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JKSSB Sub Inspector 2022 Previous Year Questions

Practice authentic exam questions with answers and explanations

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14
Subjects
2022
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Modern India 2 questions

2022 Prelims Modern India
The British Parliament took away the power to govern India from East India Company after the Revolt of 1857. The title of the Empress of India was assumed by:
A Queen Margaret
B Queen Elizabeth
C Queen Isabella
D Queen Victoria
Correct Answer: Option D
Historical Context
The Transfer of Power: In 1858, the "Governor-General" was given the additional title of Viceroy to represent the Crown.

The Proclamation: Queen Victoria’s assumption of the title was formally announced at the Delhi Durbar on January 1, 1877, organized by Viceroy Lord Lytton.

Symbolism: The title was intended to link the British monarchy to the previous Mughal emperors and solidify British sovereign rule over the Indian princely states.

Analyzing the Other Options
A) Queen Margaret: There has never been a "Queen Margaret" of the United Kingdom; this name is often associated with Scottish royalty from much earlier centuries.

B) Queen Elizabeth: Queen Elizabeth I reigned in the 16th century, and Queen Elizabeth II did not ascend the throne until 1952.

C) Queen Isabella: This refers to the Spanish monarch who famously sponsored Christopher Columbus in 1492.
2022 Prelims Modern India
The British Parliament took away the power to govern India from East India Company after the Revolt of 1857. The title of the Empress of India was assumed by:
A Queen Margaret
B Queen Elizabeth
C Queen Isabella
D Queen Victoria
Correct Answer: Option D
Historical Context
The Transfer of Power: In 1858, the "Governor-General" was given the additional title of Viceroy to represent the Crown.

The Proclamation: Queen Victoria’s assumption of the title was formally announced at the Delhi Durbar on January 1, 1877, organized by Viceroy Lord Lytton.

Symbolism: The title was intended to link the British monarchy to the previous Mughal emperors and solidify British sovereign rule over the Indian princely states.

Analyzing the Other Options
A) Queen Margaret: There has never been a "Queen Margaret" of the United Kingdom; this name is often associated with Scottish royalty from much earlier centuries.

B) Queen Elizabeth: Queen Elizabeth I reigned in the 16th century, and Queen Elizabeth II did not ascend the throne until 1952.

C) Queen Isabella: This refers to the Spanish monarch who famously sponsored Christopher Columbus in 1492.

English 15 questions

2022 Prelims English
Choose the correct word substitute for the following sentence: 
The branch of Physics concerned with the properties of sound.
A Rhythm
B Resonance
C Acoustics
D Announce
Correct Answer: Option C
Acoustics is the interdisciplinary science that deals with the study of mechanical waves in gases, liquids, and solids, including topics such as vibration, sound, ultrasound, and infrasound.

Understanding the Terms
Acoustics: The formal branch of physics that studies how sound is produced, transmitted, and received.

Resonance: A phenomenon that occurs when a system oscillates at larger amplitudes at specific frequencies. While it is a property studied within acoustics, it is not the name of the branch itself.

Rhythm: A term primarily used in music and linguistics to describe a strong, regular, repeated pattern of movement or sound.

Announce: A verb meaning to make a formal public statement; it is unrelated to the scientific study of sound.

2022 Prelims English
Complete the sentence with the correct option:
The sender should choose his words very carefully in order to _______.

A confuse the receiver
B create a vague message
C avoid ambiguity
D complicate the message
Correct Answer: Option C
Why Avoiding Ambiguity is Essential
Clarity: Clear wording ensures that the "Encoded" message by the sender matches the "Decoded" message by the receiver.

Efficiency: It prevents the need for follow-up questions or corrections, saving time for both parties.

Accuracy: In professional environments, vague instructions can lead to costly mistakes.

Analyzing the Other Options
A) confuse the receiver: This is the opposite of the goal of communication.

B) create a vague message: Vagueness is a barrier to communication; it leads to uncertainty.

D) complicate the message: Effective communication follows the KISS principle (Keep It Short and Simple). Complexity usually leads to misunderstanding.
2022 Prelims English
Whom would you choose as the recipient of a message?
A Those who should not have access to the information
B Those who will be affected by the message or its results
C Those who have no say or interest in the matter
D Those who have no responsibility or capability of understanding
Correct Answer: Option B
Criteria for Choosing a Recipient
Choosing the right recipient is a key part of Business Communication and Information Management. Ideally, a recipient should meet at least one of these criteria:

Stakeholders: People who have a "stake" or interest in the project or news.

Decision Makers: Those who have the authority to act on the information provided.

Impacted Parties: Individuals whose daily work or lives will change based on the message.

Analyzing the Other Options
A) Those who should not have access: This describes a security breach or a violation of confidentiality.

C) Those who have no say or interest: This leads to information overload and "noise." Sending irrelevant emails to uninterested parties reduces overall productivity.

D) Those who have no responsibility or capability: This results in miscommunication. If the receiver cannot understand or act upon the message, the communication has failed its purpose.
2022 Prelims English
What kind of a phrase is the underlined part of the sentence? The glass was full of water when it slipped from his hands.
A Verb Phrase
B Adverb Phrase
C Prepositional Phrase
D Adjective Phrase
Correct Answer: Option D
Why it is an Adjective Phrase
An adjective phrase is a group of words that describes a noun or a pronoun. In this specific structure:

The word "full" is an adjective describing the noun "glass."

The phrase "of water" completes the meaning of that adjective (it tells us what the glass was full of). Together, "full of water" functions as a single unit to describe the state of the glass.

Analyzing the Other Options
A) Verb Phrase: This would consist of a main verb plus any helping verbs (e.g., "was running").

B) Adverb Phrase: This would modify a verb, an adjective, or another adverb, usually telling us how, when, where, or why (e.g., "with great speed").

C) Prepositional Phrase: While "of water" starts with a preposition, its functional role in this specific sentence is to complete the adjective. In many grammar tests, if a phrase functions to modify a noun or complete an adjective, it is categorized by that function (Adjective Phrase).
2022 Prelims English
Identify the part of the sentence that has an error: 
The dog pounced in the thief when he tried to run away.
A The dog pounced
B in the thief
C when he tried
D tried to run away
Correct Answer: Option B
Pounce on/upon: This is the standard idiomatic expression used to describe a sudden downward spring or swoop.

Correct: The dog pounced on the thief.

In: This preposition usually indicates being inside a physical space or container (e.g., "The dog is in the house"). Since the dog is attacking from the outside, "in" is logically and grammatically incorrect here.

Analyzing the Other Parts
A) The dog pounced: This is a correct Subject + Verb structure in the past tense.

C) when he tried: This is a correct subordinating conjunction and clause showing the timing of the action.

D) tried to run away: This is a correct infinitive phrase ("to run") following the verb "tried."
2022 Prelims English
What is the meaning of miscommunication?
A Using the wrong medium to communicate
B Using the wrong language
C Disturbance in the channel of communication
D The receiver not perceiving the intended meaning of the message
Correct Answer: Option D
Understanding the Communication Process
To understand why "D" is the definitive answer, it helps to look at the Shannon-Weaver Model of Communication. Miscommunication happens when the "decoded" message doesn't match the "encoded" message.

Encoding vs. Decoding: The sender puts thoughts into words (encoding), and the receiver interprets those words (decoding). If the receiver's interpretation is different, miscommunication has occurred.

The Role of Noise: Noise (represented by option C) is any interference—physical, mental, or cultural—that distorts the message.

The Medium/Language: Options A and B are specific types of barriers, but they aren't the definition of the failure itself.
2022 Prelims English
Instruction: Below mentioned are statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some fruits are vegetables
Some vegetables are leafy vegetables
No leafy vegetable is a fruit
Conclusions:
I) All fruits are leafy vegetables
II) No fruit is a leafy vegetable

A Only II follows
B Only I follows
C Both I and II follow
D None of the conclusions follow
Correct Answer: Option A
Step-by-Step Analysis
To solve this clearly, we can use a Venn Diagram to map out the relationships between the three groups: Fruits, Vegetables, and Leafy Vegetables.

Statement 1: "Some fruits are vegetables" — This means there is an overlap between the 'Fruit' circle and the 'Vegetable' circle.

Statement 2: "Some vegetables are leafy vegetables" — This means there is an overlap between the 'Vegetable' circle and the 'Leafy Vegetable' circle.

Statement 3: "No leafy vegetable is a fruit" — This is a definitive restriction. The 'Leafy Vegetable' circle and the 'Fruit' circle cannot touch or overlap.

2022 Prelims English
Identify the part of the sentence that has an error: The college offer all the courses of arts and humanity but no courses of science.
A The college offer
B the courses
C of arts and humanity
D but no courses of science
Correct Answer: Option A
The Rule: Singular vs. Plural
In English grammar, the verb must match the subject in number.

The Subject: "The college" is a singular noun (one entity).

The Verb: "Offer" is the plural form of the verb.

The Correction: For a singular subject in the third person, you must add an -s to the verb.

Corrected Sentence: "The college offers all the courses of arts and humanity but no courses of science."
Breaking Down the Other Options
B) the courses: This is correct. "Courses" is plural, which fits the context of multiple subjects.

C) of arts and humanity: This is grammatically acceptable, though "humanities" (plural) is more common in academic titles.

D) but no courses of science: This is a perfectly fine way to show a contrast.

Quick Tip for Spotting Errors
If you are unsure, try replacing the subject with a pronoun:

You wouldn't say: "It offer..." ❌

You would say: "It offers..." ✅
2022 Prelims English
Identify the synonym for the word – acrimony
A rancor
B civility
C matrimony
D obstinacy
Correct Answer: Option A
Acrimony means bitterness, ill will, or sharp hostility (especially in speech or feelings).

Rancor is a direct synonym, referring to deep-seated resentment, bitterness, or lasting ill will.
Civility is an antonym (politeness, courtesy).
Matrimony means marriage (completely unrelated).
Obstinacy means stubbornness (different meaning).

Thus, the synonym for acrimony is rancor.
2022 Prelims English
Identify the Antonym for the word-disparity
A visibility
B vulgarity
C humility
D similarity
Correct Answer: Option D
Disparity means a great difference, inequality, or lack of similarity.

Similarity means the state of being alike or having common qualities, making it the direct opposite.

Analysis of other options:

Visibility: The state of being able to see or be seen.

Vulgarity: The state of lacking sophistication or good taste.

Humility: A modest or low view of one's own importance.
2022 Prelims English
Which of these can be a barrier to communication?
A Clear diction
B Unbiased opinion
C Use of high-sounding words
D Good network connection
Correct Answer: Option C
In the context of effective communication, using overly complex, technical, or "high-sounding" language is known as a Semantic Barrier. If the receiver of the message doesn't understand the vocabulary being used, the meaning is lost, and the communication fails.

Why "High-sounding words" are a barrier:
Jargon: Using specialized terms that only experts understand.

Ambiguity: Complex words can often have multiple meanings, leading to confusion.

Exclusion: It can make the listener feel alienated or unintelligent, closing off the "feedback loop" necessary for good conversation.
2022 Prelims English
Identify the Antonym for the word - Jeopardy
A escapade
B revelry
C peril
D safety
Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Jeopardy refers to a state of danger, risk, or exposure to harm, loss, or failure.

Safety (D) is the condition of being protected from or unlikely to cause danger, risk, or injury, making it the direct opposite.

Analysis of other options:
A) Escapade: An act involving some danger, risk, or excitement; often used for a reckless adventure.

B) Revelry: Lively and noisy festivities, often involving drinking.

C) Peril: Serious and immediate danger. This is a synonym of jeopardy, not an antonym.
2022 Prelims English
Identify the synonym for the word - imminent
A important
B expedient
C impending
D unlikely
Correct Answer: Option C
Both imminent and impending describe something that is about to happen very soon, often used in the context of something significant or unavoidable (like a storm, a deadline, or an event).
2022 Prelims English
Choose the correct word substitute for the following sentence: One who engages in an art, science, study, or sport for pleasure rather than payment
A amateur
B dramatist
C provocateur
D Professional
Correct Answer: Option A
An amateur is someone who pursues an activity—whether it's photography, painting, or a sport—out of personal passion or for the love of the craft, rather than for financial gain.
2022 Prelims English
What kind of a phrase is the underlined part of the sentence? The diamond is shining brightly, that everyone is mesmerized by it.
A Adverb Phrase
B Adjective Phrase
C Noun Phrase
D Verb Phrase
Correct Answer: Option B
Why it's an Adjective Phrase
In your sentence, "shining brightly" describes the diamond (a noun). Even though "brightly" is an adverb on its own, when it is paired with the participle "shining" to describe the state or quality of the noun, the entire unit functions as an adjective phrase.

The Head Word: "Shining" acts as the head of the phrase, functioning as a participle adjective.

The Modifier: "Brightly" modifies "shining" to tell us how it is shining.

The Target: The entire phrase "shining brightly" provides more information about the subject, the diamond.

Polity 15 questions

2022 Prelims Polity
As per the provisions of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, which Article of Indian Constitution is applicable to “Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir”?
A Article 238
B Article 238A
C Article 236
D Article 239A
Correct Answer: Option D
According to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is governed under Article 239A of the Indian Constitution. This is the same article that originally applied to the Union Territory of Puducherry.Why Article 239A?Article 239A allows Parliament to create a law providing for a Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers for certain Union Territories.By applying this article, the 2019 Act ensured that while Jammu and Kashmir became a Union Territory, it retained a representative form of government (an elected assembly), unlike the UT of Ladakh, which does not have a legislature.
Analysis of Other Options
A) Article 238: This article was repealed by the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956. It formerly dealt with "Part B" States.

B) Article 238A: This is not a valid article in the current Indian Constitution.

C) Article 236: This article deals with "Interpretation" in the context of the subordinate judiciary (definitions of terms like "district judge").
2022 Prelims Polity J&K
According to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union Territory created without a Legislature is:
A Ladakh
B Jammu and Kashmir
C Jammu
D Kargil
Correct Answer: Option A
Key Structural Differences

The Act created two types of Union Territories based on the presence of a legislative body:

UT of Ladakh: Created without a Legislative Assembly. It is administered directly by the President of India through a Lieutenant Governor. It comprises two districts: Leh and Kargil.

UT of Jammu and Kashmir: Created with a Legislative Assembly (similar to Puducherry and Delhi). While it has a Lieutenant Governor, it is also designed to have an elected body of representatives to make laws on subjects in the State List and Concurrent List (with certain exceptions like Public Order and Police).

Analyzing the Other Options

B) Jammu and Kashmir: As mentioned, this UT was created with a legislature.

C) Jammu: This is a region/division within the UT of Jammu and Kashmir, not a separate Union Territory.

D) Kargil: This is a district within the UT of Ladakh, not a separate Union Territory.
2022 Prelims Polity
As per the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, an Administrator will be appointed under Article 239 of the Constitution of India for the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir and he/she shall be designated as:
A UT Administrator
B Lieutenant Governor
C Deputy Governor
D Advocate-General
Correct Answer: Option B
According to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, both of the newly created Union Territories—Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh—are presided over by a Lieutenant Governor (LG) appointed by the President of India.

Key Legal Provisions
Article 239: This Article of the Constitution deals with the administration of Union Territories. It states that every Union Territory shall be administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him with such designation as he may specify.

The Act's Specification: Under Section 14 of the Reorganisation Act, it is explicitly stated that the administrator for the UT of Jammu and Kashmir (which has a Legislative Assembly) and the UT of Ladakh (which does not) shall be designated as the Lieutenant Governor.
2022 Prelims Polity
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, has introduced certain changes in ‘The States’ and ‘The Union Territories’ sections of the Constitution. Accordingly, which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has been amended?
A First Schedule
B Second Schedule
C Third Schedule
D Fifth Schedule
Correct Answer: Option A
Key Changes under the 2019 Act
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, brought about a massive shift in India's internal geography:

Status Change: The state of Jammu and Kashmir was bifurcated into two separate Union Territories: Jammu & Kashmir (with a Legislative Assembly) and Ladakh (without a Legislative Assembly).

Article 3 Amendment: Under the powers granted by Article 3 of the Constitution, Parliament amended the First Schedule to delete "Jammu and Kashmir" from the list of States and add the two new entities to the list of Union Territories.

Fourth Schedule: It is worth noting that the Fourth Schedule (allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha) was also amended to redistribute the seats for the new UT of Jammu & Kashmir.
2022 Prelims Polity
The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on which of the following dates?
A Nov 26, 1949
B Dec 26, 1950
C Jan 26, 1949
D Nov 26, 1947
Correct Answer: Option A
While the Constitution was adopted in 1949, it did not come into full effect until two months later.

Adoption Date (Nov 26, 1949): The Constituent Assembly finished its work and the members signed the document. Certain provisions, such as those relating to citizenship and elections, came into force immediately.

Enforcement Date (Jan 26, 1950): The entire Constitution came into effect, marking the birth of the Republic of India. This date was chosen to honor the "Purna Swaraj" (Total Independence) declaration of 1930.

Key Facts
Drafting Committee Chairman: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, often called the "Father of the Indian Constitution."

Time Taken: It took exactly 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days to complete the drafting.

The Original Document: The original Constitution was not printed but was handwritten and calligraphed in both Hindi and English
2022 Prelims Polity
In the Indian parliamentary system, a member who is elected for a full term of the Rajya Sabha serves for a period of:
A 4 years
B 5 years
C 6 years
D 2 years
Correct Answer: Option C
Key Features of the Rajya Sabha The Rajya Sabha is known as the "Permanent House" because, unlike the Lok Sabha, it is never fully dissolved. Here is how the rotation works: Staggered Retirement: Every two years, one-third (1/3) of the members retire. Continuous Cycle: New members are elected to fill those specific vacancies, meaning the house is always active. Representation: Members are not elected directly by the public. Instead, they are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union Territories.
A Unique Power
Because the Rajya Sabha represents the interests of the States, it has the unique power to authorize the Parliament to make laws on subjects usually reserved for the State List if it's deemed to be in the national interest.
2022 Prelims Polity
How can barriers created by refutations and arguments be resolved?
A listening to the views of the other
B trying to prove one's own views are correct
C setting up the sender or receiver at a higher position
D stating the contradictions
Correct Answer: Option A
This question appears in various competitive exam MCQs (e.g., JK Police SI, development communication, business communication quizzes, and similar tests on platforms like Testbook). The correct answer, as per standard solutions in these sources, is A) listening to the views of the other.
Explanation:
Barriers created by refutations and arguments arise during communication when parties become defensive, focus on countering each other, or prioritize winning the debate over mutual understanding (a common psychological or semantic barrier in interpersonal/organizational communication).
This leads to poor listening, selective perception, and escalation of conflict. The most effective way to resolve such barriers is by shifting from rebuttal mode to active and empathetic listening—genuinely hearing and considering the other person's views. This promotes openness, reduces defensiveness, builds rapport, and allows constructive dialogue.
The other options worsen the barrier:

B) Trying to prove one's own views are correct → Reinforces argumentativeness and defensiveness.
C) Setting up the sender or receiver at a higher position → Creates hierarchy/power imbalance, increasing resistance.
D) Stating the contradictions → Highlights opposition further, escalating refutations instead of bridging gaps.

Effective communication principles (e.g., in models emphasizing feedback, empathy, and two-way interaction) stress that open listening overcomes such interpersonal barriers.1.6sFast
2022 Prelims Polity
In October 2021, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the second phase of Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban (SBM-U) and Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT), missions. These have been designed to realise the aspiration of making the cities of India
A Pollution Free and Home Secure
B Slum Free and Food Secure
C Garbage Free and Water Secure
D Crime Free and Food Secure
Correct Answer: Option C
The second phase of Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban (SBM-U 2.0) and Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT 2.0) was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on October 1, 2021. Official announcements from the Prime Minister's Office and government sources explicitly state that these missions were designed to realize the aspiration of making all cities of India 'Garbage Free' and 'Water Secure'.

SBM-U 2.0 focuses on achieving "Garbage Free" status for all cities through solid waste management, source segregation, and related measures.
AMRUT 2.0 emphasizes universal water supply, used water management, and making cities "water secure."

This matches option C directly, as confirmed across multiple reliable sources including pmindia.gov.in and PIB releases from the time of the launch. The other options do not align with the stated objectives of these missions.
2022 Prelims Polity
Which of the following political parties belong to Kerala?
A United Democratic Front
B United Capitalist Front
C United Socialist Front
D United Progressive Front
Correct Answer: Option A
The political party (more precisely, the major political alliance or front) that belongs to Kerala among the given options is A) United Democratic Front.

A) United Democratic Front (UDF) — This is a well-established, active coalition in Kerala, led by the Indian National Congress (INC). It includes parties like the Indian Union Muslim League (IUML), various Kerala Congress factions, Revolutionary Socialist Party, and others. It is one of the two dominant fronts in Kerala's politics (alongside the Left Democratic Front or LDF), alternating in power for decades. The UDF serves as the main opposition currently and contests elections regularly in the state.

The other options do not correspond to any recognized political fronts or parties in Kerala:

B) United Capitalist Front — No such alliance or party exists in Kerala (or India broadly in this context). Searches yield no relevant matches; it appears fabricated.
C) United Socialist Front — No active or historical front by this exact name in Kerala. Earlier coalitions (like the United Front in the 1970s) existed but were different and dissolved; nothing matches this precisely today.
D) United Progressive Front — This does not exist in Kerala. (Note: The United Progressive Alliance or UPA is a national-level coalition led by Congress, in which some Kerala UDF constituents participate, but it is not a Kerala-specific front.)

Kerala's politics revolves primarily around the UDF (Congress-led, centre to centre-right) and LDF (CPI(M)-led, left-wing), with the BJP-led NDA as a smaller third force. The question likely refers to the UDF as the Kerala-specific entity matching the description.
Thus, the correct answer is A) United Democratic Front
2022 Prelims Polity
Who among the following became the Prime Minister of India, after the 16th Lok Sabha elections?
A Atal Bihari Vajpayee
B Man Mohan Singh
C H D Deve Gowda
D Narendra Modi
Correct Answer: Option D
Narendra Modi became the Prime Minister of India after leading the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) to a majority victory in the 16th Lok Sabha elections, which were held in 2014.
2022 Prelims Polity
What would be a barrier to communication in another country?

A not knowing the language
B unfamiliar surroundings
C not having the right currency
D not knowing what to order in a restaurant
Correct Answer: Option A
While the other options can certainly make a trip stressful or confusing, they don't fundamentally block the exchange of information (which is what communication is) in the same way a language gap does.

Why Language is the Primary Barrier
Communication is the process of sending and receiving messages. If you don't speak the local language, the "code" used to transmit those messages is broken. This creates a linguistic barrier where:

Verbal cues (words, syntax) are unrecognizable.

Nuance and tone are easily misunderstood.

Basic needs (asking for directions or medical help) become difficult to express.
2022 Prelims Polity
In 2021, the Supreme Court of India launched an Artificial Intelligence (AI) based portal through which it intends to leverage machine learning to deal with the vast amounts of data received at the time of filing of cases. Identify the name of this portal.
A AIRAWAT
B SUPACE
C RAISE
D UDAAN
Correct Answer: Option B
In 2021, the Supreme Court of India launched an Artificial Intelligence (AI) based portal through which it intends to leverage machine learning to deal with the vast amounts of data received at the time of filing of cases. Identify the name of this portal.
2022 Prelims Polity
As per Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India, the President of India is elected through which of the following processes?
A Territorial representation
B Functional representation
C Proportional representation
D Minority representation
Correct Answer: Option C
Understanding Article 55(3)
According to the Constitution of India, the election of the President is not a direct vote by the citizens. Instead, it follows a specific technical process:

System: Proportional representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote (STV).

Method: Voting is done by Secret Ballot.

The Electoral College: The President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament (MP) and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (MLA).
2022 Prelims Polity
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 received assent from the President on:
A 7th July, 2019
B 8th September, 2019
C 9th August, 2019
D 11th June, 2019
Correct Answer: Option C
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, followed a very rapid legislative timeline in August of that year. Here is the sequence of events that led to the Act becoming law:

Timeline of the Act
August 5, 2019: The Bill was introduced in the Rajya Sabha (Upper House) by the Minister of Home Affairs, Amit Shah, and was passed on the same day.

August 6, 2019: The Bill was passed by the Lok Sabha (Lower House).

August 9, 2019: The Bill received the President's Assent (President Ram Nath Kovind), officially making it an Act.

October 31, 2019: The Act officially came into force, marking the formal transition of the state into two Union Territories.

Key Provisions of the Act
The Act fundamentally changed the political and administrative structure of the region:

Reconstitution: It reconstituted the State of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories: UT of Jammu and Kashmir and UT of Ladakh.

Article 370: This legislative move was preceded by a Presidential Order that made all provisions of the Indian Constitution applicable to J&K, effectively nullifying its special status.

Governance: It provided for a Legislative Assembly for the UT of Jammu and Kashmir, while the UT of Ladakh was established without one.
2022 Prelims Polity
As per the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Union territory of Ladakh comprises of which of the following territories of the State of Jammu and Kashmir?
A Kargil and Leh districts
B Doda and Kathua districts
C Ramban and Reasi districts
D Leh and Poonch districts
Correct Answer: Option A
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the erstwhile state was reconstituted into two separate Union Territories (UTs): the UT of Jammu and Kashmir and the UT of Ladakh.

Key Details of the Reorganisation
The Act specifically defines the territories for the new Union Territory of Ladakh as follows:

Territorial Scope: The UT of Ladakh comprises the Kargil and Leh districts.

Administration: Unlike the UT of Jammu and Kashmir, Ladakh was created without a Legislative Assembly and is administered by a Lieutenant Governor.

Remaining Districts: All other districts of the former state (such as Doda, Kathua, Ramban, Reasi, and Poonch mentioned in the other options) remained part of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

Reasoning 9 questions

2022 Prelims Reasoning
Priya leaves her house at 20 minutes to 6 in the evening and takes 30 minutes to reach Anjali’s house. They finish their breakfast in another 10 minutes and leave for their office which takes another 40 minutes. At what time does she reach her office?
A 6:50 PM
B 7:00 PM
C 7:10 PM
D 7:20 PM
Correct Answer: Option B
Step-by-Step Calculation:1. Determine the starting time:"20 minutes to 6 in the evening" means 5:40 PM.2. Calculate the total time elapsed:
Travel to Anjali's house: 30 minutes Breakfast: 10 minutes Travel to office: 40 minutes Total duration: 30 + 10 + 40 = \mathbf{80 \text{ minutes}} (or 1 hour and 20 minutes).
3. Add the duration to the starting time:

5:40 PM + 80 minutes

5:40 PM + 1 hour = 6:40 PM

6:40 PM + 20 minutes = 7:00 PM
2022 Prelims Reasoning
Instruction: Below mentioned are statements followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Statements:
All lions are cats.
All cats are hunters.
Conclusions:
I) All hunters are lions
II) Some hunters are lions
III) All lions are hunters

A Only II follows ˅
B Only III follows ˅
C Both I and II follow
D Both II and III follow
Correct Answer: Option D
To solve syllogism problems accurately, it is best to use a Venn Diagram to visualize the relationship between the sets.

Logical Breakdown
1. "All lions are cats"
This means the set of "Lions" is entirely contained within the set of "Cats."

2. "All cats are hunters"
This means the set of "Cats" is entirely contained within the set of "Hunters."

Evaluating the Conclusions
Conclusion I: All hunters are lions.
False. Looking at the diagram, the "Hunters" circle is the largest. While all lions are hunters, there is a large area of the "Hunters" circle that exists outside the "Lions" circle. We cannot say all hunters are lions.

Conclusion II: Some hunters are lions.
True. Since all lions are inside the hunter category, that specific portion of hunters consists of lions. In logic, "All" implies "Some"; if all lions are hunters, it is certain that at least some hunters are lions.

Conclusion III: All lions are hunters.
True. If A (Lions) is inside B (Cats), and B is inside C (Hunters), then A is automatically inside C. This is a transitive relationship
2022 Prelims Reasoning
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the statement given below?
Statement: The dietician advised – “Eat healthy & avoid junk food to stay fit”

Assumption (I): Junk food isn’t healthy.
Assumption (II): Healthy food habits prevent a person from many diseases

A Only Assumption I is implicit
B Only Assumption II is implicit
C Neither I nor II is implicit
D Both I & II are implicit
Correct Answer: Option D
In logical reasoning, an assumption is something that is taken for granted or accepted as true by the speaker in order for their statement to make sense.

Logical Breakdown
Assumption (I): Junk food isn’t healthy.

Why it's implicit: The dietician contrasts "Eat healthy" with "avoid junk food." By telling someone to avoid junk food in order to "stay fit," the speaker is inherently assuming that junk food is the opposite of healthy and acts as an obstacle to fitness. If junk food were healthy, the advice to avoid it would be illogical.

Assumption (II): Healthy food habits prevent a person from many diseases.

Why it's implicit: The goal of the dietician's advice is to help the person "stay fit." Fitness and health are fundamentally linked to the prevention of diseases. Therefore, the advice is based on the underlying belief that eating healthy has a protective effect on one's physical condition (preventing disease).
2022 Prelims Reasoning
Directions: Read the following statements and answer the questions given below:
A is the Father of B, but B is not his son. C is the daughter of B. D is the wife of A. E is the brother of B. H is the son of E, F is the wife of E, G is the father of F.

Question: Who is the Sister in law of B?

A H
B F
C D
D C
Correct Answer: Option B
To solve blood relation problems like this, it is helpful to map out the family tree using standard symbols (e.g., squares/circles for gender and horizontal/vertical lines for relationships).

Step-by-Step Relationship Mapping
A and B: A is the Father of B. However, B is not his son, which means B is the Daughter of A.

A and D: D is the wife of A. This makes D the Mother of B.

B and E: E is the brother of B. This means E and B are siblings (children of A and D).

E and F: F is the wife of E.

Finding the Sister-in-law
Definition: A sister-in-law is the wife of one's brother or the sister of one's spouse.

Since E is the brother of B, and F is the wife of E, then F is the sister-in-law of B

Analyzing the Other Options
A) H: H is the son of E, making H the nephew of B.

C) D: D is the wife of A and mother of B, making her the mother.

D) C: C is the daughter of B, making her the daughter.
2022 Prelims Reasoning
What is the coded number for WNCSZV from the following figure?
Figure:
LETTER: C Z N V R S W F D
CODE DIGIT: 8 6 4 7 2 9 3 5 1

A 348267
B 318267
C 348957
D 348967
Correct Answer: Option D
To find the coded number, we simply match each letter in the string WNCSZV to its corresponding digit provided in the figure.

Step-by-Step Mapping
Using the data provided:

W = 3

N = 4

C = 8

S = 9

Z = 6

V = 7

Putting them together: 348967
2022 Prelims Reasoning
Select one of the following four options that will make the 2nd pair analogous to the 1st pair given.
345 : 12 :: 179 : ?

A 14
B 15
C 16
D 17
Correct Answer: Option D
This is a Number Analogy puzzle where the relationship is based on the sum of the individual digits of the first number.Logical PatternTo find the relationship in the first pair, add the digits of 345 together:3 + 4 + 5 = 12
Now, apply the same logic to the second pair:1 + 7 + 9 = 17
2022 Prelims Reasoning
Alex who was facing the West direction turns 135 degrees in the clockwise direction and then turns 45 degrees in the anti-clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
A North
B South
C North-East
D South-West
Correct Answer: Option A
Step-by-Step Calculation:
Initial Direction: 
West.First Turn: 135° clockwise ($+135^\circ$).Second Turn: 45° anti-clockwise ($-45^\circ$).Net Change: $+135^\circ - 45^\circ = +90^\circ$ (Clockwise).Applying the Net Change:Alex started facing West.Rotating 90° clockwise from West brings him to North.Visualization of the Turns:Starting Point: Facing West ($270^\circ$ on a standard compass).After 135° Clockwise: He passes North ($90^\circ$ turn) and goes another 45°, ending up facing North-East.After 45° Anti-Clockwise: He turns back 45° from North-East, which lands him exactly on North.Pro Tip: In direction and distance problems, always treat clockwise as "plus" and anti-clockwise as "minus." It makes finding the final facing much faster than drawing every single arrow!
2022 Prelims Reasoning
Hitesh started walking from his home. First, he walked straight from his home and took a left turn. He then walked for some more distance and took a right turn. Again, he walked some distance and took a left turn. If he is facing the North direction at the end, then in which direction did he start walking initially?
A East
B West
C North
D South
Correct Answer: Option A
To find the initial direction, we can work backward from his final position or test the options. Here is the step-by-step breakdown:Method 1: Working BackwardIf Hitesh ended facing North, we can reverse his turns in opposite order to find where he started:Final Direction: North.Reverse the last Left turn: Instead of turning left to face North, we turn Right from North $\rightarrow$ He was facing East.Reverse the Right turn: Instead of turning right to face East, we turn Left from East $\rightarrow$ He was facing North.Reverse the first Left turn: Instead of turning left to face North, we turn Right from North $\rightarrow$ He was facing East.Initial Direction: East.Method 2: Testing Option A (East)Let's trace the path starting from the East:Start walking straight: Facing East.Take a Left turn: Now facing North.Take a Right turn: Now facing East.Take a Left turn: Now facing North.Since the final direction matches "North" as stated in the problem, East is the correct starting direction.Quick Tip for Direction ProblemsYou can also use a "Net Turn" calculation:Left (+90°) + Right (-90°) + Left (+90°) = One Net Left turn (+90°).If (Starting Direction) + (90° Left) = North, then the Starting Direction must be East.
2022 Prelims Reasoning
In a certain code, '731' means 'study very hard', '953' means 'hard work pays' and '145' means 'study and work'. Which of the following is the code for 'very'?
A 1
B 7
C 4
D 9
Correct Answer: Option B
To solve coding-decoding problems like this, we use the elimination method by comparing the phrases to find common words and their corresponding numbers.

Step-by-Step Breakdown:
1. Compare the first and second statements:

'731' = 'study very hard'

'953' = 'hard work pays'

Common word: 'hard' | Common number: 3

Result: hard = 3

2. Compare the first and third statements:

'731' = 'study very hard'

'145' = 'study and work'

Common word: 'study' | Common number: 1

Result: study = 1

3. Find the code for 'very':

Look back at the first statement: '731' = 'study very hard'

We already know: study = 1 and hard = 3.

The only remaining number in '731' is 7, and the only remaining word is very.

Result: very = 7

Computer 13 questions

2022 Prelims Computer
Which of the following refers to a web address which uniquely identifies an object over the internet?
A DNS
B URL
C HOST
D IP Address
Correct Answer: Option B
A URL (Uniform Resource Locator) is the complete web address used to find a specific resource on the internet. While other terms like IP addresses identify locations, the URL is the human-readable string that points uniquely to an object, such as a specific webpage, image, or document.
2022 Prelims Computer
A printed circuit board that can be installed to enhance a computer’s capabilities, as by increasing memory or improving graphics is called
A writing tablet
B keyboard
C expansion board
D NIC controller
Correct Answer: Option C
Common Types of Expansion Boards
Graphics Cards (GPU): Enhances the computer's ability to render images, video, and 3D graphics.

Sound Cards: Improves audio processing and provides high-quality input/output for speakers and microphones.

RAM Modules: While often referred to separately, memory expansion cards can increase the system's volatile memory.

Storage Controllers: Adds ports for additional hard drives or high-speed SSDs (like NVMe expansion cards).
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Writing tablet: An external input device (peripheral) used by artists or for digital signatures; it is not a board installed inside the computer.

B) Keyboard: A standard external input device used for typing.

D) NIC controller: A Network Interface Card (NIC) is actually a type of expansion board (or built-in chip). While it improves connectivity, the term "expansion board" is the broader, more accurate category for any board used to "enhance capabilities" as described in the question.
2022 Prelims Computer
Which device is used to perform the traffic directing functions on the Internet?
A Bridge
B Firewall
C Router
D Hub
Correct Answer: Option C
A router is a specialized networking device that manages the flow of data between different networks. It acts as the "traffic police" or "dispatcher" of the internet, analyzing data packets to determine the most efficient path for them to reach their destination IP address.

How a Router Directs Traffic
Routing Table: Routers maintain an internal map called a "routing table" which contains information on the best paths to various network destinations.

Packet Switching: Information on the internet is broken into small "packets." The router reads the header of each packet to see where it is going and forwards it to the next node in the network.

Network Interconnection: While a switch or hub connects devices within a single network (LAN), a router connects different networks (e.g., connecting your home network to the Internet Service Provider's network).
2022 Prelims Computer
Choose the best option to complete the sentence:
Most of the communication methods used today are _______.

A technology-based
B manually operated
C centralized
D time-sensitive
Correct Answer: Option A
Why "Technology-based" is the best fit:
Ubiquity: Devices like smartphones, laptops, and tablets have replaced traditional methods like handwritten letters or telegrams.

Infrastructure: Modern communication relies on the internet, satellites, and fiber-optic cables, all of which are technological advancements.

Speed and Scale: Technology allows for near-instantaneous global communication, which was impossible under "manually operated" systems.
Analyzing the other options:
B) Manually operated: This refers to older methods, such as a switchboard operator connecting phone calls by hand or a postal worker sorting mail. These are now largely automated.

C) Centralized: While some platforms (like Facebook) are centralized, the internet itself and many modern methods (like Peer-to-Peer or Blockchain messaging) are becoming increasingly decentralized.

D) Time-sensitive: While some communication (like emergency alerts) is time-sensitive, a huge portion of modern communication is asynchronous (like emails or YouTube comments), meaning it can be read or watched at any time
2022 Prelims Computer
Which of the following is an online discussion group where people can join a group and post messages to that group?
A Exit polls
B Photos and films
C Forums
D Editorials
Correct Answer: Option C
Key Characteristics of a Forum
Threads: Discussions are organized by specific topics (threads).

Moderation: Most groups have "Moderators" who ensure users follow community rules.

Anonymity: Users often use "usernames" or avatars rather than their real identities.

Community Building: They allow people with niche interests (like coding, gardening, or gaming) to connect globally.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Exit polls: These are surveys conducted immediately after voters leave polling stations during an election to predict the winners.

B) Photos and films: These are types of multimedia content, not interactive discussion platforms.

D) Editorials: These are opinion pieces written by the senior editorial staff or publisher of a newspaper or magazine. They are one-way communications, not group discussions.
2022 Prelims Computer
Which one of the following is a standard mail protocol used to receive emails from a remote server to a local email client?
A SMI
B POP3
C SNMP
D UDP
Correct Answer: Option B
Understanding the Protocols
POP3 (Post Office Protocol): Think of this like a physical post office. You go in, pick up your mail, and take it home. Once you have it, it's no longer at the post office.

IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol): This is the main alternative to POP3. It syncs your mail across devices, meaning the mail stays on the server so you can see the same inbox on your phone and your laptop.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A) SMI (Structure of Management Information): Used in network management to define the objects managed by SNMP.

C) SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol): Used for collecting and organizing information about managed devices on IP networks (like routers, switches, and printers).

D) UDP (User Datagram Protocol): A communications protocol used across the internet for especially time-sensitive transmissions such as video playback or DNS lookups. It is a "transport layer" protocol, not an email protocol.
2022 Prelims Computer
What will happen to data in RAM (Random Access Memory) when power goes off and computer shuts down?
A Data is stored permanently in RAM and the data will not get erased from the memory
B Data is retrieved from backup registers when power is restored and activity resumes normally
C Data stored in Random Access Memory is lost when power goes off and it will have to be recreated
D Data is recovered from Disaster Recovery site (DR site) and operation is continued with little disturbance
Correct Answer: Option C
This is because RAM is volatile memory. Unlike a hard drive or SSD (Non-volatile memory), RAM requires a constant flow of electricity to maintain the data stored within its cells.Why is the data lost?RAM uses tiny capacitors to store data as electrical charges. When the power is cut, these capacitors quickly discharge, and the binary information (1s and 0s) they were holding simply disappears. This is why you lose unsaved progress on a document if your computer crashes before you hit "Save."How it works when you reboot:Startup: When you turn the computer back on, the RAM is empty.Loading: The Operating System (OS) and necessary files are copied from the Hard Drive (Permanent storage) back into the RAM (Active workspace).Speed: We use RAM despite this flaw because it is significantly faster than permanent storage, allowing the CPU to access data almost instantly.
2022 Prelims Computer
What is the term Soft indicates in Software?
A All the computer languages are very soft in nature and product created using these languages are called as Software
B Programs doesn’t create any noise during execution, unlike disk drives which is part of Hardware. So it is software
C Computer software can be changed easily by users as per their requirement and hence the term soft operating in it
D Most of the developers are soft in nature. Due to this reason the term soft is tagged in the product developed
Correct Answer: Option C
The term "Software" was coined to contrast with "Hardware." While hardware refers to the physical, rigid components of a computer (like the processor, memory, and circuits) that are difficult and expensive to change, software consists of the instructions and data that tell the hardware what to do.

The "Soft" vs. "Hard" Distinction
Hardware (Hard): Historically, changing the function of a machine required physically re-wiring it or replacing parts. This is "hard" because it is fixed and permanent.

Software (Soft): Because software is stored digitally, it can be updated, deleted, or rewritten without changing the physical machine. This malleability or "softness" allows a single computer to perform thousands of different tasks (e.g., from word processing to gaming) just by loading different code.
2022 Prelims Computer
What is the number of bits of an IP address in IPV6 version?
A 32
B 64
C 128
D 256
Correct Answer: Option C
While IPv4 uses 32 bits (allowing for about 4.3 billion addresses), IPv6 was designed to solve the problem of address exhaustion by using a much larger 128-bit address space.Why 128 bits?To put that number into perspective, $2^{128}$ provides approximately 340 undecillion addresses. That is enough to assign an IP address to every atom on the surface of the Earth and still have plenty left over.
2022 Prelims Computer
Which of the following markup language is used to add effects to a web page?
A XML
B DHTML
C C++
D C Language
Correct Answer: Option B
Why DHTML?
DHTML stands for Dynamic Hypertext Markup Language. It isn't a standalone language like HTML or XML; rather, it’s a term used to describe the collection of:

HTML: For the structure.

CSS: For the styling and layout.

JavaScript: To provide the "effects" and logic.

DOM (Document Object Model): To allow the script to access and change elements on the fly.
2022 Prelims Computer
To control the operations of a computer which of the following software is designed?
A Application
B System
C Utility
D User
Correct Answer: Option B
System Software is a type of computer program that is designed to run a computer's hardware and application programs. If we think of a computer as a layered cake, the system software is the base layer that makes everything else possible.
2022 Prelims Computer
Which of the following options is a web browser to access the internet?
A Microsoft Word
B Google Chrome
C Adobe Reader
D TeamViewer
Correct Answer: Option B
A web browser is a software application used to locate, retrieve, and display content on the World Wide Web, including webpages, images, and videos.
2022 Prelims Computer
Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option:
In formatting an e-mail, care should be taken that ______________.

A the reference number is mentioned
B the original message is attached
C the enitire message is not written in capital letters
D there are no attachments
Correct Answer: Option C
Why is this the correct choice?
In professional and digital communication (often called "Netiquette"), typing in all capital letters is considered the equivalent of shouting.

Readability: Blocks of text in all caps are harder for the human eye to scan and process.

Tone: It can come across as aggressive, rude, or overly urgent.

Spam Filters: Many email filters flag emails written entirely in caps as potential spam.

Quick Professional E-mail Checklist:

Maths 5 questions

2022 Prelims Maths
The average weight of 25 kids is 24 kg. If the weight of a man is included, then the average weight increases by 2 kg. The weight of the man is
A 50 kg
B 75 kg
C 76 kg
D 84 kg
Correct Answer: Option C
When the man joins, he brings enough weight to increase his own average to 26 kg AND increase the weight of the 25 kids by 2 kg each.
New Average = 26Total increase for the 25 kids = $25 \times 2 = 50$Man's weight = $26 + 50 = \mathbf{76\text{ kg}}$
2022 Prelims Maths
Given below is a question followed by 2 statements numbered I and II. Choose the statement(s) required to answer the question by selecting a relevant option.
Question: What is the length of the line segment AC?

Statements:
I. Length of line segment AB is 10 cms
II. Length of line segment BC is 10 cms

A Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) ALONE is NOT sufficient
B Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) ALONE is NOT sufficient
C BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient
D Statements (I) and (II) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Correct Answer: Option D
In data sufficiency problems, you must determine if the provided information allows for a single, definitive answer. In this case, even with both statements, we lack the necessary geometric context to calculate the length of AC.
2022 Prelims Maths
If x:y = 1:3, then the ratio (7x²+3xy) : (2xy+y²) is
A 10 : 3
B 16 : 5
C 16 : 7
D 16 : 15
Correct Answer: Option D
To find the value of the ratio $(7x^{2} + 3xy) : (2xy + y^{2})$, we can use the given relationship between $x$ and $y$.
2022 Prelims Maths
If ₹ 306 is 5/9 % of the price of a sofa, then the price of the sofa is
A ₹ 55080
B ₹ 64560
C ₹ 5580
D ₹75840
Correct Answer: Option A
₹306 is 5/9 % of the price of the sofa.
This means:
306 = (5/9) % × Price of sofa
Or, in equation form:
306 = (5/9) × (1/100) × Price
To find the price:
Price = 306 ÷ [(5/9) × (1/100)]
= 306 × (9/5) × 100
= 306 × (900 / 5)
= 306 × 180
Now, 306 × 180 = 55,080
(Quick check: 300 × 180 = 54,000; 6 × 180 = 1,080; total = 55,080)
Thus, the price of the sofa is ₹55,080.
Correct option: A) ₹55080
2022 Prelims Maths
Mohan saves 30 by getting 5% discount on a article. What is the amount of money paid by him?
A ₹ 580
B ₹ 560
C ₹ 570
D ₹ 550
Correct Answer: Option C
1. Identify the given information:
Discount percentage: 5%
Discount amount: ₹ 302. 

Calculate the Marked Price (MP):The discount is calculated as a percentage of the marked price. 

Let the marked price be x.
5% { of } x = 30 
{5}\{100} times x = 30
x = 30 times 100\{5}
x = 6 \times 100 = 600
So, the Marked Price of the article is ₹ 600.3

Calculate the amount paid (Selling Price):The amount paid is the marked price minus the discount.
{Amount Paid} = {Marked Price} - {Discount Amount} 
{Amount Paid} = 600 - 30 = 570

Final Result: Mohan paid ₹ 570 for the article.

General Science 12 questions

2022 Prelims General Science
The period of transition from childhood and adulthood is known as
A Maturity
B Courtship
C Adulthood
D Adolescence
Correct Answer: Option D
Adolescence is the developmental stage that begins with the onset of puberty and ends when an individual reaches legal and social adulthood. It is characterized by significant physical, psychological, and social changes.

Key Characteristics of Adolescence
Physical Changes: Rapid growth spurts and the development of secondary sexual characteristics (puberty).

Cognitive Development: The shift toward abstract thinking, better reasoning skills, and the formation of a personal identity.

Emotional Shifts: Increased focus on peer relationships and a push for independence from parents.
Analyzing the Other Options:
A) Maturity: This is a state of being fully developed or reaching a stage of peak functionality, rather than a specific transitional time period.

B) Courtship: This refers to the period in a relationship where two people get to know each other with the intent of marriage or a long-term commitment.

C) Adulthood: This is the destination of the transition, not the transition itself. It begins when adolescence ends (typically age 18 or 21 depending on the culture).
2022 Prelims General Science
Which of the following instruments is used to measure the blood pressure of the Human body?
A Endoscope
B Thermometer
C Stethoscope
D Sphygmomanometer
Correct Answer: Option D
A sphygmomanometer (pronounced sfig-mo-ma-nom-eter) is the standard medical device used to measure blood pressure. It typically consists of an inflatable rubber cuff that is wrapped around the arm, a measuring unit (mercury manometer or digital display), and a bulb to inflate the cuff.
How it Works When the cuff is inflated, it temporarily stops the blood flow in the artery. As the air is slowly released, a healthcare professional uses a stethoscope to listen to the sounds of blood flow (called Korotkoff sounds).Systolic Pressure: The pressure when the heart beats (the first sound heard).Diastolic Pressure: The pressure when the heart rests between beats (when the sound disappears).
Normal Reading: Typically around 120/80 mmHg.
2022 Prelims General Science
CNG is a fuel gas which is mainly composed of methane that is used for vehicles in general. Here CNG stands for:
A Complex Nitrous Gas
B Certified National Gas
C Compressed Natural Gas
D Coal and Nucleotide Gas
Correct Answer: Option C
Composition and Benefits Main Component: It consists primarily of Methane ($CH_{4}$), usually ranging from 80% to 95%.Storage: It is stored in thick-walled cylindrical tanks at a pressure of about 200–250 kg/cm².Environmental Impact: It is considered a "clean fuel" because it produces fewer harmful emissions (like carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxides) compared to traditional fossil fuels. 
Safety: Since it is lighter than air, it disperses quickly in the event of a leak, reducing the risk of fire compared to liquid fuels like LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas).
2022 Prelims General Science
The indigenous catfishes in Indian rivers are facing a threat of extinction because of which reason among the following options?
A Coextinction
B Alien species invasion
C Habitat loss
D Over exploitation
Correct Answer: Option B
Why is this happening?

While habitat loss and over-exploitation are general threats to all wildlife, the specific "extinction threat" cited in environmental science for Indian catfish is the invasive species problem:

Aggressive Competition: The African catfish grows much faster and larger than native species, outcompeting them for food and space.

Predation: It is a highly predatory fish that eats the eggs and fry (young) of indigenous fish.

Disease: Alien species often carry pathogens or parasites to which local fish have no natural immunity.

Illegal Farming: Despite a ban by the Indian government, it is often farmed illegally because of its high yield, eventually escaping into natural river systems during floods.
2022 Prelims General Science
What is the full form of MSG, a chief flavor enhancer used in the food industry?
A Monosodium glycinate
B Monosodium glutamate
C Monosodium glutamine
D Monosulphur glycerol
Correct Answer: Option B
MSG is a sodium salt of glutamic acid, one of the most abundant naturally occurring non-essential amino acids. It is used in the food industry to provide a savory, "meaty" taste known as umami, which is considered the fifth basic taste alongside sweet, sour, salty, and bitter.Key Facts about MSGDiscovery: It was first identified in 1908 by Japanese scientist Kikunae Ikeda, who extracted it from seaweed (kombu).Chemical Formula: The chemical formula for monosodium glutamate is C_{5}H_{8}NO_{4}Na
Mechanism: It works by stimulating specific glutamate receptors on the tongue, enhancing the savory profile of soups, snacks, and processed meats.

Safety: While some people report sensitivity (often called "Chinese Restaurant Syndrome"), major health organizations like the FDA and EFSA classify MSG as Generally Recognized as Safe (GRAS).
2022 Prelims General Science
EVMs are used in Indian General and State Elections by voters to cast their vote. EVM is an acronym for
A Electrical Voting Mechanism
B Election Voting Machine
C Elected Voting Member
D Electronic Voting Machine
Correct Answer: Option D
How an EVM Works
An EVM consists of two main units joined by a five-meter cable. This design ensures that the actual "brain" of the machine is controlled by an election official, while the voter remains private.

Control Unit: This stays with the Presiding Officer. They press a button to "enable" the machine for the next voter.

Balloting Unit: This is inside the voting compartment. It has buttons next to the names and symbols of the candidates.

The Addition of VVPAT
In recent years, you might have noticed a third box attached to the EVM. This is the VVPAT (Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail). When you cast your vote, it prints a small slip of paper that you can see through a glass window for 7 seconds. This allows you to verify that your vote went exactly to the candidate you selected.
Quick Facts
Battery Powered: EVMs don't need a plug-in power source; they run on an internal battery, so they can be used in remote villages without electricity.

No Internet: To prevent hacking, EVMs are "standalone" machines. They are never connected to the internet, Wi-Fi, or any Bluetooth network.
2022 Prelims General Science
If you go to Northern part of Karnataka and Maharashtra, you will see lots of cotton plants. What is the reason for that?
A Cotton grows well in the black soil of the Deccan Plateau
B The Deccan plateau receives a lot of rainfall and requires a lot of labour
C Maharashtra and Karnataka experience hot climate throughout the year, so most of the people need cotton clothes
D Deccan plateau has more number of cotton factories
Correct Answer: Option A
Regur Soil (Black Gold): The northern parts of Karnataka and Maharashtra are covered in Black Soil, also known as Regur soil. This soil is derived from the weathering of volcanic basalt rock from the Deccan Traps.

Moisture Retention: One of the most important features of black soil is its ability to hold onto water for a long time. Cotton is a thirsty plant during its growth phase but needs dry conditions for harvesting; this soil provides that perfect balance.

High Mineral Content: It is naturally rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, and lime, which are the specific nutrients cotton needs to thrive.
2022 Prelims General Science
Ozone is a gas made up of
A four oxygen atoms
B two oxygen atoms
C three oxygen atoms
D five oxygen atoms
Correct Answer: Option C
While the oxygen we breathe consists of two atoms (known as dioxygen), ozone is a highly reactive gas where those atoms form a trio. The Chemistry of Ozone The chemical formula for ozone is O_3. It is created when ultraviolet (UV) light or electrical discharges (like lightning) break apart ordinary oxygen molecules (O_2), allowing the free oxygen atoms to bond with other O_2 molecules.

Why It Matters
The Good: In the stratosphere (the upper atmosphere), ozone acts as a "sunscreen" for Earth, absorbing harmful UV radiation.

The Bad: At ground level, ozone is a major component of smog. While it's great high up, breathing it in can be harmful to your lungs.
2022 Prelims General Science
Which one of the following substances is usually used in cold countries to melt ice accumulated on the roads during winter?
A Salt
B Urea
C Boric Acid
D Hydrogen Peroxide
Correct Answer: Option A
How Salt Melts IceThe process is based on a scientific principle called freezing-point depression:Lowering the Freezing Point: Pure water freezes at 0°C (32°F). When salt is added, it dissolves into the thin film of liquid water on the surface of the ice, creating a brine (saltwater) solution.The Brine Effect: This brine has a much lower freezing point than pure water. Depending on the concentration, it can prevent water from refreezing at temperatures as low as -9°C (15°F).Disrupting the Structure: The salt ions ($Na^+$ and $Cl^-$) get in the way of water molecules trying to bind together into a solid ice crystal structure.Why the other options aren't typically used for roads:Urea: While it is sometimes used as a "pet-friendly" or "airport-safe" de-icer because it is less corrosive than salt, it is much more expensive and can cause nutrient runoff (leading to algae blooms) in local waterways.Boric Acid: This is primarily used as an insecticide or antiseptic; it does not have the necessary properties for large-scale de-icing.Hydrogen Peroxide: This is an oxidizing agent and bleach; it would be ineffective and potentially hazardous if poured onto roads in bulk.Pro Tip: Once the temperature drops below -10°C (14°F), standard rock salt loses its effectiveness. In these extreme conditions, road crews often switch to Calcium Chloride or Magnesium Chloride, which can melt ice at much lower temperatures.
2022 Prelims General Science
Which of the following when added to pure water usually increases its surface tension?
A Detergent
B Sodium chloride
C Kerosene oil
D Phenyl
Correct Answer: Option B
Sodium chloride (NaCl): When a highly soluble inorganic salt like sodium chloride is added to pure water, it breaks apart into ions (Na⁺ and Cl⁻). The interactions between these ions and the water molecules (ion-dipole interactions) are actually stronger than the hydrogen bonds between the water molecules themselves. This pulls the molecules closer together, which slightly increases the surface tension.

Detergents, Kerosene oil, and Phenyl: These substances are either surfactants (surface-active agents) or strongly hydrophobic. They tend to gather at the surface of the water and disrupt the cohesive hydrogen bonds between the water molecules, which decreases the surface tension. This is exactly why detergents are used for cleaning—they lower water's surface tension so it can more easily penetrate fabrics and wash away dirt.
2022 Prelims General Science
Which of the following options is an example of chemical change?
A Crystallization of salt
B Evaporation
C Burning of coal
D Melting of ice
Correct Answer: Option C
Why Burning Coal is a Chemical Change
When coal burns, it isn't just changing shape or state; it is undergoing a chemical reaction. The carbon in the coal reacts with oxygen in the air to form entirely new substances, such as carbon dioxide ($CO_2$), water vapor, and ash.
A chemical change is defined by:Irreversibility: You cannot easily turn ash and smoke back into a piece of coal.New Substances: The molecular structure of the starting material is permanently altered.Energy Release: Large amounts of heat and light are typically produced.
2022 Prelims General Science
Which of the following is NOT a cause for the loss of biodiversity in general?
A Co-extinction
B Alien species invasions-
C Over exploitation
D Reforestation
Correct Answer: Option D
The correct answer is D) Reforestation.

While the other options are primary drivers of species loss, reforestation (the process of planting trees in an area where there was once a forest) is generally a conservation measure aimed at restoring ecosystems, not destroying them.

The "Evil Quartet" of Biodiversity Loss
In ecology, the four major causes of biodiversity loss are often referred to as the "Evil Quartet." Here is how your options fit into that framework:

Alien Species Invasions (Option B): When non-native species are introduced to a new habitat, they often lack natural predators. They can outcompete, prey upon, or bring diseases to native species, leading to extinction.

Over-exploitation (Option C): This occurs when humans harvest natural resources (like fish, trees, or wild animals) faster than they can regenerate.

Co-extinction (Option A): When a species goes extinct, the specific plants or animals that depend on it (like a specialized pollinator or a parasite) also go extinct.

Habitat Loss and Fragmentation: (Not listed in your options, but the most significant cause). This is the thinning, fragmenting, or outright destruction of natural ecosystems.

Environment & Ecology 6 questions

2022 Prelims Environment & Ecology
What type of food chain exhibits the following way of transfer of energy in an ecology?
Dead organism → Fungi → Bacteria
A Producer food chain
B Parasitic food chain
C Saprophytic food chain
D Predator food chain
Correct Answer: Option C
A Saprophytic food chain (also known as a Detritus food chain) starts from dead organic matter (decaying plants or animal bodies) and passes through microorganisms like fungi and bacteria.

Understanding the Mechanism
In this food chain, energy is derived from "detritus" (dead waste). The organisms involved are called Saprophytes or Decomposers.

Dead Organism: Acts as the primary source of carbon and energy.

Fungi & Bacteria: These organisms secrete digestive enzymes onto the dead matter to break down complex organic compounds into simpler inorganic substances, which they then absorb.
2022 Prelims Environment & Ecology
The objective of Social Development Goals is to link together different dimensions known as Triple Bottom Line combining 3Ps. Which of the following are three Ps in Triple Bottom Line of SDGs?
A Place, Person, Position
B Progress, Possibilities, Profit
C Place, Pricing, Product
D Planet, Profit, People
Correct Answer: Option D
The Triple Bottom Line (TBL) is a sustainability framework that suggests organizations and governments should measure their success not just by traditional financial profit, but also by their impact on the environment and society.

The Three Ps Explained
People (Social Bottom Line): Focuses on social equity, fair labor practices, human rights, and community well-being. In the context of SDGs, this relates to goals like "No Poverty" and "Gender Equality."

Planet (Environmental Bottom Line): Focuses on ecological footprint, reducing waste, and protecting natural resources. This aligns with SDGs like "Climate Action" and "Life Below Water."

Profit (Economic Bottom Line): Focuses on the economic value created by the organization/nation, ensuring it remains financially viable while supporting the other two pillars.
2022 Prelims Environment & Ecology
Which of the following options is NOT an example of Abiotic component of an ecosystem?
A Air
B Soil
C Sunlight
D Fungi
Correct Answer: Option D
Understanding Ecosystem Components
An ecosystem is composed of two main types of factors that interact with one another: Biotic and Abiotic.

1. Biotic Components (Living)
These are the living organisms within an ecosystem. They are classified based on how they obtain energy:

2. Abiotic Components (Non-living)
These are the physical and chemical elements in the environment that support the living organisms. They include:

Air (A): Provides oxygen for respiration and carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.

Soil (B): Provides minerals, nutrients, and a physical base for plants.

Sunlight (C): The primary source of energy for almost all life on Earth.

Water, Temperature, and Humidity.

Why Fungi is the odd one out:
While fungi might look like plants or appear "still" like soil, they are living biological organisms. They belong to their own kingdom (Kingdom Fungi) and play a vital role as decomposers, recycling nutrients back into the abiotic environment (the soil).
Producers: Plants and algae (autotrophs).

Consumers: Animals (heterotrophs).

Decomposers: Fungi and bacteria (saprotrophs). They break down dead organic matter.
2022 Prelims Environment & Ecology
The term Biomagnification refers to
A Increase in the concentration of non-degradable pollutant as they pass through food chain
B group of individuals of the same species within a community
C number of births during a given time period
D interspecific interaction between members in which one population adversely affects the other
Correct Answer: Option A
Understanding Biomagnification
Biomagnification (also known as bioamplification) occurs when certain toxic substances—such as mercury, DDT, or microplastics—enter an ecosystem. Because these substances are "non-degradable" (the body cannot break them down or excrete them easily), they accumulate in the tissues of organisms.

Lower Trophic Levels: Small organisms (like plankton) absorb a tiny amount of the toxin.

Middle Trophic Levels: Small fish eat a large volume of plankton, collecting all the toxins from every plankton they consume.

Higher Trophic Levels: Top predators (like eagles, sharks, or humans) eat many fish. Consequently, the concentration of the toxin reaches its highest level at the top of the food chain.

Analysis of Other Options
B) Group of individuals of the same species: This is the definition of a Population.

C) Number of births during a given time period: This is the definition of Natality.

D) Interspecific interaction where one adversely affects the other: This describes interactions like Parasitism or Predation.

A Famous Example: DDT
In the mid-20th century, the pesticide DDT was widely used. While the concentration in water was very low, it magnified millions of times by the time it reached birds of prey. This caused their eggshells to become thin and break easily, leading to a massive decline in bald eagle populations.
2022 Prelims Environment & Ecology
Which of the following document was submitted by Government of India before COP21 in Paris?
A Intended Nationally Determined Contribution
B Climate Change and Determined Nation
C Collective Contribution and Rejuvenate Nature
D Nation’s Intention and purpose for Revitalization
Correct Answer: Option A
What are INDCs?
Ahead of the COP21 (21st Conference of Parties) held in Paris in 2015, countries were asked to publicly outline what post-2020 climate actions they intended to take under a new international agreement. These were known as Intended Nationally Determined Contributions.
Once a country ratifies the Paris Agreement, the "Intended" is dropped, and the document becomes their Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC).India’s Commitments in the INDC (2015)India submitted its INDC on October 2, 2015 (Gandhi Jayanti). The three primary targets were:Emission Intensity: To reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33% to 35% by 2030 from 2005 levels.Non-Fossil Fuel Power: To achieve about 40% cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030.Carbon Sink: To create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of $CO_2$ equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030. 
Comparison with other options Options B, C, and D: These are distractors and do not represent any official international climate terminology or documents.
Note: At COP26 in Glasgow (2021) and subsequent updates, India increased these ambitions (known as Panchamrit), including a target to achieve Net Zero emissions by the year 2070.
2022 Prelims Environment & Ecology
A forest of trees and undergrowth plants inhabited by animals and rooted in soil containing bacteria and fungi is an example of
A Hybrids
B Biomass
C Endangered species
D Biological community
Correct Answer: Option D
In ecology, a biological community (also known as a biotic community) consists of all the living populations of different species that live and interact together in the same area at the same time.

Why it fits the description:
Your example includes a diverse range of living organisms interacting in one habitat:

Producers: Trees and undergrowth plants.

Consumers: Animals.

Decomposers: Bacteria and fungi in the soil.

Geography 9 questions

2022 Prelims Geography
Which of the following types of rainfall occurs when the saturated air mass encounters a mountain and the air is forced to rise?
A Frontal rainfall
B Convectional rainfall
C Cyclonic rainfall
D Orographic rainfall
Correct Answer: Option D
Orographic rainfall (also known as Relief rainfall) occurs when moist air is forced to rise over a physical barrier, such as a mountain range. As the air rises, it cools, condenses, and forms clouds, leading to precipitation.

How Orographic Rainfall Works
The Windward Side: This is the side of the mountain facing the wind. The air is forced upward (orographic lift), cools at the adiabatic lapse rate, and releases moisture as rain or snow.

The Leeward Side: As the air crosses the peak and descends the other side, it warms up and loses its moisture-carrying capacity. This creates a Rain Shadow Area, which is typically very dry or desert-like.
Understanding the Other Types of Rainfall
A) Frontal Rainfall: Occurs when a warm air mass meets a cold air mass. The warmer, lighter air is forced to rise over the colder, denser air.

B) Convectional Rainfall: Common in tropical regions, this happens when the sun heats the ground intensely, causing the air above it to warm, expand, and rise rapidly, forming towering clouds.

C) Cyclonic Rainfall: Also known as Cyclonic precipitation, this is associated with low-pressure systems where air converges and is forced upward in the center of the cyclone.
2022 Prelims Geography
River Godavari originates from which of the following states in India?
A Maharashtra
B Tamil Nadu
C Andhra Pradesh
D Telangana
Correct Answer: Option A
Key Facts About the Godavari River
Origin: It rises at an elevation of about 1,067 meters in Trimbakeshwar, located in the Nashik district of Maharashtra.

Path: From Maharashtra, it flows eastwards through Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, eventually emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

Basin: Its massive drainage basin also extends into parts of Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh.

Significance: It is a vital source of irrigation and hydroelectric power for South-Central India.
2022 Prelims Geography
Choose the CORRECT option for the given statements.

(i) Bara-lacha Pass is a high mountain pass in the Western Ghats mountain range.
(ii) Bara-lacha Pass connects Lahaul district in Himachal Pradesh to Leh district in Ladakh.
A Statement (i) is True and (ii) is False
B Statement (i) is False and (ii) is True
C Both the statements (i) and (ii) are True
D Both the statements (i) and (ii) are False
Correct Answer: Option B
Statement (i) is False:
Bara-lacha Pass (also known as Bara-lacha La) is located in the Zanskar Range of the Himalayas. It is not in the Western Ghats, which are located along the western coast of Peninsular India (passing through states like Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, and Kerala).

Statement (ii) is True:
The pass serves as a natural divide between the Chenab and Yunam rivers. It is a crucial high-altitude mountain pass (elevation approximately 4,890 meters) that connects the Lahaul district in Himachal Pradesh to the Leh district in Ladakh. It is a major point on the Leh-Manali Highway.

Key Facts about Bara-lacha La:
Meaning: The name means "pass with crossroads on summit," where paths from Ladakh, Spiti, and Lahaul meet.

River Source: It is the source of the Bhaga River (a tributary of the Chenab River), which originates from the Surya Taal lake located near the pass.

Climate: Due to its high altitude, it remains snow-bound for a significant part of the year, often closing the road during winter.
2022 Prelims Geography
Who among the following social reformers preached the doctrine of 'One Caste, One Religion and One God?
A The Sivalik range
B Nilgiris range
C The Great Himalayas
D Aravalli Range
Correct Answer: Option C
Mount Everest is located in the Himadri (or Great Himalayas) range, which is the highest and most continuous mountain range in the world.Understanding the RangesTo understand why "The Great Himalayas" is the correct choice, it helps to look at how the Himalayan system is layered from North to South:The Great Himalayas (Himadri): The innermost and loftiest range. It contains almost all the prominent peaks, including Mount Everest ($8,848.86$ meters), Kanchenjunga, and Lhotse.The Lesser Himalayas (Himachal): Located south of the Himadri, this range is known for its famous hill stations like Shimla and Mussoorie.The Shiwalik Range: The outermost range of the Himalayas, consisting of unconsolidated sediments.Why the other options are incorrect:The Sivalik Range: These are the "foothills" of the Himalayas. Their average altitude is much lower ($900$ to $1,100$ meters).Nilgiris Range: These are located in Southern India (part of the Western Ghats), thousands of miles away from the Himalayas.Aravalli Range: One of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, running through Rajasthan and Haryana; it is not part of the Himalayan system.
2022 Prelims Geography
Imagine your parents are planning to build a house. They ask you about the different landforms. In which landform, you would suggest them to build a house and why?
A Mountain, because it is thinly populated and cold climate
B Plateau, because it is rich in minerals and at high altitudes
C Desert, because it is very hot during the day and cold during the night
D Plain, because of its pleasant climate throughout the year.
Correct Answer: Option D
Why choose a Plain?
While every landform has its own beauty, Plains are generally the most human-friendly environments for building a permanent residence. Here is why:

Ease of Construction: Since the land is flat, it is much cheaper and easier to lay foundations, build roads, and set up utilities like water and electricity compared to rocky mountains or uneven plateaus.

Agriculture: Plains usually have fertile soil (often deposited by rivers), making it easy to grow food or maintain a garden.

Transport and Connectivity: It is much easier to build railway lines and highways on flat land, ensuring you aren't isolated.

Climate: As the option suggests, plains often have a more moderate and pleasant climate compared to the extreme cold of high mountains or the intense heat of deserts.
2022 Prelims Geography
Where is the Karakoram range located?
A Arunachal Pradesh
B Northern Parts of Jammu & Kashmir.
C Uttar Pradesh
D North eastern part of Sikkim
Correct Answer: Option B
The Karakoram is a major mountain range spanning the borders of India, Pakistan, and China. While historically and in many textbooks it is referred to as being in the northern parts of the former state of Jammu & Kashmir, specifically within India today, it is located in the Union Territory of Ladakh. It is home to some of the world's highest peaks, including K2
2022 Prelims Geography
Kalinga war changed the life of king Ashoka. In which modern state of India is Kalinga located?
A Odisha
B Rajasthan
C Punjab
D Haryana
Correct Answer: Option A
Kalinga was a historical region of India that comprises modern-day Odisha and parts of northern Andhra Pradesh.
2022 Prelims Geography
Which of the following states is bisected by the Tropic of Cancer?
A West Bengal
B Odisha
C Uttar Pradesh
D Goa
Correct Answer: Option A
The Tropic of Cancer is an imaginary line of latitude located at approximately $23.5^\circ \text{N}$ of the Equator. In India, it passes through 8 states, moving from West to East.

The 8 States Bisected by the Tropic of Cancer:
Gujarat
Rajasthan
Madhya Pradesh
Chhattisgarh
Jharkhand
West Bengal
Tripura
Mizoram

Why the other options are incorrect :

Odisha (B): It lies to the south of the Tropic of Cancer.

Uttar Pradesh (C): It lies to the north of the Tropic of Cancer.

Goa (D): It is located much further south on the western coast .

Pro-Tip for Exams:
A common mnemonic to remember these 8 states is: "MGR's Brother Just Took West Bengal Cake"(Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Tripura, West Bengal, Mizoram)
2022 Prelims Geography
The Himadri was formed by what type of rocks?
A Igneous Rocks
B Sedimentary Rocks
C Metamorphic Rocks
D Igneous Rocks and Sedimentary Rocks
Correct Answer: Option C
Why the Himadri is Metamorphic
The Himadri, also known as the Great Himalayas or the Inner Himalayas, is the northernmost and highest range of the Himalayan mountains.

Formation: The Himalayas were formed by the collision of the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate. The extreme pressure and heat generated during this tectonic collision transformed the original sedimentary and igneous rocks into metamorphic rocks.

Core Composition: The core of the Great Himalayas is composed mainly of granite (an igneous rock), but the range itself is predominantly characterized by highly metamorphosed rocks like schist and gneiss.

Current Affairs 4 questions

2022 Prelims Current Affairs
The Ministry of Labour & Employment launched India’s first centralised database of unorganised workers in 2021 which will be helpful in delivering various social security schemes being implemented by the Central and State Governments. Identify the name of this portal.
A ePARISHRAM
B eUDYAM
C eSHRAM
D ePRAYAS
Correct Answer: Option C
Key Features of e-SHRAM
UAN Card: Upon registration, workers receive an eSHRAM card with a unique 12-digit Universal Account Number (UAN), which is valid across the entire country.

Social Security: It acts as a single point for the government to provide benefits like the Pradhan Mantri Shrum Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) and accidental insurance (PMSBY).

Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT): It helps the government track and reach out to workers during national crises (like a pandemic) to provide direct financial aid.


2022 Prelims Current Affairs
The new SARS-CoV-2 variant, B.1.1.529 first reported in South Africa classified as a “Variant of Concern” by the World Health Organization is named as:
A Delta plus
B Gamma
C Omicron
D Alpha
Correct Answer: Option C
Key Details of the Omicron Variant
Discovery: It was first reported to the WHO from South Africa on November 24, 2021, though the first known confirmed specimens were collected in Botswana and South Africa in early November.

Mutations: Omicron is notable for its unusually high number of mutations—approximately 50 in total, with more than 30 mutations in the spike protein alone. These mutations are what led to concerns about increased transmissibility and immune evasion.

Naming Convention: The WHO uses the Greek alphabet to name variants to avoid stigmatizing the countries where they are first detected. Interestingly, the WHO skipped the letters Nu (to avoid confusion with the word "new") and Xi (to avoid confusion with a common surname) before settling on Omicron.
2022 Prelims Current Affairs
In August 2021, India's first 'Smog Tower', an experimental set up to purify air in a 1-km radius around the structure, at a rate of around 1,000 cubic metres of air per second was installed in which of the following cities?
A Mumbai
B Pune
C Chennai
D Delhi
Correct Answer: Option D
The tower was inaugurated by Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal at Baba Kharak Singh Marg in Connaught Place. A second, similar tower was also installed shortly after in the Anand Vihar area of the city.

How the Smog Tower Works
The structure is essentially a massive air purifier designed to reduce the concentration of Particulate Matter (PM2.5 and PM10) in the immediate vicinity.

Height: Approximately 24 meters.

Mechanism: It uses a "downdraft" method where fans at the top pull in polluted air, which is then filtered and released through vents at the base.

Capacity: It is designed to clean 1,000 cubic meters of air per second, aiming to impact a radius of about 1 km.

Context of the Project
The installation was part of a pilot project following a Supreme Court order to combat Delhi's notorious winter air pollution. It was a collaborative effort involving Tata Projects Limited, IIT Bombay, and IIT Delhi.
2022 Prelims Current Affairs
In October 2021, who became the first Indian woman to reach the finals and win the Silver medal at the 2021 World Wrestling Championships in the 57kg category?
A Sakshi Malik
B Vinesh Phogat
C Anshu Malik
D Babita Kumari
Correct Answer: Option C
In October 2021, at the age of 19, Anshu Malik made history by becoming the first Indian woman wrestler to reach the finals and win a Silver medal at the World Wrestling Championships held in Oslo, Norway.

Key Highlights:
Category: She competed in the women's 57kg freestyle category.

Final Match: She faced the three-time world champion and Olympic gold medalist Helen Maroulis (USA) in the final.

Historic Feat: Before her, only five Indian women (Alka Tomar, Geeta Phogat, Babita Phogat, Pooja Dhanda, and Vinesh Phogat) had won medals at the World Championships, but all of them were Bronze.

Other 2021 Medalists: Sarita Mor also won a Bronze medal at the same championships in the 59kg category.

History 6 questions

2022 Prelims History
On invitation of which of the following freedom fighters did Mahatma Gandhi visit Odisha for the first time in 1921, at Cuttack?
A Chandra Sekhar Behera
B Laxmi Narayan Mishra
C Gopabandhu Das
D Biswaksen Mishra
Correct Answer: Option C
Mahatma Gandhi's first visit to Odisha on March 23, 1921, was a landmark event in the state's involvement in the Non-Cooperation Movement. He arrived at Cuttack following the earnest invitation of Utkalamani Gopabandhu Das, who was the foremost leader of the Congress movement in Odisha at the time.
Historical Context
The Meeting: Gandhi addressed a massive gathering at the Qadam-e-Rasool ground in Cuttack, where he emphasized the importance of Satyagraha and the use of Swadeshi goods (Khadi).

The Impact: This visit ignited the nationalistic spirit across the region, leading to widespread participation of Odias in the freedom struggle.

Gopabandhu Das: Often referred to as the "Jewel of Utkal," he founded the Satyabadi Bana Vidyalaya and was instrumental in merging the local interests of Odisha with the broader National Congress agenda.
2022 Prelims History
Which of the following statements is FALSE in relation to the Non-Cooperation Movement?
A People were asked to boycott foreign goods and use only Indian-made goods
B Charkhas were popularized on a large scale and khadi was promoted
C Abolition of Salt tax and reduction in land revenue rate
D Promotion of harmony between the Hindus and the Muslims
Correct Answer: Option C
While the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–1922) was a massive milestone in the Indian independence struggle, the specific demand for the abolition of the salt tax is famously associated with the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930) and the Dandi March, not the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Why the other statements are true:
A) Boycott of foreign goods: This was a core pillar of the movement. People were encouraged to boycott British textiles, honors, and educational institutions to undermine the economic and administrative foundation of the Raj.
+1

B) Promotion of Khadi: Mahatma Gandhi saw the Charkha (spinning wheel) as a symbol of self-reliance. Promoting Khadi was a way to provide employment to the rural masses and reduce dependence on imported British cloth.
+1

D) Hindu-Muslim Unity: One of the defining features of this era was the alliance between the Indian National Congress and the Khilafat Movement. Gandhi saw this as a "chance of a hundred years" to unite the two largest communities against British rule.
2022 Prelims History
Identify the national leader who tried to arouse political consciousness in the general population through the newspapers like 'Kesari' and 'Maratha' during India's freedom struggle.
A Gopal Krishna Gokhale
B Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C Aurobindo Ghosh
D Subash Chandra Bose
Correct Answer: Option B
Bal Gangadhar Tilak, often hailed as the "Father of Indian Unrest," was a central figure in the Indian independence movement. He used journalism as a powerful tool to reach the masses and critique British rule.

The Newspapers
Tilak founded and edited two iconic newspapers in 1881:

Kesari: Written in Marathi, this paper was designed to reach the common people and educate them on their rights.

Mahratta (or Maratha): Written in English, this paper was aimed at the educated elite and the British administration.

Why the other leaders are significant:
While all these leaders were titans of the freedom struggle, their methods or publications differed:

Gopal Krishna Gokhale: A moderate leader who preferred constitutional methods and founded the Servants of India Society.

Aurobindo Ghosh: Associated with the newspaper Bande Mataram, he was a key figure in the extremist wing before turning toward spirituality.

Subash Chandra Bose: Famous for leading the Indian National Army (INA) and his slogan "Give me blood, and I shall give you freedom."
2022 Prelims History
Gandhara school of art was one of the major schools of art in the history of ancient India. It flourished and developed during the rule of which of the following dynasties in India?
A Kushana dynasty
B Satavahana dynasty
C Maurya dynasty
D Gupta dynasty
Correct Answer: Option C
The Gandhara school of art flourished and developed primarily during the rule of the Kushana dynasty (also spelled Kushan). This Greco-Buddhist style, blending Indian Buddhist themes with Hellenistic (Greco-Roman) influences, reached its peak under Kushan emperors, especially Kanishka in the 1st–2nd centuries CE, with major production continuing through the 3rd–5th centuries CE.

A) Kushana dynasty — Correct. Reliable historical sources (including Britannica, Wikipedia on Greco-Buddhist art, and standard Indian history references) consistently note that it flourished largely under the Kushans, who patronized Buddhist art in the Gandhara region (northwestern Pakistan and eastern Afghanistan today).
B) Satavahana dynasty — Incorrect; they ruled in central/southern India and were associated with other art forms, not Gandhara.
C) Maurya dynasty — Incorrect; earlier period (3rd century BCE under Ashoka), focused on edicts and early Buddhist propagation, but not the Gandhara style's development.
D) Gupta dynasty — Incorrect; later "Golden Age" (4th–6th centuries CE), more linked to Mathura and classical Indian styles, though some Gandhara influence lingered.
2022 Prelims History
Who among the following leaders was associated with the papers 'Commonweal" and "New India' which were used to popularise the idea of achieving self-government for India?
A Mrs. Annie Besant
B Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C Gopalkrishna Gokhale
D Bipin Chandra Pal
Correct Answer: Option A
Annie Besant and the Media
Annie Besant, an Irish woman and a prominent leader of the Theosophical Society, used these two publications to spread the message of the Home Rule Movement in India:

Commonweal: A weekly newspaper she started in January 1914 to deal with issues of national reform and to foster a spirit of unity.

New India: A daily newspaper (formerly Madras Standard) which she bought and renamed in June 1914. It became her primary vehicle for demanding Home Rule (self-government within the British Empire).
2022 Prelims History
The Wing Commander (now Group Captain) Abhinandan Varthaman was accorded with which of the following gallantry awards (2021), for shooting down a Pakistani F-16 fighter aircraft during aerial combat in February, 2019?
A Kirti Chakra
B Ashoka Chakra
C Vir Chakra
D Param Vir Chakra
Correct Answer: Option C
Group Captain (then Wing Commander) Abhinandan Varthaman was conferred the Vir Chakra by President Ram Nath Kovind on November 22, 2021. This honor recognized his "conspicuous courage" and "devotion to duty" during the aerial skirmish with Pakistan on February 27, 2019.
Context of the Award
The award stems from the high-altitude dogfight that took place a day after the Balakot airstrike.

The Feat: Flying a MiG-21 Bison, Abhinandan shot down a much more advanced Pakistani F-16 aircraft before his own plane was hit.

The Captivity: After ejecting, he landed in Pakistan-Occupied Kashmir (PoK), where he was taken into custody for approximately 60 hours before being released as a "gesture of peace."

Significance: The Vir Chakra is India's third-highest wartime gallantry award, following the Param Vir Chakra and Maha Vir Chakra.

J&K 4 questions

2022 Prelims J&K
A list of all the Central laws made applicable to the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is provided under which Schedule of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019?
A Second Schedule
B Third Schedule
C Fourth Schedule
D Fifth Schedule
Correct Answer: Option D
Section 95(1) of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, explicitly states that all Central laws in Table-1 of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir (and Ladakh) from the appointed day. The Fifth Schedule contains Table-1 listing the Central laws made applicable to these Union Territories (106 such laws were extended, as noted in various official summaries and the Act itself).

The First Schedule relates to amendments for territorial descriptions in the Constitution.
The Second Schedule deals with amendments to parliamentary constituencies/delimitations.
The Third Schedule covers assembly constituencies.
The Fourth Schedule provides forms of oaths and affirmations.

Thus, the list of Central laws applicable is specifically under the Fifth Schedule. This is confirmed in the Act's text, PRS India summaries, and reliable sources like Testbook and official gazette references.1.9sFast
2022 Prelims J&K
As per the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, how many women representatives can be nominated to the Legislative Assembly of the Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir?
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 6
Correct Answer: Option A
Legal Provision
According to Section 15 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir has the power to nominate women to the Legislative Assembly:

Condition for Nomination: The Lieutenant Governor may nominate women if, in his/her opinion, women are not adequately represented in the Legislative Assembly.

Number of Members: The Act specifically provides for the nomination of two members to the Assembly.

Contextual Update (2023 Amendment)
While the 2019 Act established the nomination of two women, the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2023, expanded the Lieutenant Governor's nomination powers to include:

Two members from the Kashmiri Migrant community (one of whom must be a woman).

One member from the Displaced Persons from Pakistan-occupied Jammu and Kashmir (PoJK).

These nominations are in addition to the two women representatives mentioned in the original 2019 Act.

2022 Prelims J&K
As per the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of Union territory of Jammu and Kashmir shall be:
A 90
B 97
C 115
D 107
Correct Answer: Option D
Breakdown of the Seats
It is important to understand how these 107 seats were distributed under the original 2019 Act:

Active Seats: 83 seats were meant to be filled by direct election from territorial constituencies.

Vacant Seats (POK): 24 seats were kept vacant and are not counted for the quorum of the Assembly, as they are reserved for the areas of Jammu and Kashmir currently under the occupation of Pakistan.

Important Post-2019 Update
While the 2019 Act specified 107 seats, a Delimitation Commission was later appointed (headed by Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai). Based on their final report in 2022 and subsequent amendments:

The total number of seats was increased to 114.

Of these 114 seats, 90 are for the Union Territory (43 in Jammu and 47 in Kashmir).

The 24 seats for Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK) remain vacant.

Note: Since your question specifically asks "As per the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019," the figure 107 remains the technically correct answer for that specific legislative document.
2022 Prelims J&K
As of 2021, the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, consists of:
A 103 Sections and 5 Schedules
B 105 Sections and 7 Schedules.
C 107 Sections and 7 Schedules
D 107 Sections and 5 Schedules
Correct Answer: Option A
Key Structural Details
The Act was enacted to bifurcate the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir into two Union Territories (UTs): Jammu & Kashmir (with a Legislative Assembly) and Ladakh (without a Legislative Assembly). Its structure is as follows:

Total Parts: 14

Total Sections: 103 (The final section, Section 103, deals with the "Power to remove difficulties").

Total Schedules: 5

Why there is often confusion:
You may sometimes see the number 107 or 106 in discussions related to this Act, which leads to common misconceptions:

Legislative Assembly Seats (107): Section 14 of the Act originally stated that the number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of the UT of Jammu and Kashmir would be 107 (which was later increased to 114 following the Delimitation Commission's report).

Central Laws (106): The Act extended 106 central laws to the Union Territories (listed in the Fifth Schedule).

State Laws: It also repealed 153 state laws and retained/amended others.

The 2021 Context
The mention of "As of 2021" refers to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Act, 2021, which was passed to merge the J&K cadre of All India Services (IAS, IPS, and IFoS) with the AGMUT (Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, Mizoram, and Union Territory) cadre. While this amended specific sections (like Section 13 and 88), it did not change the total count of sections or schedules in the original 2019 Act.

Economy 5 questions

2022 Prelims Economy
Read the following statements and choose the CORRECT response.

(i) GDP is a specific measure of economic welfare that does NOT include aspects like leisure time, environmental quality, freedom, social justice or gender equality.
(ii) Per Capita Income includes and also indicates the level of income equality among people.

A (i) is True and (ii) is False
B (i) is False and (ii) is True
C (i) is True and (ii) is True
D (i) is False and (ii) is False
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of the StatementsStatement (i) is True:Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the total monetary value of all finished goods and services produced within a country's borders. It is a measure of economic activity, not necessarily well-being.GDP ignores "non-market" activities like leisure time or unpaid housework.It does not account for environmental degradation (pollution) caused by production.It says nothing about the distribution of freedom, social justice, or gender equality within a society.Statement (ii) is False:Per Capita Income (PCI) is calculated by dividing the total national income by the total population:$$\text{Per Capita Income} = \frac{\text{Total National Income}}{\text{Total Population}}$$The Flaw: Because it is an average, it completely ignores income inequality.For example, if one person earns $1,000,000 and nine people earn $0, the Per Capita Income is $100,000, even though 90% of the population has no income. It does not show how wealth is actually distributed.
2022 Prelims Economy
Different countries are classified at different levels of development. On which of the following criteria are countries classified as developed countries?
A High per capita income
B High level of unemployment
C High incidence rate of poverty
D Low standard of living
Correct Answer: Option A
Understanding the Criteria
Developed countries (also known as industrialized nations) are categorized based on their economic performance and the quality of life of their citizens.

High Per Capita Income: This is the average income earned per person in a given area. Developed nations typically have a high Gross National Income (GNI) per capita, as defined by organizations like the World Bank.

Industrialization: A shift from an agrarian (farming) economy to one based on manufacturing and services.

High Human Development Index (HDI): This includes factors beyond just money, such as high life expectancy, quality healthcare, and high literacy rates.

Why the other options are incorrect:
B) High level of unemployment: This is usually a sign of an underperforming or developing economy. Developed countries strive for low unemployment rates.

C) High incidence rate of poverty: Developed countries are characterized by lower poverty levels and stronger social safety nets.

D) Low standard of living: Developed nations are defined by a high standard of living, including access to clean water, electricity, advanced technology, and infrastructure.
2022 Prelims Economy
The Human Development Index (HDI) includes which one of the following components?
A Ratio of Medical Doctors per 100 people in a
B The Birth and Life Expectancy
C The Students graduating from Pre-Primary School
D The Infant mortality rate due to Pneumonia Diarrhea
Correct Answer: Option B
The Human Development Index (HDI), published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), measures average achievement in three key dimensions of human development:

A long and healthy life (assessed by life expectancy at birth)
Knowledge/being knowledgeable (measured by mean years of schooling for adults and expected years of schooling for children)
A decent standard of living (measured by gross national income per capita)

Among the given options, the one that is a component of the HDI is:
B) The Birth and Life Expectancy
This refers to life expectancy at birth, which is the direct indicator used for the health dimension in the HDI.
The other options are not components:

A) Ratio of medical doctors per 100 people — This is a healthcare access metric but not used in HDI calculations.
C) Students graduating from pre-primary school — Education in HDI focuses on years of schooling (mean and expected), not specifically pre-primary graduation rates.
D) Infant mortality rate due to pneumonia/diarrhea — Infant mortality is related to health but not the specific indicator in HDI (which uses overall life expectancy at birth instead).
2022 Prelims Economy
In September 2021, the government has set up an asset management company that will work in tandem with the National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL) to clean up bad loans. Identify the name of this bank.
A India Infrastructure Finance Company Limited
B National Debt Reconstruction Corporation Limited
C India Debt Resolution Company Limited
D State Debt Resolution Company Limited
Correct Answer: Option C
In the Indian government's "bad bank" framework announced in the 2021-22 Union Budget, two entities were established to address stressed/non-performing assets (bad loans):

NARCL (National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd.) acts as the Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC), acquiring and consolidating large stressed loans (typically over ₹500 crore) from banks.
IDRCL (India Debt Resolution Company Limited) serves as the Asset Management Company (AMC), working in tandem with NARCL to manage, resolve, and dispose of these acquired assets for value realization (e.g., through restructuring, sales to investors, or insolvency processes).

Multiple reliable sources confirm that IDRCL was incorporated on September 3, 2021, precisely matching the timing in the question as the entity set up to complement NARCL in cleaning up bad loans.

Options A, B, and D do not match this entity (e.g., India Infrastructure Finance Company Limited is unrelated, and the others are not the actual names used).
2022 Prelims Economy
Which of the following options includes machinery, work plants, equipment, new technology, factories, buildings and goods that are designed to increase the economy's productive potential?
A Fixed Capital
B Working Capital
C Capital Productivity
D Infrastructure
Correct Answer: Option A
Why it is Fixed Capital
Fixed Capital refers to assets that are used in the production process over a long period (usually more than one year). They are "fixed" because they are not consumed or exhausted in a single production cycle.

Longevity: Machinery, factories, and buildings stay in the business for years.

Purpose: These are specifically designed to increase the "productive potential" or the capacity of an economy to produce more goods and services in the future.

Governance 1 questions

2022 Prelims Governance
Which of the following is NOT amongst a three pronged strategy adopted by Govt. of India to ensure removal of disparities, elimination of exploitation and to provide protection to disadvantaged groups?
A Rural Development
B Social Empowerment
C Economic Empowerment
D Social Justice
Correct Answer: Option A
The Three-Pronged Strategy
The Government of India, primarily through its Five-Year Plans and the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, adopted a specific three-pronged strategy to uplift disadvantaged groups (such as Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes).

The three pillars are:

Social Justice (Option D): Focuses on creating a legal and statutory framework to protect disadvantaged groups. This includes laws like the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act.

Social Empowerment (Option B): Focuses on human resource development by providing access to education, health, and housing. This is often achieved through scholarships, residential schools, and skill development programs.

Economic Empowerment (Option C): Focuses on making these groups financially independent through subsidized loans, land distribution, and supporting entrepreneurship (e.g., the Venture Capital Fund for Scheduled Castes).

Why Rural Development is the Odd One Out
While Rural Development is a massive and vital government sector (handled by the Ministry of Rural Development), it is a broad geographic strategy rather than a specific strategy targeted solely at the removal of social disparities and exploitation for disadvantaged groups. While it benefits these groups, it is not part of the official "three-pronged" terminology used to define the mission of social justice.

Summary of Targets
This three-pronged approach is specifically designed for:

Scheduled Castes (SC)

Other Backward Classes (OBC)

Economically Backward Classes (EBC)

Persons with Disabilities and Senior Citizens

About JKSSB 2022 Previous Year Questions

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