, the verb inside the quote must move one step into the past. Direct: "is" (Present) $\ right arrow$ Indirect: "was" (Past).Word Order Change: In a direct question, the verb comes before the subject (is your father). In reported speech, the sentence becomes a statement, so the subject comes before the verb (my father was).
2018 Prelims English
Fill in the blanks with appropriate idioms or phrases:

He wanted a break from the monotony of his job. So he _______________ on an adventure.
A) set aside
B) set back
C) set off
D) set up

A set aside
B set back
C set off
D set up
Correct Answer: Option C
In this context, "set off" is a phrasal verb that means to begin a journey or start a trip.

Why "set off" is the right choice:
Set off: Specifically used for starting a voyage or adventure.

Set aside: Means to save something (like money) or ignore a feeling.

Set back: Refers to a delay or a reversal in progress.

Set: On its own, this doesn't complete the phrasal verb needed to describe starting a journey.

More Examples of "Set Off"
To help you get a feel for how it’s used in different scenarios:

"We set off for the mountains at the crack of dawn."

"The hikers set off on their trek with plenty of water and a map."

"They set off to explore the ancient ruins."
2018 Prelims English
Choose the correct synonym for the highlighted word:
That they suddenly formed an alliance makes me suspicious.

A mistrustful
B confident
C believable
D convinced
Correct Answer: Option A
Why "Mistrustful" Fits
In the sentence provided, the speaker feels a sense of doubt or caution regarding the sudden alliance. Being suspicious means you have a feeling that something is wrong or dishonest without having definite proof.

Mistrustful: To be wary or lacking trust (Matches the context perfectly).

Confident: To be certain or sure of something (The opposite of suspicious).

Believable: Something that is easy to accept as true (Describes the situation, not the person's feeling).

Convinced: To be completely certain or persuaded (The opposite of suspicious).

Quick Tip: When looking for synonyms, try "plugging" the options into the sentence.

"That they suddenly formed an alliance makes me mistrustful."

This maintains the original meaning, whereas the other options would change the tone of the sentence entirely.

More JKSSB Previous Year Questions

Naib Tehsildar 2018

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