JKPSC JKAS Prelims 2021 Previous Year Questions

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

Plants that grow in water are called as Hydrophytes. What name is given to plants that grow in desert conditions?

A Halophytes

B Xerophytes

C Mesophytes

D Phaeophytes

Correct Answer: Option B

Characteristics of Xerophytes

Xerophytes have evolved specific structural and physiological adaptations to survive in environments with very little liquid water, such as deserts or ice-covered regions like the Arctic.

Water Storage: Many xerophytes are "succulents," meaning they have fleshy stems or leaves designed to store large amounts of water.

Reduced Leaves: To prevent water loss through transpiration, leaves are often reduced to spines (as seen in cacti) or have a very small surface area.

Waxy Coatings: They often feature a thick, waxy "cuticle" on their surface to seal in moisture.

Stomatal Regulation: Their pores (stomata) are often sunken deep into the plant tissue or only open at night when temperatures are cooler to minimize evaporation.

Extensive Root Systems: They usually possess either very deep taproots to reach underground water tables or wide, shallow root mats to catch even the lightest rainfall.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

What is India's share of the global species diversity?

A 2%

B 4%

C 6%

D 8%

Correct Answer: Option D

Understanding India’s Biodiversity Status

India is officially recognized as one of the 17 Mega-Diverse Countries in the world. Its contribution to global diversity is disproportionately high when compared to its physical size:

Land Area: India occupies only about 2.4% of the world's total land area.

Species Diversity: Despite its small land footprint, India accounts for approximately 8.1% (often rounded to 8% in standard academic assessments) of the global recorded species diversity.

Why is India's Biodiversity so High?

This "impressive share" is the result of several unique factors:

Diverse Ecosystems: From the Himalayan tundra and the Thar desert to tropical rainforests, mangroves, and coral reefs, India hosts a massive variety of habitats.

Biodiversity Hotspots: India contains four of the world's 36 global biodiversity hotspots:

The Himalayas

The Western Ghats

The Indo-Burma region

Sundaland (including the Nicobar Islands)

Species Richness: To date, more than 45,000 species of plants and 91,000 species of animals have been recorded in India.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

What field of Science is the Bragg's law related to?

A Thermodynamics

B Solid State Physics

C Biotechnology

D Astrophysics

Correct Answer: Option B

Understanding Bragg's Law

Bragg's Law is a fundamental principle used to study the internal structure of crystals. It explains how X-rays are reflected (or "diffracted") by the atoms arranged in a crystal lattice.

How it works: When X-rays hit a crystal, they penetrate the surface and are reflected by the different layers of atoms. If the waves reflected from these layers align perfectly, they create a strong signal. Scientists use this signal to calculate the exact distance between the atoms.

Significance: This discovery was a massive breakthrough for Solid State Physics and Crystallography because it allowed us to "see" the atomic arrangement of solids for the first time. It is the reason we know the structures of diamonds, metals, and even complex biological molecules like DNA.

Why it doesn't fit the other fields:

A) Thermodynamics: This field deals with heat, energy, and work. While solids are studied here, the law of reflection and diffraction is a matter of wave physics and structural arrangement rather than heat transfer.

C) Biotechnology: While Biotech uses techniques based on Bragg’s Law (like X-ray crystallography to study proteins), the law itself is a core principle of physics rather than a biological process.

D) Astrophysics: This field studies celestial bodies and the universe. While X-ray telescopes are used in space, Bragg's Law specifically describes the interaction between waves and the organized atomic layers found in solid matter.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

The growth in response to touch stimulus is called as

A Gravitropism

B Phototropism

C Thigmotropism

D Chemotropism

Correct Answer: Option C

Understanding Tropisms

A tropism is a biological phenomenon where an organism (usually a plant) grows or turns in a particular direction in response to an external stimulus.

Thigmotropism (Touch): This comes from the Greek word thigma, meaning "touch." It is most commonly seen in climbing plants and vines. When a tendril makes contact with an object like a pole or a fence, it begins to coil around it, allowing the plant to climb upward toward more sunlight.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A) Gravitropism: This is growth in response to gravity. Roots show positive gravitropism (growing down), while stems show negative gravitropism (growing up).

B) Phototropism: This is growth in response to light. Most plant stems will bend toward a light source to maximize photosynthesis.
D) Chemotropism: This is growth in response to chemical substances. An example is the growth of a pollen tube toward an ovule during plant fertilization.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

German silver is an alloy of

A Copper and tin

B Zinc, silver and copper

C Copper and nickel

D Copper, zinc and nickel

Correct Answer: Option D

Key Facts About German Silver

Despite its name, German silver contains no actual silver. It is named "silver" only because of its bright, silvery-white appearance.

Composition: It typically consists of about 60% copper, 20% nickel, and 20% zinc.

Properties: It is highly valued for its hardness, toughness, and excellent resistance to corrosion.

Common Uses: Because it looks like silver but is much cheaper, it is frequently used for:

Tableware and cutlery (often as a base for silver plating).

Musical instruments (like flutes and saxophones).

Jewelry and decorative items.

Zippers and keys.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A) Copper and tin: This is the composition of Bronze.

B) Zinc, silver, and copper: While these metals are used in various alloys, they do not define German silver (which specifically lacks silver).

C) Copper and nickel: This is known as Cupronickel, often used in silver-colored circulation coins. While German silver contains these, it must also include zinc to be classified as such.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

Which one of the following is not true about the structure of DNA?

A DNA is a double stranded helix with sugar-phosphate as backbone.

B DNA is always a right handed helix.

C DNA strands run in opposite direction.

D DNA has both major and minor grooves.

Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation

While the most common form of DNA (known as B-DNA) is a right-handed helix, it is not "always" right-handed.

Z-DNA: This is a specific form of DNA that forms a left-handed helix. It has a zigzag pattern in its backbone and usually occurs in regions with specific repeating sequences, such as alternating cytosine and guanine.

Biological Role: Z-DNA is thought to play a role in regulating how genes are expressed and in relieving structural tension during certain cellular processes.

Why the other options are true:

A) Double stranded helix with sugar-phosphate backbone: This is the foundational structure of DNA. The "sides" of the ladder are made of alternating sugar and phosphate molecules, while the "rungs" are the nitrogenous bases.

C) Strands run in opposite direction: This is known as being anti-parallel. One strand runs in a 5-prime to 3-prime direction, while the other runs 3-prime to 5-prime. This orientation is essential for DNA replication and base pairing.

D) Major and minor grooves: Because the two strands are not perfectly symmetrical in how they wrap around each other, they create gaps of different sizes. These grooves are critical because they allow proteins (like those involved in copying or reading DNA) to bind to specific sequences.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

By what factor is the electromagnetic force stronger than the gravitational force?

A 10²

B 10¹⁶

C 10²⁸

D 10³⁶

Correct Answer: Option D

In physics, the electromagnetic force is vastly more powerful than gravity. To visualize this difference, scientists often compare how these two forces act on two protons placed near each other.

Gravity is the weakest of the four fundamental forces. While it is strong enough to keep planets in orbit, its effect on individual subatomic particles is almost negligible.

The Electromagnetic Force is what holds atoms together and governs the interactions between charged particles. It is incredibly robust by comparison.

Why the difference is so large

If you were to calculate the strength of both forces between two protons, the electromagnetic repulsion would be approximately one undecillion times stronger than the gravitational attraction. In scientific notation, this is written as 1 followed by 36 zeros.

An easy way to think about this "force gap" in daily life is to realize that a small refrigerator magnet can lift a paperclip against the gravitational pull of the entire Earth. This is because the electromagnetic force of the small magnet easily overcomes the cumulative gravitational force of our whole planet.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

What does eutrophication refer to?

A Natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water

B Natural aging of lake by nutrient deficit of its water

C Natural expansion of a lake with time

D Natural increasing of the depth of a lake with time

Correct Answer: Option A

Understanding Eutrophication

Eutrophication is a biological process that occurs when a body of water becomes overly enriched with minerals and nutrients (primarily phosphates and nitrates).

The Process: While eutrophication can happen naturally over centuries as a lake fills with sediment and organic matter, human activity often accelerates it—a process called "cultural eutrophication"—through fertilizer runoff or sewage discharge.

The Chain Reaction:

Nutrient Loading: High levels of nitrogen and phosphorus enter the water.

Algal Bloom: This "food" causes a rapid increase in algae and phytoplankton growth on the surface.

Oxygen Depletion: When the algae die, bacteria decompose them. This decomposition consumes the dissolved oxygen in the water.

Dead Zones: Lack of oxygen leads to the death of fish and other aquatic organisms, effectively "aging" the lake and turning it into a marsh or land over time.

Analysis of Other Options

B) Nutrient deficit: This would be the opposite of eutrophication (oligotrophic conditions).

C) & D) Expansion/Increasing depth: Eutrophication actually leads to the shallowing of a lake because the accumulation of dead organic matter and silt on the bottom gradually reduces the lake's depth.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

On which of the following planets does the sun rise in the West?

A Mercury

B Venus

C Jupiter

D Mars

Correct Answer: Option B

Why the Sun Rises in the West on Venus

On most planets in our solar system, including Earth, the Sun rises in the east and sets in the west because the planets rotate prograde (counter-clockwise when viewed from above the North Pole). However, Venus is an exception due to two main factors:

Retrograde Rotation: Venus rotates on its axis in the opposite direction to most other planets (clockwise). This is known as retrograde rotation. If you were standing on the surface of Venus, this backwards spin would make the Sun appear to rise in the west and set in the east.

Extremely Slow Spin: Venus rotates very slowly. In fact, its "day" (one full rotation) lasts about 243 Earth days, which is actually longer than its "year" (its orbit around the Sun, which takes about 225 Earth days).

Note on Uranus: Uranus also has a unique rotation. It is tilted at about 98 degrees, meaning it effectively rotates on its side. Depending on the season and where you are on the planet, the Sun's path can appear very unusual, but Venus is the classic example of a consistent "West-to-East" solar cycle.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

What is a white dwarf?

A It is a stellar core which remains after the star has used up all of its nuclear fuel.

B It is the explosion of a star.

C They are highly compact, magnetized, rotating stars.

D It is an extremely luminous active galactic nucleus, powered by a supermassive black hole.

Correct Answer: Option A

Understanding White Dwarfs

A White Dwarf represents one of the final stages of stellar evolution for stars that are not massive enough to become neutron stars or black holes (stars like our Sun).

Formation: When a medium-sized star exhausts its nuclear fuel (hydrogen and helium), it sheds its outer layers, creating a planetary nebula. The remaining hot, dense core is the white dwarf.

Composition: They are typically composed of carbon and oxygen. Because they are no longer performing nuclear fusion, they don't produce new heat; instead, they gradually cool down over billions of years.

Density: They are incredibly dense. A white dwarf has a mass comparable to the Sun but a volume comparable to Earth.

Support: They are prevented from collapsing further by electron degeneracy pressure, a quantum mechanical effect that prevents electrons from being squeezed into the same space.

Analysis of Other Options

B) Explosion of a star: This describes a Supernova.

C) Highly compact, magnetized, rotating stars: This describes Pulsars (a type of neutron star).

D) Extremely luminous active galactic nucleus: This describes a Quasar.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

Among the following theories which one is discuss about metal-free electrons?

A Werner's theory

B Sidwick's theory

C VB theory

D Drude-Lorentz theory

Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation of the Theories

To understand why Drude-Lorentz theory is the correct choice, it is helpful to look at what each theory focuses on:

Drude-Lorentz Theory (Free Electron Theory): Proposed around 1900, this theory treats a metal as a lattice of positive ions submerged in a "gas" of free electrons. These electrons are not bound to any specific atom and can move freely through the metal, which explains electrical and thermal conductivity.

Werner’s Theory: This is the foundation of coordination chemistry. It explains how metal ions form complexes with ligands by satisfying "primary" (oxidation state) and "secondary" (coordination number) valencies. It does not deal with the "sea" of free electrons found in bulk metals.

Sidgwick’s Theory: An extension of Werner's work, Sidgwick introduced the Effective Atomic Number (EAN) rule. It explains the stability of coordination compounds based on the total number of electrons surrounding the central metal atom, rather than free-moving electrons.

Valence Bond (VB) Theory: This theory explains the bonding in molecules and coordination complexes through the hybridization of atomic orbitals and the sharing of electron pairs. It focuses on localized bonds rather than the delocalized free electron gas characteristic of metallic bonding.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

Among the following theories which one is discuss about metal-free electrons?

A Werner's theory

B Sidwick's theory

C VB theory

D Drude-Lorentz theory

Correct Answer: Option D

Understanding the Theory

The Drude-Lorentz theory was proposed to explain how metals conduct electricity and heat. It suggests that a metal consists of a lattice of positive ions (the atoms that have lost their outer electrons) submerged in a "sea" or "gas" of free-moving electrons.

Free Electrons: These are the outermost electrons of the metal atoms that are not tied to any specific nucleus. They are free to move throughout the entire volume of the metal.

Conductivity: Because these electrons are "free," they can move easily when an electric field is applied, which is why metals are such good conductors of electricity.

Heat Transfer: These free electrons also help in transferring kinetic energy, which explains the high thermal conductivity of metals.

Understanding the Theory

The Drude-Lorentz theory was proposed to explain how metals conduct electricity and heat. It suggests that a metal consists of a lattice of positive ions (the atoms that have lost their outer electrons) submerged in a "sea" or "gas" of free-moving electrons.

Free Electrons: These are the outermost electrons of the metal atoms that are not tied to any specific nucleus. They are free to move throughout the entire volume of the metal.

Conductivity: Because these electrons are "free," they can move easily when an electric field is applied, which is why metals are such good conductors of electricity.

Heat Transfer: These free electrons also help in transferring kinetic energy, which explains the high thermal conductivity of metals.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

In what cases can the three equations of motion be applied?

i. In one dimensional motion

ii. In circular motion

iii. Simple harmonic motion iv. When acceleration is constant

A only i

B i and ii

C only iv

D ii, iii, and iv

Correct Answer: Option C

The three equations of motion can be applied only when acceleration is constant.

Why Constant Acceleration is the Key

These specific equations were designed based on the rule that the rate at which an object speeds up or slows down remains the same throughout the entire movement. If the acceleration changes, these equations will give an incorrect result.

Analysis of the Options:

i. In one dimensional motion: Moving in a straight line is not enough to use these equations. If a driver is constantly changing how hard they press the gas pedal, the acceleration is not steady, and the equations won't work.

ii. In circular motion: In a circle, the direction of movement is constantly shifting. Because acceleration involves both speed and direction, a change in direction means the acceleration is not constant.

iii. Simple harmonic motion: In systems like a swinging pendulum, the force and acceleration change depending on the position of the object. Since the acceleration is different at every point of the swing, these equations cannot be used.

iv. When acceleration is constant: This is the fundamental requirement. As long as the acceleration is uniform, the equations remain valid, whether the object is falling under gravity or a car is speeding up at a steady rate.

Summary

For these rules to apply, the acceleration must be a steady, unchanging value in both its strength and its direction during the time you are measuring.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

Which quantum phenomenon was Albert Einstein referring to in his expression "spooky action at a distance"?

A Quantum tunnelling

B Uncertainty Principle

C Superposition

D Quantum entanglement

Correct Answer: Option D

Einstein famously used the phrase "spooky action at a distance" (spukhafte Fernwirkung) to express his discomfort with the implications of quantum entanglement, which seemed to defy the classical laws of physics—specifically the idea that nothing can travel faster than the speed of light.

Understanding the "Spooky" Connection

Quantum entanglement occurs when two or more particles become linked in such a way that the state of one particle instantly influences the state of the other, regardless of the distance separating them.

The Einstein-Podolsky-Rosen (EPR) Paradox: Einstein, along with Boris Podolsky and Nathan Rosen, argued that if quantum mechanics were complete, it would imply a violation of locality (the principle that distant objects cannot directy influence each other).

The Measurement: In an entangled pair, measuring the "spin" of one particle (e.g., as "Up") causes the other particle to immediately assume the opposite state (e.g., "Down"), even if that second particle is on the other side of the galaxy.

Einstein's View: He believed there must be "hidden variables" we hadn't discovered yet, as he could not accept that "information" could travel faster than light or that reality was based purely on probability.

Brief Overview of Other Options:

A) Quantum Tunnelling: The phenomenon where a particle passes through a potential energy barrier that it classically shouldn't be able to cross.

B) Uncertainty Principle: Werner Heisenberg’s theory that you cannot simultaneously know both the exact position and the exact momentum of a particle.

C) Superposition: The ability of a quantum system to be in multiple states at the same time until it is measured (often illustrated by Schrödinger's Cat).

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Find out the correct order of sequence of vertical structure of the atmosphere from lower to higher altitudes

A Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere and Thermosphere

B Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere and Thermosphere

C Stratosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere and Mesosphere

D Troposphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere and Mesosphere

Correct Answer: Option A

The atmosphere is divided into layers based primarily on temperature gradients as you move away from the Earth's surface.

Vertical Structure (From Bottom to Top):

Troposphere (0–12 km): The lowest layer where we live. It contains roughly 80% of the atmosphere's mass and almost all its water vapor. Temperature decreases with altitude here.

Stratosphere (12–50 km): This layer contains the Ozone Layer, which absorbs UV radiation. Because of this absorption, temperature increases with altitude. Commercial jet aircraft often fly in the lower stratosphere to avoid weather turbulence.

Mesosphere (50–80 km): The coldest layer of the atmosphere. Temperatures decrease again, reaching as low as -90°C. This is the layer where most meteors burn up upon entry.

Thermosphere (80–700 km): In this layer, temperature increases significantly with height due to the absorption of high-energy X-rays and UV radiation from the sun. It includes the Ionosphere, which is critical for radio communication.

Exosphere: The outermost fringe of the atmosphere that gradually fades into outer space.

Quick Tip for Remembering:

You can use the mnemonic: "Trust Smart Men The Emost" (Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere).

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology Geography

Western ghats of India is known as

A Endemic Queen

B Endemic Crown

C Endemic Ghat

D Endemic Home

Correct Answer: Option D

The Western Ghats are frequently referred to as an "Endemic Home" because they are one of the world's eight "hottest hotspots" of biological diversity.

Why the Western Ghats are unique:

High Endemism: A significant percentage of the species found here—including amphibians, reptiles, fish, and flowering plants—are endemic, meaning they are found nowhere else on Earth.

UNESCO World Heritage Site: Recognized for its immense ecological value, the range influences the Indian monsoon weather pattern by intercepting the rain-laden monsoon winds.

Biodiversity Hub: While covering less than 6% of India's land area, it contains more than 30% of all plant, fish, bird, and mammal species found in the country.

Key Species Examples:

Lion-tailed Macaque: An endangered primate found only in the rainforests of the Western Ghats.

Nilgiri Tahr: A mountain goat endemic to the open montane grassland habitat of the southern portion of the range.

Purple Frog: A unique amphibian that spends most of its life underground.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

Homeostasis means

A A tendency of an ecosystem to resist change and to remain in a state of equilibrium

B A property of an ecosystem to withstand all kinds of environmental changes

C A characteristic of an ecosystem to convert into changes of pollution

D An ecosystem never respond to environmental change

Correct Answer: Option A

Homeostasis refers to the self-regulating process by which biological systems (including individual organisms and entire ecosystems) maintain stability while adjusting to changing external conditions.

Key Concepts of Ecosystem Homeostasis:

Dynamic Equilibrium: It is not a static state; rather, the system constantly adjusts its internal processes to stay within a healthy range.

Feedback Loops: Ecosystems use "negative feedback" to counter disturbances. For example, if a certain prey population increases, the predator population will eventually increase to bring the prey numbers back down to a stable level.

Resilience vs. Resistance: While homeostasis allows a system to resist minor changes, extreme environmental shifts (like severe pollution or habitat destruction) can overwhelm this balance, leading to ecosystem collapse.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B: No ecosystem can withstand all kinds of changes; catastrophic events (like a major volcanic eruption or total deforestation) can permanently alter or destroy them.

C: Homeostasis is about maintaining health and balance, not "converting into changes of pollution."

D: Ecosystems are highly responsive to change; homeostasis is the result of that response being used to restore balance.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

The gradual change in the direction of the earth's axis is called

A Wandering Polar

B Continental drift

C Precession

D Euler's effect

Correct Answer: Option C

This phenomenon, specifically known as Axial Precession, describes the slow, continuous gravity-induced change in the orientation of Earth's rotational axis.

Why it happens

Much like a spinning toy top that wobbles when its speed decreases, Earth experiences a similar "wobble." This is primarily caused by the gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun on Earth's equatorial bulge (the fact that Earth is slightly thicker at the equator than at the poles).

Key Characteristics

The Cycle: It takes approximately 26,000 years for the Earth to complete one full circle of precession.

The North Star: Because the axis is moving, the "North Star" changes over millennia. Currently, our North Star is Polaris, but in about 12,000 years, the axis will point toward the star Vega.

Equinoxes: This movement is also responsible for the "Precession of the Equinoxes," where the positions of the equinoxes slowly drift westward along the ecliptic.

Distinguishing the other options:

Wandering Polar: Refers to the movement of the magnetic or geographic poles across the Earth's surface over geological time, often linked to tectonic shifts.

Continental Drift: The movement of Earth's continents relative to each other across the ocean bed.

Euler's Effect (Chandler Wobble): A small deviation in the Earth's axis of rotation relative to the solid Earth, occurring over much shorter periods (about 433 days).

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

The gradual change in the direction of the earth's axis is called

A Wandering Polar

B Continental drift

C Precession

D Euler's effect

Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation

Axial Precession is the slow, continuous gravity-induced change in the orientation of Earth's rotational axis. It is often compared to the "wobble" of a spinning top as it slows down.

The Mechanism: This occurs because the Earth is not a perfect sphere but an oblate spheroid (bulging at the equator). The gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon on this equatorial bulge causes the axis to trace out a large cone in space.

The Timeline: A single complete cycle of precession takes approximately 26,000 years.

The Effect: Precession changes the "North Star" over time. Currently, our axis points toward Polaris, but in about 12,000 years, it will point toward the star Vega.

Why the others are incorrect:

Wandering Polar: This refers to the movement of the magnetic poles or the migration of the rotational poles relative to the Earth's crust over geological time.

Continental Drift: This is the large-scale movement of Earth's continents over the mantle.

Euler's Effect (Free Nutation): This relates to a small shift in the Earth's axis of rotation relative to the Earth's surface, but it is not the "gradual change in direction" in space described by precession.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

The loss of genetic diversity in an isolated small population could be attributed to:

1) Mutation

2) Inbreeding

3) Speciation

4) Genetic drift

A 1 and 2

B 2 and 3

C 2 and 4

D 1 and 4

Correct Answer: Option C

In small, isolated populations, genetic diversity tends to decrease over time due to specific evolutionary mechanisms:

Statement 4 (Genetic Drift): This is the random change in allele frequencies. In a small population, chance events can cause certain alleles to disappear entirely or others to become "fixed" (the only version remaining). Because there are fewer individuals to buffer these random changes, genetic drift has a much more pronounced effect.

Statement 2 (Inbreeding): Small, isolated populations have a limited pool of potential mates. This often leads to mating between closely related individuals. Over generations, inbreeding increases homozygosity and reduces the overall genetic variation within the population, often leading to the expression of harmful recessive traits (inbreeding depression).

Why the others are incorrect:

Statement 1 (Mutation): Mutations actually increase genetic diversity by introducing new alleles into a population.

Statement 3 (Speciation): Speciation is the process by which new species are formed. While it involves changes in genetic makeup, it is a result of evolutionary processes rather than a direct cause for the loss of diversity within a single population.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

Liana density in tropical latitude is

1) A negative relationship with mean annual precipitation

2) A negative relationship with the length of the dry season period

3) A positive relationship with mean annual precipitation

4) A positive relationship with the length of the dry season period

Choose the correct option.

A 1 and 2

B 1 and 3

C 1 and 4

D 2 and 3

Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation

Lianas (woody vines) have unique physiological and structural adaptations that distinguish their distribution patterns from those of most tropical trees.

Statement 1 (Negative relationship with mean annual precipitation): Unlike trees, which generally increase in biomass and density as rainfall increases, liana density tends to decrease in extremely wet forests. In areas with very high annual rainfall, lianas are often outcompeted by the dense, fast-growing canopy of trees.

Statement 4 (Positive relationship with the length of the dry season): Lianas are highly efficient at transporting water and maintaining growth during dry periods. They have deep root systems and efficient vascular systems that allow them to thrive when trees might go dormant or struggle. Therefore, as the length of the dry season increases, the relative density and competitive advantage of lianas over trees also increase.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

The non-native species successfully establishes in the introduced environment and causes the damage to the environment due to

1) Better adaptation to the new environment

2) All the niches are utilized by the native species

3) Absence of natural enemies in the introduced region

4) Low biotic potential

Choose the correct option.

A 1 and 2

B 1 and 3

C 1 and 4

D 2 and 4

Correct Answer: Option B

Non-native (or invasive) species disrupt ecosystems because they often possess specific advantages that allow them to outcompete local flora and fauna:

Statement 1 (Better adaptation): Invasive species are typically generalists with high phenotypic plasticity, meaning they can thrive in a wide range of environmental conditions and utilize diverse food sources better than specialized native species.

Statement 3 (Absence of natural enemies): This is often the most significant factor. In their home range, these species are kept in check by specific predators, parasites, or diseases. In a new environment, those "natural checks" are missing, allowing their population to grow unchecked.

Why the others are incorrect:

Statement 2: If all niches were already fully utilized by native species, the non-native species would struggle to find space or resources to establish itself.

Statement 4: Successful invasive species usually have high biotic potential (the ability to reproduce rapidly and in large numbers), not low.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology Geography

In the freshwaters ofriver Ganga, a variety of dolphins named ______ are found

A Dolma

B Susu

C Saka

D Doha

Correct Answer: Option B

The Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) is locally known as "Susu" because of the noise it makes while breathing. This species is unique because it is essentially blind; it hunts by emitting ultrasonic sounds that bounce off of fish and other objects, enabling it to "see" in the murky river water through echolocation.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

What is the major cause of coral bleaching?

A Pollution in oceans

B Warm water

C Chemicals in ocean

D Oil spills

Correct Answer: Option B

While all the factors listed can harm marine ecosystems, the primary driver of large-scale coral bleaching events globally is the rise in ocean temperatures due to climate change.

Understanding Coral Bleaching Corals have a symbiotic relationship with microscopic algae called zooxanthellae that live inside their tissues. These algae provide the coral with food (via photosynthesis) and give them their vibrant colors. When water temperatures rise even by $1\text{--}2°\text{C}$ above the normal maximum, the corals become stressed and expel the algae. Without the algae, the coral loses its food source and turns completely white, which is why it is called "bleaching."

In the context of competitive examinations, it is a critical part of:

Marine Biology: The study of marine organisms and their behaviors.

Climate Change & Global Warming: Analyzing the impact of rising temperatures on biodiversity.

Conservation Biology: Focusing on the protection of coral reefs, often referred to as the "rainforests of the sea."

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

A common problem of development models, is its heavy dependency on

A Energy

B Human resources

C Financial capital

D Political power

Correct Answer: Option A

Detailed Analysis:

Most historical and contemporary development models (especially since the Industrial Revolution) are built on the premise of increasing productivity and industrialization.

Energy as the Driver: Economic growth is traditionally coupled with energy consumption. Whether it is the Harrod-Domar model (focusing on capital) or the Solow model (focusing on technology), the physical execution of development—manufacturing, transport, and urbanization—requires massive energy inputs.

The Energy-GDP Link: Modern development faces the "Energy Dilemma." To increase GDP, a nation typically needs more power. This dependency is the root cause of the current global shift toward "Green Growth," which tries to decouple economic progress from fossil fuel energy dependency.

Why not Financial Capital? While capital is crucial, it is a means to an end. Even with unlimited capital, development halts if physical energy resources (coal, oil, electricity) are unavailable or depleted.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

Ecological foot print is a method of gauging the

A Biodiversity of a region

B Human dependence on natural resources

C Volume of human migration

D Amount of carbon dioxide emitted

Correct Answer: Option B

Detailed Analysis:

The Ecological Footprint is a resource accounting tool that measures how much of the regenerative capacity of the biosphere is used by human activities.

What it tracks: It calculates the amount of biologically productive land and sea area required to provide the resources a person or population consumes (food, fiber, timber) and to absorb the waste they generate (specifically carbon emissions).

Unit of Measurement: It is expressed in Global Hectares (gha).

The "Gap": When a population’s Ecological Footprint exceeds the region’s Biocapacity (the area's ability to regenerate resources), it leads to an "ecological deficit."

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

The Venture Capital Assistance scheme aims at providing assistance to agripreneurs in the form of:

A Low rate interest loans

B Waiver of tax

C Subsidised tools and equipment

D Interest free loans

Correct Answer: Option D

Analysis of the Scheme:

The Venture Capital Assistance (VCA) scheme is a flagship initiative managed by the Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC). It is designed to facilitate the growth of agribusinesses by providing financial support that bridges the gap between the entrepreneur's capital and the bank's requirements.

Financial Mechanism: The assistance is provided in the form of an Interest-Free Loan (Quasi-Equity) to meet the shortfall in the capital required for setting up an agribusiness project.

Repayment: Since it is a loan (and not a grant), it must be repaid to the SFAC after the bank’s term loan has been fully settled.

Objective: To encourage "Agripreneurs" to set up projects that provide assured markets to farmers and strengthen the backward linkages in the agriculture supply chain.

Eligibility and Features:

Eligible Entities: Individuals, farmers, producer groups, partnership/proprietary firms, and Self Help Groups (SHGs) involved in agriculture or allied sectors.

Project Criteria: The project must be a greenfield (new) project in agriculture and must be sanctioned a term loan by a bank/financial institution.

Quantum of Assistance: Usually, it is the lower of 26% of the promoter's equity or ₹75 lakhs. For North-Eastern states and hilly areas, the percentage and limits can be higher.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

The 2030 agenda for sustainable development provides a global blueprint and stimulates action in the following areas:

A People, planning, prosperity, peace and partnership

B People, peace, prosperity, planet and partnership

C Peace, people, prosperity, plants and partnership

D Peace, people, planning, planet and partnership

Correct Answer: Option B

Analysis of the Option:

The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, which includes the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), is built upon these "5 Ps". They serve as the foundational pillars for the framework:

People: To end poverty and hunger, in all their forms and dimensions, and to ensure that all human beings can fulfil their potential in dignity and equality and in a healthy environment.

Planet: To protect the planet from degradation, including through sustainable consumption and production, sustainably managing its natural resources, and taking urgent action on climate change.

Prosperity: To ensure that all human beings can enjoy prosperous and fulfilling lives and that economic, social, and technological progress occurs in harmony with nature.

Peace: To foster peaceful, just, and inclusive societies which are free from fear and violence. There can be no sustainable development without peace and no peace without sustainable development.

Partnership: To mobilize the means required to implement this Agenda through a revitalized Global Partnership for Sustainable Development.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Which of the following is not true about The Essential Commodities Act 1955?

1. The central government cannot add or remove commodities from the list mentioned in the act.

2. The central government can provide for regulating or prohibiting the production, supply and distribution thereof and trade and commerce therein.

3. The central government can order the produce of essential commodity to be brought in for inspection

Choose the correct option.

A Only 1

B Only 3

C Only 2 and 3

D Only 1 and 2

Correct Answer: Option A

Analysis of Statements:

Statement 1 is Not True (False): The Central Government has the power to add or remove commodities from the schedule of the Act. If the government is satisfied that it is necessary in the public interest to do so, it can notify an item as "essential" to regulate its supply and price (e.g., masks and hand sanitizers were temporarily added during the COVID-19 pandemic).

Statement 2 is True: The primary objective of the Act is to empower the government to regulate or prohibit the production, supply, and distribution of essential commodities to ensure they are available to consumers at fair prices.

Statement 3 is True: To prevent hoarding and black marketing, the government can issue orders for the inspection of books of accounts and the physical produce of any entity dealing in essential commodities.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Which of the following is true in relation to ECOTAХ?

1. Tax imposed on private parties to feel the social burden of their action.

2. Increased tax on petroleum

3. Are applied on business firms and commercial entities

4. Tax levied for creating positive externalities.

A 1 & 2

B 2 & 4

C 3 & 4

D 1 & 3

Correct Answer: Option D

Analysis of Statements:

Statement 1 is True: An Ecotax (or Environmental Tax) is designed to make private parties (individuals or companies) internalize the "external costs" of their actions. It ensures they pay for the social and environmental burden (pollution, resource depletion) they create.

Statement 2 is False (Contextually): While taxes on petroleum can be a type of environmental tax, Statement 2 is too narrow and specific to define the general concept of Ecotax. Additionally, in many economic frameworks, petroleum taxes are often fiscal measures rather than purely "Ecotaxes" designed for behavioral change.

Statement 3 is True: Ecotaxes are heavily applied to business firms and commercial entities to discourage industrial pollution, improper waste disposal, and carbon emissions.

Statement 4 is False: Taxes are levied to mitigate negative externalities (like pollution). Activities that create positive externalities (like planting trees or R&D) are typically encouraged through subsidies, not taxes.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Theil Index, Gini Index and Palma ratio measures

A Social inequality

B Income Inequality

C Regional Disparity

D Spread of Biodiversity

Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation of the Indices:

Gini Index: This is the most widely used measure of inequality. It ranges from 0 to 1 (or 0% to 100%). A value of 0 represents perfect equality (everyone has the same income), while 1 represents perfect inequality (one person has all the income).

Theil Index: This is a statistic used to measure economic inequality and other forms of racial or social segregation. Unlike the Gini Index, the Theil Index is particularly good at "decomposing" inequality—showing how much inequality is due to disparities within a group versus between different groups.

Palma Ratio: This ratio focuses on the extremes of the income distribution. It is calculated by taking the share of gross national income (GNI) of the top 10% and dividing it by the share of the bottom 40%. It is based on the observation that the "middle class" share of income usually stays relatively stable, so inequality is mostly driven by the gap between the very rich and the very poor.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Which of the following is not a step under Atma Nirbhar Bharat?

A Disallowing Global tender of up to 200 crores.

B Increase in borrowing limits of Private banks account from RBI.

C Elimination of regulatory assets

D One nation one card for migrant workers

Correct Answer: Option B

Analysis of the Options:

A) Disallowing Global tenders up to 200 crores: This was a key step under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan to support MSMEs (Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises) by protecting them from foreign competition in government procurement.

B) Increase in borrowing limits (Incorrect): While the central government increased the borrowing limits for State Governments (from 3% to 5% of GSDP), there was no specific "Atmanirbhar Bharat" step defined as increasing borrowing limits specifically for private banks from the RBI in this context.

C) Elimination of regulatory assets: This is part of the power sector reforms under the package, aimed at improving the financial health of power distribution companies (DISCOMs).

D) One Nation One Ration Card: This was a major pillar for migrant workers and urban poor to ensure food security and portability of benefits across India.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Stand up India:

1. Facilitates bank loans to SC or ST borrower.

2. It facilitates a loan amount of 10 lakh to 50 lakhs.

3. The loan is provided for setting up a greenfield enterprise.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

A Only 1

B Only 2

C Only 1 and 2

D Only 1 and 3

Correct Answer: Option D

Analysis of Statements:

Statement 1 is True: The scheme specifically targets Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), and women entrepreneurs to promote entrepreneurship at the grassroots level.

Statement 2 is False: The loan amount facilitated under Stand-Up India ranges from 10 lakh to 1 crore. The statement incorrectly caps the limit at 50 lakhs.

Statement 3 is True: The loan is exclusively for setting up greenfield enterprises, which refers to the first-time venture of the beneficiary in the manufacturing, services, agri-allied activities, or the trading sector.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Read the following statements around FDI in India.

1. During FY 2020-21 total FDI inflow of $58.37 bn, 22% higher as compared to the first 8 months of 2019-20.

2. FDI inflows in India have consistently increased since FY 2014-15.

3. FDI equity inflow grew by 120% in the first three months of the FY 2021-22.

Which of the given statements is/are true.

A Only 1

B Only 2

C Only 1 and 2

D Only 3

Correct Answer: Option D

Here is the breakdown of the factual accuracy of these statements based on official data from the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT):

Analysis of the Statements

Statement 1 (Incorrect): While the total FDI inflow for FY 2020-21 was indeed a record high (reaching approximately $81.72 billion for the full year), the figure of $58.37 billion cited in the statement refers specifically to FDI Equity Inflow for that year, not the "Total FDI" (which includes re-invested earnings and other capital). The phrasing comparing it to only the "first 8 months" of the previous year makes the statistic contextually inconsistent.

Statement 2 (Incorrect): FDI inflows in India have not consistently increased every single year since 2014-15. While the overall trend has been upward over the decade, there have been specific years (such as FY 2022-23) where inflows saw a contraction due to global economic headwinds, interest rate hikes by the US Fed, and geopolitical tensions. In the UPSC context, words like "consistently" or "steadily" are often "extreme" qualifiers that make a statement false if even a single year of decline exists.

Statement 3 (Correct): During the first quarter (April–June) of FY 2021-22, FDI equity inflows saw a massive surge of 168% (often rounded or cited as over 120% in various economic summaries) compared to the same period in 2020-21. This was largely due to the low base effect from the previous year's COVID-19 lockdowns and a few massive investment deals in the digital and tech sectors.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

.Read the following statements.

1. Balance of payments of a country is an aggregate record of domestic economic transactions of a country.

2. These transactions include exports and imports of goods, services and financial assets, along with transfer payments (like foreign aid).

3. The balance of payments is an important economic indicator for 'open' economies

Which of the given statements is/are true?

A Only 1

B Only 1 and 2

C Only 1 and 3

D Only 2 and 3

Correct Answer: Option D

Here is the detailed breakdown of why Statement 1 is incorrect and the others are accurate:

Analysis of the Statements

Statement 1 (Incorrect): The Balance of Payments (BoP) is a record of transactions between residents of a country and the rest of the world, not just "domestic" transactions. Domestic transactions (those happening within the borders between residents) are tracked in different national accounts, but BoP specifically measures the international economic relationship.

Statement 2 (Correct): This accurately describes the components of the BoP. It includes the Current Account (goods, services, and transfer payments like gifts or foreign aid) and the Capital Account (financial assets, stocks, bonds, and loans).

Statement 3 (Correct): BoP is vital for "open" economies because they engage in international trade and capital flows. It helps policymakers understand the demand for the national currency, the sustainability of external debt, and the overall competitiveness of the economy.

Conceptual Overview: BoP Structure

The Balance of Payments is essentially a double-entry bookkeeping system where:

Inflows (money coming into the country) are recorded as credits (+).

Outflows (money leaving the country) are recorded as debits (-).

It is a crucial metric for identifying if a country is a "net creditor" or a "net debtor" to the global economy.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Which of the following is related to environmental degradation?

1. Extraction in Carrying Capacity

2. Waste generated in Absorptive Capacity

3. Conservation of renewable and non -renewable resources

4. Opportunity cost of negative environment impact

Select the correct codes:

A 1 and 2

B 4 only

C 1,2 and 3

D 3 and 4

Correct Answer: Option A

To understand why, we need to look at the definitions of environmental functions and how their failure leads to degradation.

Analysis of the Options

1. Extraction in Carrying Capacity: Environmental degradation occurs when the rate of extraction of resources exceeds the rate of regeneration. "Carrying capacity" implies the environment's ability to sustain this extraction; once we cross that limit, degradation begins.

2. Waste generated in Absorptive Capacity: The environment has an "absorptive capacity"—the ability to absorb and degrade waste without harm. When waste generation exceeds this capacity, it leads to pollution and degradation.

3. Conservation of resources (Incorrect): This is the solution to environmental degradation, not a cause or related factor of the degradation itself. Conservation aims to maintain environmental health.

4. Opportunity cost (Incorrect): While environmental degradation creates an opportunity cost (money spent on health or cleaning up instead of education or technology), the cost itself is a consequence, not a factor inherent to the process of degradation described in economic environmental models.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

The Rangarajan panel submitted its report on poverty estimates in January 2014. Major changes were observed in estimation. What are those factors?

1. Minimum calorie requirement for urban and rural areas.

2. Behavioural determination of non-food expenses.

3. Food expenses to include food and protein

4. Per capita expenditure from urban and rural area separately.

Choose the correct answer

A 1,2, & 3

B 3 & 4

C 2, 4 & 1

D All the above

Correct Answer: Option D

The Rangarajan Committee (2014) was established to review the methodology for measurement of poverty, moving away from the previous Tendulkar Committee's approach. Below is the breakdown of the factors mentioned and the subject classification.

Analysis of the Rangarajan Methodology

The panel introduced several critical shifts in how poverty is calculated in India:

Minimum Calorie Requirement (Point 1): Unlike the Tendulkar Committee, which used a uniform basket, the Rangarajan panel reverted to separate calorie norms for rural and urban areas. It recommended 2155 kcal per person per day in rural areas and 2090 kcal in urban areas.

Behavioral Determination (Point 2): The panel shifted from a "normative" approach (what people should spend) to a "behavioral" approach. It used the observed consumption patterns of households to determine the expenditure required for non-food items like clothing, house rent, and transport.

Food Expenses (Point 3): The "Food Component" was expanded to be more nutritionally comprehensive. Instead of just calories, it factored in the intake of proteins and fats as part of a healthy diet.

Separate Per Capita Expenditure (Point 4): The committee calculated the Poverty Line Basket (PLB) separately for rural and urban areas. For 2011–12, it set the monthly per capita expenditure at ₹972 for rural and ₹1,407 for urban areas.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Naresh Chandra Committee, 2002 was appointed to:

A Examine age limit for competitive examinations

B Examine the reservation issues

C Examine corporate governance issues

D Examine the domestic violence issues

Correct Answer: Option C

The Naresh Chandra Committee was appointed by the Ministry of Finance and Company Affairs in 2002 in the wake of major corporate scandals globally (like Enron and WorldCom) and in India. Its primary objective was to strengthen the framework of corporate governance to protect investors and ensure transparency.

Key Recommendations of the Naresh Chandra Committee

The committee's report is a landmark in Indian corporate history. Some of its most significant recommendations included:

Independent Directors: It defined the role and criteria for "Independent Directors" to ensure they are not influenced by the company's management. It suggested that at least 50% of the board should consist of independent directors.

Audit Partner Rotation: To prevent an overly cozy relationship between a company and its auditors, the committee recommended the rotation of audit partners every few years.

Prohibition of Non-Audit Services: It recommended that statutory auditors should not provide certain non-audit services (like bookkeeping or internal audit) to the same client to avoid conflicts of interest.

CEO/CFO Certification: It proposed that the CEO and CFO should personally certify the accuracy of financial statements, increasing individual accountability at the top level.

Comparison with other options:

Age Limit for Exams: This is usually handled by committees like the Baswan Committee (2016) or the Alagh Committee (2001) in the context of the UPSC.

Reservation Issues: Significant committees include the Mandal Commission or the Santhanam Committee (though the latter focused more on corruption).

Domestic Violence: Issues related to women's safety and laws are often associated with the Justice Verma Committee (2013).

Revision Tip:

In many exams, the Naresh Chandra Committee is specifically linked to the Audit-Auditor relationship. If you see a question about "Auditor Independence," this committee is almost certainly the answer.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

The parliament exercises control over administration through the executive with

A General control over the policies and actions of the government through questions, discussions, motions and resolutions.

B Financial control through budget and audit.

C Detailed control over financial, administrative and legislative matters through committees.

D All the above

Correct Answer: Option D

The Indian Parliament ensures executive accountability through several layers of oversight, ranging from daily interactions to long-term financial scrutiny.

Breakdown of Parliamentary Control:

Statement A (General Control): During Question Hour and Zero Hour, Members of Parliament (MPs) can directly question ministers. Procedures like Adjournment Motions, Censure Motions, and No-Confidence Motions serve as powerful tools to debate and challenge government policies.

Statement B (Financial Control): Under the principle of "No taxation without representation," the executive cannot spend a single rupee without parliamentary approval via the Budget. Post-expenditure control is maintained through the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).

Statement C (Detailed Control via Committees): Since the Parliament is too large a body to handle every detail, it works through Parliamentary Committees (like the Public Accounts Committee or Estimates Committee). these committees go through the "fine print" of administrative actions and financial accounts.

Fast Facts for Revision:

Article 75(3): This is the constitutional bedrock of control, stating that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

Public Accounts Committee (PAC): Often called the "Twin Sister" of the Estimates Committee, it examines the audit reports of the CAG to ensure that public money was spent legally and wisely.

Estimates Committee: The largest committee of Parliament (30 members, all from Lok Sabha), often referred to as a "Continuous Economy Committee."

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Which Indian President won unopposed?

A R. Venkataraman

B N Sanjeeva Reddy

C Giani Zail Singh

D VV Giri

Correct Answer: Option B

Neelam Sanjiva Reddy is the only person to date to have been elected to the office of the President of India unopposed. He served as the sixth President of India from 1977 to 1982.

Historical Context of the 1977 Election

Background: Following the death of President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed in office, a fresh election was required.

The Election: In the July 1977 presidential election, a total of 37 candidates filed their nominations. However, upon scrutiny, the returning officer rejected the nominations of the other 36 candidates as they did not fulfill the required formalities (such as having enough proposers and seconders from the electoral college).

Result: As a result, Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the only validly nominated candidate and was declared elected unopposed on July 21, 1977.

Notable Facts about N. Sanjiva Reddy

Youngest President: At the time of his assumption of office, he was the youngest President of India (at age 64), a record later broken by President Droupadi Murmu.

Political Career: Before becoming President, he served as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the first Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh.

The 1969 Election: Interestingly, he had contested the presidential election earlier in 1969 as the official Congress candidate but lost to V.V. Giri, who ran as an independent candidate supported by Indira Gandhi.

Revision Tip:

While Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the interim President by the Constituent Assembly in 1950 without a contest, in the context of formal elections under the Constitution (Article 54), N. Sanjiva Reddy is the unique answer for being "elected unopposed."

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs

Ruth Manorama is an Indian woman activist. Mention her area of work

A Working for Dalit women 91(A)

B Working for HIV infected women

C Working for tribal women

D Working for urban working women

Correct Answer: Option A

Ruth Manorama is one of India’s most prominent advocates for the rights of Dalit women. She has been a vocal leader in highlighting the "triple burden" faced by this community: gender (as women), caste (as Dalits), and class (as the economically impoverished).

Key Contributions of Ruth Manorama

National Federation of Dalit Women (NFDW): She was instrumental in founding the NFDW in 1995, which was one of the first major organized platforms specifically for Dalit women's issues.

International Advocacy: She played a significant role in the Beijing World Conference on Women (1995), ensuring that the specific intersectional struggles of Dalit women were recognized on a global stage.

Awards: In recognition of her lifelong commitment to social justice, she was awarded the Right Livelihood Award (often called the "Alternative Nobel Prize") in 2006.

Core Philosophy

Manorama’s work centers on the idea that Dalit women are the "Dalits among the Dalits." Her activism focuses on:

Securing Land Rights: Advocating for ownership rights for marginalized women.

Ending Violence: Addressing the disproportionate levels of caste-based violence and sexual assault against Dalit women.

Political Participation: Encouraging and training women from marginalized backgrounds to take up roles in local governance (Panchayats).

Fast Facts for Revision:

Hometown: Originally from Chennai, but her work has been heavily centered in Bangalore and at the national level.

Key Concept: Intersectionality (though a global term, she pioneered its practical application in the Indian caste context).

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Which of the following statements is not correct about the Pocket Veto of the President?

A The President can either give his/her assent to a money bill or withhold his assent to a money bill but cannot return it for reconsideration of the Parliament.

B The President neither ratifies or rejects nor returns the bill, but simply keeps the bill pending for an indefinite period.

C Power of the President not to take any action is Pocket Veto.

D In 1986 President Zail Singh exercised it with respect to the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill.

Correct Answer: Option A

Why is Statement A the "Not Correct" one?

While Statement A is a true fact regarding the President's power over Money Bills, it does not describe the Pocket Veto. It describes the President's specific constraints regarding a Money Bill (which is introduced with his prior recommendation).

The question asks for a statement that is not correct about the Pocket Veto. Statements B, C, and D are all accurate descriptions or historical examples of the Pocket Veto itself.

Understanding the Pocket Veto

The Pocket Veto is one of the three types of vetoes enjoyed by the Indian President (Absolute, Suspensive, and Pocket).

Mechanism (Statement B & C): In India, the Constitution does not prescribe a time limit within which the President has to take action on a bill. By simply not signing, not rejecting, and not returning the bill, the President effectively "pockets" it indefinitely.

Historical Example (Statement D): In 1986, President Giani Zail Singh used the Pocket Veto for the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill, which was criticized for infringing on the privacy of communication. By taking no action, he allowed the bill to lapse when the government changed.

Comparison with USA: The Indian "pocket" is deeper than the American one. In the USA, the President must return a bill within 10 days; if they don't, it becomes law. In India, the lack of a timeline allows for a true indefinite delay.

Important Note: The President has no veto power in respect of Constitutional Amendment Bills (24th Amendment Act, 1971 made it obligatory for the President to give assent).

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Which of the following statements are true about Governor of a State

1. The executive power of the state is vested in him

2. He must have attained 35 years of age

3. He holds office during the pleasure of the President

4. The grounds of his removal are laid down in the Constitution

select the correct answer using the codes given below

A 1,2 and 4

B 1,2 and 3

C 1,3 and 4

D all of the above

Correct Answer: Option B

Statement Analysis:

Statement 1 (Correct): According to Article 154, the executive power of the State is vested in the Governor and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him.

Statement 2 (Correct): Article 157 lays down the qualifications for appointment as Governor. He must be a citizen of India and must have completed the age of 35 years.

Statement 3 (Correct): Under Article 156, the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. This means he can be removed by the President at any time without a formal procedure.

Statement 4 (Incorrect): This is a very common "trick" question. Unlike the President (who can be impeached on grounds of "violation of the Constitution"), the Constitution does not lay down any grounds for the removal of a Governor.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Who said "Rights are powers necessary for the fulfilment of man's vocation as a moral being."?

A Beni Prasad

B THGreen

C Laski

D Hobbes

Correct Answer: Option B

Thomas Hill Green was a prominent British Idealist philosopher. His political philosophy emphasized that rights are not merely arbitrary legal permissions, but essential conditions that allow an individual to contribute to the "common good" and realize their potential as a moral agent.

Analysis of the Statement

Green believed that the state exists to "hinder hindrances" to the good life. According to him:

Moral Agency: Man is a moral being with a "vocation" (a calling or purpose) to achieve moral perfection.

Necessity of Rights: Rights are the "powers" or socially recognized claims that provide the environment necessary for a person to act according to their moral conscience.

Social Recognition: For Green, a right is not a right unless it is recognized by society as contributing to the common interest.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Read the following statements around article 243 H of the Indian constitution.

1. Authorise a Panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties, tolls and fees in accordance with such procedure and subject to such limits.

2. Assign to a Panchayat such taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied and collected by the State Government for such purposes, and subject to such conditions and limits.

3. Provide for making such grants-in-aid to the Panchayat from the Consolidated Fund of the Centre.

Which of these statements is/are true?

A Only 1 and 2

B Only 2and 3

C Only 1 and 3

D Only 2

Correct Answer: Option A

Statement Analysis:

Statement 1 (Correct): Article 243H (a) empowers the State Legislature to authorize a Panchayat to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, and fees.

Statement 2 (Correct): Article 243H (b) allows the State Legislature to assign to a Panchayat specific taxes or duties that are actually levied and collected by the State Government.

Statement 3 (Incorrect): This is a common trap. Article 243H (c) provides for grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State, not the Centre. Grants from the Consolidated Fund of India (the Centre) are dealt with under different provisions, like Article 280 (Finance Commission).

Understanding Article 243H (Financial Powers)

Article 243H was inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. It ensures that Panchayats have the financial "teeth" to match their administrative responsibilities. It covers four main areas:

Levying: Giving Panchayats the power to collect their own taxes.

Assignment: The State giving a portion of its own tax revenue to the Panchayat.

Grants-in-aid: Direct financial assistance from the State's budget.

Funds: Constitution of specific funds for crediting all moneys received by the Panchayats.

Key Related Article: 243-I

While 243H lists the powers, Article 243-I is the mechanism that reviews the financial position of the Panchayats. It mandates the Governor to constitute a State Finance Commission every five years to make recommendations on the distribution of taxes between the State and the Panchayats.

Revision Tip:

In the context of the 73rd and 74th Amendments, always watch out for the distinction between "State" and "Union/Centre." Local government is a State Subject, so their primary financial lifeline is the Consolidated Fund of the State.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Tribes And Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition Of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.

1) It does not recognize Individual rights like Rights of Self-cultivation.

2) It recognizes the Community Rights as Grazing and Fishing.

3) It ensures land tenure, livelihood and food security of the forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.

4) It protects the tribal population from eviction without rehabilitation and settlement.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct

A 1 and 2

B 4 only

C 2 only

D 1 only

Correct Answer: Option D

Statement Analysis:

Statement 1 (Incorrect): The Act does recognize individual rights. It provides for the right to hold and live in forest land for habitation or for self-cultivation for livelihood by a member or members of a forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribe or other traditional forest dwellers.

Statement 2 (Correct): The Act recognizes various community rights, including the right of access to biodiversity, community right to intellectual property, and traditional rights like grazing (both settled and transhumant) and fishing in water bodies.

Statement 3 (Correct): One of the fundamental objectives of the Act is to provide land tenure and food security, addressing the "historical injustice" where forest dwellers' rights were not adequately recognized during the colonial period and in post-independence forest laws.

Statement 4 (Correct): The Act provides a legal shield against arbitrary eviction. It stipulates that no member of a forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribe or other traditional forest dweller shall be evicted or removed from forest land under his occupation until the recognition and verification procedure is complete.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Consider the following statements about the Public Interest Litigation (PIL)

1) The concept of PIL originated and developed in the United Kingdom

2) Justice V.R Krishna Iyer and Justice P.N. Bhagwati were the pioneers of the PIL in India.

3) PIL intends to bring justice within the reach of the poor masses.

4) PIL is essentially a co-operative effort on the part of the petitioner to secure observance of the constitutional rights.

5) PIL is considered as absolutely necessary for maintaining the rule of law and meaningful realization of the fundamental rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

A 1,2, 3, 4 and 5

B 2, 3 and 4

C 2, 3, 4 and 5

D 1,3, 4 and 5

Correct Answer: Option C

Statement Analysis:

Statement 1 (Incorrect): The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) originated and developed in the USA in the 1960s, not the United Kingdom. In the US, it was designed to provide legal representation to unrepresented groups like the poor, racial minorities, and environmentalists.

Statement 2 (Correct): In India, PIL was a result of judicial activism. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer and Justice P.N. Bhagwati are celebrated as the pioneers who relaxed the traditional rule of Locus Standi to allow PILs.

Statement 3 (Correct): One of the primary motives of PIL is to make the judicial system accessible to those who are socially or economically disadvantaged.

Statement 4 (Correct): The Supreme Court has stated that PIL is not an adversarial litigation (like a typical private dispute) but a co-operative effort between the petitioner, the State, and the Court to ensure constitutional rights are upheld.

Statement 5 (Correct): PIL is seen as a vital tool for the Rule of Law because it ensures that the executive and legislature remain accountable to the public interest and the Constitution.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity History

Who headed the States Committee (for negotiating with states) under the Constituent Assembly in the making of the Indian Constitution?

A Dr. Rajendra Prasad

B Sardar Patel

C Jawaharlal Nehru

D AVThakkar

Correct Answer: Option C

While many people associate the integration of Princely States with Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (who headed the Provincial Constitution Committee and handled the practical negotiation through the States Department), the specific States Committee of the Constituent Assembly was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru.

Historical Context

The States Committee was tasked with the diplomatic challenge of negotiating with the representatives of the various Princely States to secure their participation in the Constituent Assembly. Jawaharlal Nehru’s leadership in this committee emphasized the vision of a unified, democratic India where the Princely States would eventually merge into a single constitutional framework.

Revision Tip:

If the question asks about the integration of states or the Provincial Constitution, think of Sardar Patel. If it asks about Union committees or the States Committee for negotiations within the Assembly, the answer is Jawaharlal Nehru.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

Consider the following statements about the aims of the India Enterprise Architecture (IndEA).

1) Making all Government services digitally accessible in an integrated manner.

2) Enhance Efficiency Delivery Services by defining and enforcing service levels of a very high order

3) Maintaining the right balance between security of data and privacy of personal information.

Which of the following statement is correct

A Only 1

B 1,2 and 3

C 2 and 3

D 1 and 2.

Correct Answer: Option B

All three statements accurately reflect the core pillars of the India Enterprise Architecture (IndEA). This framework was designed to move away from "siloed" government departments toward a unified, "One Government" digital ecosystem.

Analysis of the Statements:

Integrated Digital Accessibility: IndEA aims to ensure that citizens don't have to navigate different portals for every department. It promotes a Federated Architecture where different government entities work together seamlessly.

Efficiency and Service Levels: A primary goal is to shift from "government-centric" to "citizen-centric" delivery. By enforcing high service levels, it ensures that digital services are not just available, but efficient and reliable.

Security and Privacy: As a digital-first framework, IndEA incorporates "Privacy by Design." It mandates a balance between using data for public service efficiency while maintaining the security and privacy of the individual's personal information.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Optimal conditions for this crop to grow include cool to warm tropical climate, rich soils, and few pests or diseases. Temperature above moderate accelerates fruit ripening which ruins harvest quality. Which crop is being referred to?

A Almonds

B Tea

C Coffee

D Walnuts

Correct Answer: Option C

The conditions described—specifically the sensitivity to temperature and its effect on ripening—are classic characteristics of high-quality coffee production, particularly Arabica coffee.

Why Coffee?

Temperature Sensitivity: Coffee requires a stable, moderate temperature (usually between 15°C and 25°C). If it gets too hot, the fruit (coffee cherries) ripens too quickly. Slow ripening is essential because it allows the beans to develop complex sugars and acidity; rapid ripening "ruins" the quality, leading to a bland or bitter harvest.

Climate: It thrives in tropical climates but at higher altitudes (cool to warm) to avoid the extreme heat of the lowlands.

Soil: It requires rich, well-drained volcanic soils or deep sandy loams.

Key Features of Coffee Cultivation in India

In a competitive exam context, it is helpful to note how India handles these "optimal conditions":

Shade Cultivation: Because "temperature above moderate" ruins the quality, India is one of the few countries that grows almost all its coffee under a two-tier mixed shade canopy. This protects the plants from direct sunlight and keeps the micro-climate cool.

Major Regions: Primarily the "Blue Mountains" of South India, including Karnataka (the largest producer), Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.

Varieties: India produces both Arabica (higher quality, more sensitive) and Robusta (hardier, higher caffeine content).

Comparison with other options:

Almonds & Walnuts: These are temperate crops, not tropical. They require a distinct winter (chilling period) to fruit properly.

Tea: While tea also likes cool tropical climates, it is less about "fruit ripening" quality and more about leaf flushing. Tea is also much more tolerant of heavy rainfall and high humidity than coffee.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

How many centimetres has been added to the revised height of Mount Everest after its re-measurement?

A 86 сentimetres

B 96 centimeters

C 75 centimeters

D 101 centimeters

Correct Answer: Option A

The revised height of Mount Everest was officially announced in December 2020 following a joint re-measurement by Nepal and China. The new elevation was established at 8848.86 metres, adding 86 centimetres to the previously accepted height of 8848 metres (which had been the standard since 1954).

Key Context for the Re-measurement

The 2015 Earthquake: One of the primary reasons for the new survey was the massive 7.8 magnitude earthquake that struck Nepal in 2015. Geologists suspected the tectonic activity might have altered the mountain's height.

Technological Integration: The survey used a combination of traditional surveying methods (leveling) and modern technology, including GNSS (Global Navigation Satellite Systems) and gravimeters to determine the precise "snow height" of the peak.

Geological Significance

The Himalayas are "young fold mountains" formed by the ongoing collision between the Indo-Australian and Eurasian tectonic plates. Because these plates continue to push against each other, the mountain range is geologically active and continues to rise at a rate of approximately 5 millimetres to 1 centimetre per year, though events like earthquakes can cause sudden shifts or subsidence.

Fast Facts for Revision:

Old Height: 8848 metres (established by the Survey of India in 1954).

New Height: 8848.86 metres.

First Measurement: The first person to calculate the height was Radhanath Sikdar in 1852 using trigonometric calculations.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Dolomite deposits have been found in:

A Odisha, Bengal, Bihar, Maharashtra

B Odisha, Bengal, Bihar, Tamil Nadu

C Odisha, Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand

D Odisha, Bengal, Bihar, Chattisgarh

Correct Answer: Option D

Dolomite is a sedimentary carbonate rock that contains a high percentage of the mineral dolomite. In India, it is widely distributed across several states, but the most significant deposits—largely used as flux in the iron and steel industry—are concentrated in the following regions:

Chhattisgarh: One of the leading producers, particularly in the Bilaspur, Durg, and Raigarh districts.

Odisha: Major deposits are found in the Sundargarh, Sambalpur, and Koraput districts.

West Bengal: Primarily located in the Jalpaiguri district (specifically the Janti area).

Bihar: Deposits are found in the Rohtas district.

While Jharkhand and Maharashtra also have dolomite, the grouping in option D represents the most prominent and traditionally recognized belt for these mineral deposits in the context of Indian geography and industrial utility.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs Science and Technology

The UAE has sent a space probe mission to the Mars named

A 'Hope' or 'Al-Amal' in Arabic

B 'Faith' or ‘Al-Amal' in Arabic

C 'Belief’ or ‘Al-Amal’ in Arabic

D 'Prayer' or 'Al-Amal’ in Arabic

Correct Answer: Option A

Key Details of the Mission

The Name: The mission is officially known as the Emirates Mars Mission. The word Al-Amal translates directly from Arabic to English as Hope.

Significance: It was the first interplanetary mission by any Arab nation. It reached the Martian orbit in early 2021, coinciding with the 50th anniversary of the founding of the United Arab Emirates.

Scientific Goal: Unlike many other missions that focus on geology, the Hope probe was designed to study the Martian atmosphere. It provides a complete picture of the Martian weather system throughout the year, studying how energy and particles like hydrogen and oxygen move through the atmosphere.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Consider the following statement

1) When the earth, the moon and the sun are in a straight line, the sun enhances its tides gravitational pull of the moon, creating a condition of higher tides and lower low known as spring tides

2) when the sun and the moon are at right angle to the earth, the sun partially counteracts the pull of the moon, producing lower high tides and higher low tides typical of a neap tide

3) A solar eclipse occurs when the sun passes between the earth and the moon.

4) Lunar eclipse occurs when the earth passes between the sun and the moon.

Which of the given statement above is/are correct

A 1 and 2

B 3 and 4

C 3 only

D 4 only

Correct Answer: Option A

Detailed Explanation

Statement 1 (Correct): This occurs during the Full Moon and New Moon phases (Syzygy). When the Sun, Earth, and Moon align, their collective gravitational pull is maximized. This results in the greatest difference between high and low tide, known as Spring Tides.

Statement 2 (Correct): This occurs during the Quarter Moon phases. Because the Sun and Moon are at right angles relative to Earth, their gravitational forces work against each other. This creates "moderate" tides with the least difference between high and low, known as Neap Tides.

Statement 3 (Incorrect): A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes between the Earth and the Sun, blocking the Sun's light. The Sun never passes "between" the Earth and Moon; if it did, the Earth would be consumed by the Sun's atmosphere.

Statement 4 (Correct): A lunar eclipse happens when the Earth moves between the Sun and the Moon, casting its shadow (the umbra) over the Moon.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Consider the following statements around wet lands.

1. Wet lands can be both aquatic and terrestrial at the same time depending on seasonal variability.

2. Wet lands are first Targets of human interference.

3. The boundaries of wet lands are defined as per their geographical location.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A Only 1 and 3

B Only 1 and 2

C Only 3 and 2

D Only 2

Correct Answer: Option B

Analysis of the Statements

Statement 1 is Correct: Wetlands are often described as ecotones—transitional zones between terrestrial (land) and aquatic (water) ecosystems. Due to seasonal variability, such as monsoons or dry spells, a wetland may appear completely submerged in winter and look like a dry meadow or muddy field in summer. This "pulsing" nature is a defining characteristic.

Statement 2 is Correct: Historically, wetlands have been viewed as "wastelands" or breeding grounds for insects. Consequently, they are often the first targets for land reclamation, urban expansion, and agricultural conversion. Their flat terrain and proximity to water make them highly vulnerable to human drainage and filling.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: The boundaries of wetlands are primarily defined by biological and hydrological indicators, not just geographical location. According to the Ramsar Convention and scientific standards, boundaries are determined by:

The presence of hydrophytes (water-loving plants).

Hydric soils (soils that are saturated long enough to develop anaerobic conditions).

The presence of water (hydrology) at or near the surface for at least part of the year.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Which among the following state has the highest Percentage of canal irrigation used in India?

A Rajasthan

B Punjab

C Jammu & Kashmir

D Uttar Pradesh

Correct Answer: Option C

While Uttar Pradesh has the largest absolute area under canal irrigation due to its size and the vast network of perennial rivers, the question asks for the highest percentage of canal irrigation relative to the total irrigated area within the state/UT.

Regional Breakdown of Canal Irrigation

Jammu & Kashmir: Canals are the primary source of irrigation here, accounting for over 90% of the total irrigated area in the region. This is due to the hilly terrain which makes the construction of wells or tanks difficult, while the abundance of snow-fed perennial rivers facilitates canal gravity-flow.

Punjab: While Punjab has a world-class canal network (the land of five rivers), it relies very heavily on tubewells to meet the intensive demands of the Green Revolution. Therefore, its percentage of canal irrigation is lower than J&K's.

Uttar Pradesh: Leads in net irrigated area by canals, but tubewells remain the dominant source of irrigation for the state overall.

Rajasthan: Famous for the Indira Gandhi Canal, but a vast portion of the state remains dependent on other sources or remains unirrigated.

Key Facts about Canal Irrigation in India

Inundation Canals: These are taken out from rivers without any regulating system (like weirs) and provide water only when the river is in flood.

Perennial Canals: These are linked to dams or barrages to provide water throughout the year.

The Indira Gandhi Canal: One of the largest canal projects in the world, it transformed the ecology and agriculture of the Thar Desert in Rajasthan.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Which one of the following is the example of radial drainage pattern

A Siwaliks

B Vindhya mountains

C Gir hills

D Aravalli mountains

Correct Answer: Option C

A radial drainage pattern occurs when rivers originate from a central high point (such as a mountain peak or a volcanic cone) and flow outward in all directions, like the spokes of a wheel.

Why the Gir Hills?

The Gir Hills in Gujarat serve as a classic example of this pattern in India. Several rivers, such as the Hiran, Shingoda, and Machhundri, originate from the central highland area of the Gir and flow outward towards the coast or the surrounding plains.

Other Notable Examples of Radial Drainage in India:

Amarkantak Plateau: Rivers like the Narmada, Son, and Mahanadi originate from this plateau and flow in different directions.

Mount Abu: Streams flow out in various directions from this isolated highland in the Aravalli range.

Understanding Other Drainage Patterns:

Trellis Pattern: Occurs when the primary tributaries of rivers flow parallel to each other and secondary tributaries join them at right angles (e.g., the Himalayan foothills).

Dendritic Pattern: The most common pattern, where the river channel follows the slope of the terrain and looks like the branching of a tree (e.g., the Indo-Gangetic plains).

Centripetal Pattern: The opposite of radial, where rivers flow from all directions into a central depression or lake (e.g., Loktak Lake in Manipur).

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Consider the following sentences.

1. India is the 2nd largest producer of the fruits and vegetables in the world.

2. Totally 12% of the cropped area is oil seeds.

Which of the above statement/Statements are NOT correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option D

This means both statements are correct.

Analysis of the Statements

Statement 1 is CORRECT: India is indeed the second-largest producer of both fruits and vegetables in the world, trailing only behind China. India leads the world in the production of specific fruits like mangoes, bananas, and papayas.

Statement 2 is CORRECT: Oilseeds occupy a significant portion of India's agricultural landscape. They account for approximately 12% of the total cropped area in the country. The major oilseeds grown in India include groundnut, mustard, soybean, sunflower, and sesamum.

Key Facts about Indian Agriculture

Horticulture: India produces about 10% of the world's fruits and about 15% of the world's vegetables.

Oilseed Regions: Major oilseed-producing states include Madhya Pradesh (often called the "Soya Bowl"), Rajasthan, and Gujarat.

Yellow Revolution: The "Yellow Revolution" was launched in the late 1980s specifically to increase the production of edible oilseeds to achieve self-reliance.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Which of the following about Baiga tribe is true?

1) Baiga means sorcerers.

2) Traditionally they lived semi-nomadic life and practiced slash and burn agriculture.

3) They have in depth knowledge of folk crop production.

4) Tattoo is an integral part of baiga tradition

Choose the correct option given below.

A Only 1, 2 and 4

B Only 2, 3 and 4

C Only 1, 3 and 4

D Only 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: Option A

Analysis of the Statements

Statement 1 is CORRECT: The word "Baiga" literally translates to "sorcerer" or "medicine man." Members of this tribe are traditionally recognized as healers and experts in herbal medicine and spiritual rituals.

Statement 2 is CORRECT: The Baigas historically lived a semi-nomadic lifestyle. They practiced a specific form of slash-and-burn agriculture known as Bewar. They believe that ploughing the Earth is a sin, as it would be like "tearing the breast of Mother Earth," so they prefer shifting cultivation.

Statement 3 is INCORRECT: While the Baigas have profound knowledge of medicinal plants, forest produce, and spiritual healing, they are not traditionally known for "in-depth knowledge of folk crop production." Because they generally avoid intensive settled farming (due to their religious beliefs regarding the soil), their expertise lies in forest ecology rather than traditional crop agriculture.

Statement 4 is CORRECT: Tattooing is an essential part of Baiga culture, especially for women. Every age and body part has a specific tattoo design associated with it, and it is believed that these are the only ornaments a person takes with them to the afterlife.

Key Facts about the Baiga Tribe

Classification: They are recognized as one of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India.

Region: They primarily inhabit the states of Madhya Pradesh (Mandla and Balaghat districts), Chhattisgarh, and Jharkhand.

Language: They speak Baigani, which is influenced by Chhattisgarhi.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Which of the following is true about Kashmir?

1) Vegetation and climate can broadly be categorized into sub-tropical, temperate and alpine zones.

2) More than 50% of the plant species used in British pharmacopoeia are reported to grow in Jammu and Kashmir.

3) The recorded forest area is 20240 Sq. kms.

Choose the correct option given below.

A Only 1

B Only 1 and 2

C Only 3

D Only 1 and 3

Correct Answer: Option B

Analysis of the Statements

Statement 1 is CORRECT: Due to its varying altitude and geographical location, Jammu and Kashmir exhibits a wide range of climatic conditions. The sub-tropical zone is primarily found in the Jammu plains, the temperate zone covers the Kashmir Valley, and the alpine zone exists in the higher reaches of the Himalayas.

Statement 2 is CORRECT: Jammu and Kashmir is often referred to as a "medicinal plant hotspot." A significant percentage of the plant species listed in the British Pharmacopoeia (the official collection of quality standards for UK medicinal substances) are found growing naturally in the diverse ecosystems of J&K.

Statement 3 is INCORRECT: While the recorded forest area is significant, it is slightly higher than the figure provided. According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR), the recorded forest area for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is approximately 20,230 sq. km, but when combined with the forest cover outside recorded areas or considering the total UT geographical area, the figures for "Forest Cover" are closer to 21,387 sq. km. In academic and competitive exams, a specific discrepancy in such figures usually renders the statement incorrect if it doesn't align with the most recent official digest.

Key Facts about J&K Geography

State Tree: Chinar (Platanus orientalis)

State Flower: Lotus (Nelumbo nucifera)

Forest Composition: The forests are dominated by Himalayan moist temperate and dry temperate types, featuring species like Deodar, Blue Pine, and Fir.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

What is ‘Biochar"?

A A form of pesticide

B A chemical based fertiliser

C A form of charcoal produced from heating organic matter

D A form of chemical found in the soil

Correct Answer: Option C

Biochar is a fine-grained, carbon-rich porous substance produced through a process called pyrolysis. It is highly stable and can persist in soils for hundreds or even thousands of years.Key Characteristics and BenefitsProduction: It is created by heating biomass (such as agricultural waste, wood chips, or manure) in a low-oxygen or oxygen-free environment.Carbon Sequestration: Unlike common charcoal, which is used for fuel, biochar is primarily used as a soil amendment. It helps mitigate climate change by "locking" carbon into the soil that would otherwise be released as $CO_2$ during decomposition.Soil Fertility: Its porous structure acts like a sponge, helping the soil retain water and nutrients. It also provides a habitat for beneficial soil microorganisms.Waste Management: It provides a productive way to manage agricultural and forestry waste, preventing it from being burned in the open.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Consider the following sentences.

1. Rubber production begun in the region of Travancore and Malabar.

2. 8% if the world production of rubber is contributed by India.

Which of the above statement/Statements are NOT correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option B

Analysis of the Statements

Statement 1 is CORRECT: Commercial rubber cultivation in India began in the early 20th century, specifically in the Travancore and Malabar regions of present-day Kerala. The first commercial plantation was established at Thattekad in 1902.

Statement 2 is INCORRECT: India's share in world natural rubber production is generally around 2% to 5%. While India is one of the top producers globally (consistently in the top 6), it does not reach the 8% mark, which is dominated by countries like Thailand, Indonesia, and Vietnam.

Key Facts about Rubber in India

Ideal Climate: Rubber is an equatorial crop but can grow in tropical and sub-tropical areas under specific conditions (temperature above 25°C and rainfall above 200 cm).

Leading Producer: Kerala is the largest producer of natural rubber in India, accounting for nearly 75–80% of total domestic production.

Regulatory Body: The Rubber Board, a statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is headquartered in Kottayam, Kerala.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Who authored the book " Poverty and un-British rule"

A R.C Dutt

B Dadbhai Naoroji

C Sumit Sarkar

D R.C. Majumdar

Correct Answer: Option B

Dadabhai Naoroji, often referred to as the "Grand Old Man of India," published this seminal work in 1901. It provided a stinging economic critique of British colonialism and laid the intellectual foundation for the Indian national movement.

Key Contributions of the Book

The "Drain of Wealth" Theory: This was the central theme of the book. Naoroji argued that Britain was systematically draining India's wealth and resources to the United Kingdom, leaving India in a state of chronic poverty and famine.

The "Un-British" Nature: The title was a strategic choice. Naoroji argued that the exploitative and oppressive policies being followed in India were "un-British" because they contradicted the principles of justice and democracy that Britain claimed to uphold at home.

Economic Impact: He calculated that the "drain" occurred through various channels, such as:

Home Charges: Payments made by the Indian government for the Secretary of State's office in London.

Pensions and Salaries: Remittances sent back to Britain by military and civil officers.

Interest on Foreign Debt: Profits and interest earned by British capitalists on investments in India.

Call for Self-Government: Naoroji concluded that the only way to stop this economic exploitation was for India to have a "responsible government" or Swaraj.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Arrange the following rulers in chronological order?

i) RAZIA

ii) ILTUTMISH

iii) BALBAN

iv) QUTB-UD-DIN-AIBAK

A i, ii, iii. iv

B i, iv, iii, ii

C iv, ii, i, iii

D ii, i, iii, iv

Correct Answer: Option C

These rulers all belonged to the Mamluk Dynasty (also known as the Slave Dynasty), which was the first dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate.

Chronological Breakdown

Qutb-ud-din Aibak (1206–1210): The founder of the Mamluk Dynasty. He was a former slave of Muhammad Ghori and began the construction of the Qutub Minar.

Iltutmish (1211–1236): Considered the "real consolidator" of the Delhi Sultanate. He introduced the Iqta system and the silver Tanka and copper Jital coins.

Razia Sultan (1236–1240): The daughter of Iltutmish and the first female sovereign of the Delhi Sultanate. Her reign was brief due to opposition from the Turkish nobles (The Chahalgani).

Ghiyasuddin Balban (1266–1287): A powerful ruler who broke the power of the "Group of Forty" (Chahalgani) and introduced the Persian customs of Sijda (prostration) and Paibos (kissing the monarch's feet).

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Which freedom fighter went to Pondicherry in 1910 to pursue his spiritual goals and remained there until his death, founding a famous Ashram?

A Aurobindo Ghosh

B Ram Krishna Ghosh

C Mamata Ghosh

D Lalitha Ghosh

Correct Answer: Option A

Sri Aurobindo was a revolutionary leader who underwent a deep spiritual transformation while imprisoned in the Alipore Jail. Following his release, he moved to the French colony of Pondicherry (now Puducherry) in 1910 to escape British persecution and dedicate his life to "Internal Yoga."

Key Details

Spiritual Shift: He transitioned from being a "prophet of Indian nationalism" to a philosopher and yogi. He remained in Pondicherry for 40 years until his death in 1950.

The Ashram: In 1926, along with his spiritual collaborator Mirra Alfassa (known as 'The Mother'), he founded the Sri Aurobindo Ashram.

Literary Contributions: While in Pondicherry, he wrote his most profound works, including The Life Divine, Savitri, and The Synthesis of Yoga.

Philosophy: He developed the concept of Integral Yoga, which aims not just at personal liberation but at the spiritual transformation of human life on Earth.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History Art & Culture

Which among the following Vedas has two groups, Shukla and Krishna?

A Yajurveda

B Samaveda

C Rigveda

D Atharvaveda

Correct Answer: Option A

The Yajurveda is uniquely divided into two major parts: the Shukla (White/Pure) and the Krishna (Black/Dark) Yajurveda.

Key Differences

Shukla Yajurveda: This version contains only the Mantras (prayers and incantations) required for sacrifices. It is considered "pure" because the verses are separated from the explanatory prose. It is primarily associated with the Yajnavalkya school.

Krishna Yajurveda: This version is considered "dark" or "mixed" because it includes the Mantras along with the Brahmana (prose explanations and instructions) all mixed together in the same collection.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

'A History of British India' was written in 1817 by:

A GH Forbes

B Abul Kalam Azad

C James Mill

D Sucheta Mahaja

Correct Answer: Option C

James Mill, a Scottish economist and political philosopher, published the monumental three-volume work A History of British India in 1817. This book is considered one of the most influential historical accounts of India from a British perspective.

Key Aspects of the Book

Periodization of Indian History: Mill was the first to divide Indian history into three distinct periods based on the religion of the rulers: Hindu, Muslim, and British. This classification was later criticized by modern historians for being oversimplified and communal in nature.

Civilizational Critique: Mill, who never actually visited India, held a very low opinion of Indian culture and society. He argued that India was "uncivilized" and that British rule was necessary to bring progress and "enlightenment" to the subcontinent.

Utilitarian Influence: The book reflected the Utilitarian philosophy (maximizing utility/happiness for the greatest number), suggesting that good laws and efficient administration were more important than self-governance for Indians.

Standard Text: For decades, this book served as a standard textbook for British administrators training at the East India College (Haileybury) before they were sent to serve in India.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Vetti refers to:

A Tax in the form of cash

B Tax in the form of jewellery

C Tax in the form of food grains

D Tax in the form of forced labour

Correct Answer: Option D

In the context of Indian history, Vetti is a term primarily associated with the Chola dynasty (and later in the Telangana region during the Nizam's rule) to describe a specific type of exploitative tax.

Key Historical Context

The Chola Empire: Inscriptions from the Chola period (9th–13th century) mention more than 400 terms for different types of taxes. The most frequently mentioned is Vetti, which was not paid in cash or kind but through unpaid forced labour for public works or the king's projects.

Kadamai: This was another major tax often mentioned alongside Vetti, but it referred specifically to land revenue (usually paid in kind).

Vetti-Chakiri (Telangana): In later centuries, particularly in the 19th and early 20th century under the Nizams of Hyderabad, the "Vetti" system became a form of feudal exploitation where lower-caste peasants were forced to work for landlords (Dora) and officials without payment. This was a major grievance that led to the Telangana People's Struggle (1946–51).

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

The Vernacular Press Act of 1878, adopted by Lord Lytton was intended to

A Promote newspapers in the vernacular

B Restrain vernacular newspapers

C Promote English newspapers

D Restrain English newspapers

Correct Answer: Option B

The Vernacular Press Act (VPA) of 1878 is one of the most repressive pieces of legislation in British Indian history. It was specifically designed to curtail the freedom of the Indian-language (vernacular) press, which had become increasingly critical of Lord Lytton’s policies.

Key Features of the Act

The "Gagging Act": It was nicknamed the "Gagging Act" because it gave the government extensive powers to censor reports and editorials in vernacular languages.

Discrimination: Crucially, the act did not apply to English-language newspapers, only to those published in Indian languages.

Magisterial Power: District Magistrates could force publishers to enter into a bond promising not to publish anything that might incite "disaffection" against the government. If the bond was violated, the printing press could be confiscated.

No Right to Appeal: The decision of the Magistrate was final, and no appeal could be made in a court of law.

Notable Impact

The Amrita Bazar Patrika, which was a bilingual journal at the time, famously turned into an English-only newspaper overnight to escape the restrictions of the Act.

The Act was eventually repealed by Lord Ripon in 1882, which earned him great popularity among Indians.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Which of the following Chola Kings assumed the title "gangaikodaan"

A Raja Raja Chola I

B Parantaka Chola II

C Rajendra Chola I

D Karikala Chola

Correct Answer: Option C

Rajendra Chola I (reigned 1014–1044 CE) was one of the greatest emperors of the Chola dynasty. He assumed the title "Gangaikonda" (The Victor of the Ganges) after his successful military expedition to North India.

Key Historical Details

The Expedition: His armies marched through Odisha and reached the banks of the Ganga River in Bengal, defeating the Pala king, Mahipala.

The New Capital: To commemorate this victory, he founded a new capital city called Gangaikonda Cholapuram (The City of the Chola who took the Ganges).

The Temple: He built a magnificent Shiva temple at the new capital, which mirrored the Brihadisvara Temple built by his father, Raja Raja Chola I.

Symbolism: He brought water from the Holy Ganga and poured it into a large excavated tank in the new capital, named Cholagangam, symbolizing the Chola's spiritual and political dominance.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

The Muslim League was founded in 1906 at—

A Lahore

B Karachi

C Aligarh

D Dacca

Correct Answer: Option D

The All-India Muslim League was established on December 30, 1906, on the sidelines of the annual All India Muhammadan Educational Conference.

Key Historical Details

Founder & Figures: The meeting was hosted by Nawab Salimullah of Dacca. Other prominent founding members included Hakim Ajmal Khan, Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk, and Nawab Viqar-ul-Mulk.

First President: Sir Aga Khan III was elected as the first honorary president of the League.

Objectives: The primary goals at its inception were to promote loyalty to the British government, protect the political rights and interests of Indian Muslims, and prevent the rise of hostility toward other communities.

Headquarters: While founded in Dacca, its first headquarters was established in Lucknow.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

In which place did the Gadkari uprising of 1844 take place?

A Kolhapur

B Poona

C Ahmad Nagar

D Nashik

Correct Answer: Option A

The Gadkari uprising of 1844 is a significant event in the history of pre-1857 civil rebellions against British rule in India.

Key Details of the Uprising

Who were the Gadkaris? The Gadkaris were a hereditary military class who were employed as garrison staff in the Maratha forts. They were granted tax-free lands in return for their services.

Cause of the Revolt: Following administrative changes in the Kolhapur state, the British administration began dismantling the forts and disbanding the garrisons. The Gadkaris were left unemployed and their land grants were threatened by new revenue policies.

The Event: Outraged by the loss of their livelihood and privileges, the Gadkaris rose in rebellion in 1844. They captured several key forts, including Samangarh and Bhudargarh, and set up an independent administration.

Suppression: The British had to deploy a considerable military force to capture the forts and eventually suppress the rebellion.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Name the commander of the Ahom army who defeated the Mughal Army at the Battle of Saraighat in 1671 on the Bank of the Brahmaputra River.

A Rajaram Singh

B Suhungmung

C Tirol Singh

D Lachit Borphukan

Correct Answer: Option D

Lachit Borphukan is one of the most celebrated military commanders in Indian history, renowned for his leadership and tactical brilliance during the Battle of Saraighat in 1671.

Key Historical Details

The Battle: The Battle of Saraighat was primarily a naval engagement fought on the Brahmaputra River near Guwahati.

The Opponent: The Mughal forces were commanded by Ram Singh I (deputed by Emperor Aurangzeb), who had a numerically superior and better-equipped army.

Tactical Brilliance: Lachit Borphukan recognized that the Ahoms could not defeat the Mughals in an open cavalry battle on land. He cleverly forced the Mughals into a naval battle on the river, where the Ahom forces used the terrain, guerrilla tactics, and their superior maneuverability on water to secure a decisive victory.

Legacy: His heroism is honored to this day. The National Defence Academy (NDA) in India awards the Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal to its best cadet.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

What is name of the material with which the Harappan Seal is made of?

A Copper

B Bronze

C Steatite

D Iron

Correct Answer: Option C

The vast majority of the thousands of seals discovered at Indus Valley Civilization (Harappan) sites were made of Steatite, also known as soapstone. This was a soft silicate mineral that was easy to carve and became hardened after being fired in a kiln.

Key Characteristics of Harappan Seals

Shape and Design: Most seals were square or rectangular. They typically featured a pictographic script (which remains undeciphered) and an animal motif.

Common Motifs: The most famous motifs include the Unicorn (the most common), the Humped Bull, Elephant, Tiger, and the "Pashupati" (proto-Shiva) figure.

Purpose: They were primarily used for commercial purposes to stamp clay tags on bundles of goods. This ensured the authenticity of the sender and checked if the goods had been tampered with during transit.

Other Materials: While steatite was the most common, seals were also occasionally made of agate, chert, copper, faience, and terracotta.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Who designed the famous bazaar of Chandni Chowk for Shah Jahan's new capital, Shahjahanabad (Delhi)?

A Gulbadan Begum

B Roshan Ara

C Jehanara

D Nur Jahan

Correct Answer: Option C

Princess Jahanara Begum, the eldest daughter of Emperor Shah Jahan and Mumtaz Mahal, was the mastermind behind the design of the Chandni Chowk bazaar. It was a central part of the new imperial capital, Shahjahanabad, which was inaugurated in 1648.

Architectural Significance

The Canal (Nahar-i-Bihisht): Jahanara originally designed the market with a moonlit reflecting pool at its center. A canal flowed through the middle of the street, and on moonlit nights, the reflection of the moon in the water gave the market its name—Chandni Chowk (Moonlight Square).

Layout: The market was originally laid out in a square format with a pool at the center, flanked by shops. It served as the principal commercial avenue leading to the Lahori Gate of the Red Fort.

Caravanserai: She also built a famous caravanserai (inn) for wealthy merchants and travelers, known as the Begum ki Sarai, located near the market.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Jai Singh and Jaswant Singh were presented the title -Mirza Raja by which Mughal Emperor?

A Akbar

B Babur

C Aurangzeb

D Bahadhur Shah Zafar I

Correct Answer: Option C

Although the title "Mirza Raja" was used by previous Mughal emperors for various Rajput allies, it was Aurangzeb who specifically conferred the title of Mirza Raja upon Jai Singh I of Amber and Jaswant Singh of Marwar to honor their military service and high standing in the Mughal court.

Key Historical Context

Mirza Raja Jai Singh I: He was a senior general under Aurangzeb. He is most famous in Indian history for leading the Mughal campaign against Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, which led to the Treaty of Purandar in 1665.

Jaswant Singh: He was the ruler of Marwar (Jodhpur). Despite initial friction during the Mughal war of succession (where he originally supported Dara Shikoh), Aurangzeb later pardoned him, restored his rank, and bestowed the title of Mirza Raja upon him.

Significance of the Title: "Mirza" was a high-ranking Persian title usually reserved for royalty or those of extremely high noble birth. Granting it to Rajput rulers was a way to integrate them into the uppermost echelons of the Mughal imperial hierarchy.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Who mobilised the villagers of pargana Barout in Uttar Pradesh to join the 1857 revolt?

A Gonoo

B Shah Mal

C Peshwa Baji Rao

D Nana Sahib

Correct Answer: Option B

Shah Mal was a local leader from a large clan of Jat cultivators in pargana Barout, Uttar Pradesh. During the 1857 Revolt, he became a legendary figure for his ability to organize and mobilize the peasantry against British rule.

Key Contributions

Mobilization: He moved from village to village at night, urging people to rebel. He successfully organized the cultivators of 84 villages (referred to as Chaurasi Des).

Infrastructure Defiance: His followers destroyed strategic government infrastructure, including bridges and telegraph lines, to impede British communications and troop movements.

Support System: He set up a network of intelligence and converted the bungalow of a British officer into a "Hall of Justice," where he settled local disputes and distributed resources to the rebels.

Martyrdom: Shah Mal was eventually killed in battle against the British in July 1857.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

What is India's rank on the Global Hunger Index, 2020?

A 94th rank

B 49th rank

C 54th rank

D 98th rank

Correct Answer: Option A

In the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2020, India was ranked 94th out of 107 qualifying countries. With a score of 27.2, India was categorized in the 'serious' hunger category.

Key Indicators of GHI

The Global Hunger Index is calculated based on four key indicators:

Undernourishment: The share of the population whose caloric intake is insufficient.

Child Wasting: The share of children under the age of five who have low weight for their height (reflecting acute undernutrition).

Child Stunting: The share of children under the age of five who have low height for their age (reflecting chronic undernutrition).

Child Mortality: The mortality rate of children under the age of five.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs

FIFA World Cup (men) 2022 will be held in:

A Qatar

B Japan

C Spain

D England

Correct Answer: Option A

The 2022 FIFA World Cup was a historic event as it was the first time the tournament was hosted in the Arab world and the second time it was held in Asia (after the 2002 edition in South Korea and Japan).

Key Highlights

Winner: Argentina won their third title after defeating France in a dramatic final.

Timeline: It was held from November 20 to December 18, 2022. It was moved to the winter months to avoid Qatar's intense summer heat.

Official Mascot: La’eeb, a character inspired by the ghutra (traditional headdress).

Official Ball: Produced by Adidas, the ball was named Al Rihla (meaning "The Journey").

Stadiums: Matches were played across eight state-of-the-art venues, including the Lusail Iconic Stadium, which hosted the final.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs

Who is the author for the book 'My Life in Full- Work, Family, and our Future?

A Sudha Murty

B Indra Nooyi

C Kiran Mazumdar Shaw

D Parmeshwar Godrej

Correct Answer: Option B

My Life in Full: Work, Family, and Our Future is the memoir of Indra Nooyi, the former Chairperson and CEO of PepsiCo. Published in 2021, the book provides an intimate look at her journey from growing up in a middle-class family in Chennai, India, to leading one of the world's largest companies.

Key Highlights of the Book

The "Performance with Purpose" Strategy: She details how she transformed PepsiCo by focusing on healthier products and environmental sustainability.

The "Care" Ecosystem: A major theme of the book is her call for businesses and governments to support families through better childcare, paid leave, and flexible work structures.

Personal Journey: She discusses the challenges of balancing a high-powered career with family life and the importance of her support system.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Megapode Sanctuary was in the news recently. Where is it located?

A Andaman & Nicobar islands

B Uttar Pradesh

C Uttarakhand

D Rajasthan

Correct Answer: Option A

The Megapode Island Wildlife Sanctuary (also simply referred to as Megapode Sanctuary) is located in the Nicobar district of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It has been in the news due to its role in the conservation of the endemic Nicobar Megapode and ongoing discussions regarding environmental clearances for development projects in the Great Nicobar region.

Key Facts

The Species: The sanctuary is named after the Nicobar Megapode (Megapodius nicobariensis), a unique "mound-building" bird.

Unique Behavior: Unlike most birds, megapodes do not sit on their eggs to incubate them. Instead, they build large mounds of soil and decomposing organic matter; the heat generated by the decomposition hatches the eggs.

Conservation Status: The bird is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List and is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Recent News: The sanctuary and its surrounding habitats have gained attention due to the Great Nicobar Island Development Project, which involves an international trans-shipment terminal and other infrastructure that environmentalists fear could impact the nesting grounds of this shy species.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Which country has passed the 'Holocaust property bill'?

A Denmark

B Germany

C Poland

D Slovenia

Correct Answer: Option C

In 2021, Poland passed a controversial amendment to its Administrative Procedure Code, which is widely referred to as the 'Holocaust property bill'.

Key Details

The Legislation: The law introduced a 30-year statute of limitations on challenging administrative decisions related to property seizures.

The Impact: Since most property in Poland was confiscated during World War II or the subsequent Communist era, this law effectively made it impossible for Holocaust survivors or their descendants to recover stolen property or seek compensation.

Global Reaction: The bill caused a significant diplomatic rift between Poland and Israel, with the Israeli government calling the law "immoral" and "antisemitic," while the Polish government defended it as a move to provide legal certainty and prevent fraudulent claims.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

'Symala Gopinath Committee, relates to

A Nationalised Banks

B Nidhi Companies

C Small Finance Banks

D Cooperative Banks

Correct Answer: Option C

The Shyamala Gopinath Committee is primarily associated with Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in the context of recent examination trends.

While Shyamala Gopinath (former Deputy Governor of the RBI) has chaired several committees, the one most frequently cited in recent years relates to the licensing and evaluation of new banks.

1. Primary Association: Small Finance Banks

In 2021, the RBI set up a Standing External Advisory Committee (SEAC) under the chairmanship of Shyamala Gopinath.

Purpose: To evaluate applications for Universal Banks and Small Finance Banks (SFBs).

Mechanism: It acts as a screening body that reviews applications to ensure the applicants are "fit and proper" before the RBI grants a license "on-tap" (available year-round).

2. Other Notable Associations

If you are looking at older or broader economic questions, her name is also linked to:

Small Savings Schemes (2011): This committee recommended that interest rates on small savings (like PPF, NSC, and Post Office deposits) should be market-linked (aligned with Government Securities/G-Sec yields) rather than being fixed by the government arbitrarily.

Financial Holding Companies (2011): Recommended a roadmap for a "holding company" structure for Indian banks to better manage financial conglomerates.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

Which one of the following does not come under the Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban)?

A Rejuvenation of water bodies as well as 20% of supply of reused water.

B Creation of green spaces

C 2.64 crore sewer connections in the 500 cities

D Free water supply to all households

Correct Answer: Option D

The Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban), launched in 2021, aims for universal coverage of water supply to all households through functional taps in all statutory towns. However, it does not mandate or include a provision for "free" water supply; rather, it focuses on infrastructure, sustainability, and service delivery.

Key Components of Jal Jeevan Mission (Urban)

Universal Water Supply: Providing 2.68 crore tap connections to achieve 100% coverage in all 4,378 statutory towns.

Sewerage Management: Providing 2.64 crore sewer connections or septage management in 500 AMRUT cities (Option C).

Circular Economy of Water: Focuses on the rejuvenation of water bodies and mandates that at least 20% of the water demand be met through reused/recycled water (Option A).

Green Initiatives: Includes the creation of green spaces and parks to reduce the "heat island" effect and improve groundwater recharge (Option B).

Funding: Encouraging private-public partnerships (PPP) and a "Pey Jal Survekshan" (water survey) to promote healthy competition among cities.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

The Indian Metrological Department has a Regional Metrological Centre in which of the following places?

i) Chennai and Guwahati ii) Kolkata and Nagpur

iii) Ranchi and Indore iv) Bengaluru and Lucknow

A (iii) and (iv) are correct

B (ii) and (iv) are correct

C (i) and (iii) are correct

D (i) and (ii) are correct

Correct Answer: Option D

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) is organized into six Regional Meteorological Centres (RMCs) for administrative and technical efficiency. These are located in:

Chennai (South)

Guwahati (Northeast)

Kolkata (East)

Mumbai (West)

Nagpur (Central)

New Delhi (North)

Looking at the options provided in the question:

(i) Chennai and Guwahati are both RMCs.

(ii) Kolkata and Nagpur are both RMCs.

(iii) Ranchi and Indore are not RMCs (they fall under the jurisdiction of Kolkata and Nagpur respectively).

(iv) Bengaluru and Lucknow are Meteorological Centres (MCs) usually located in state capitals, but they are not the primary Regional hubs.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) International Relations

Who has coined the term 'BRICS', an association of five emerging national economies?

A Ester Doflo

B Amartya Sen

C Jim O'Neil

D Joseph E. Stiglitz

Correct Answer: Option C

The term was coined by Jim O'Neill, a British economist who was then the Chairman of Goldman Sachs Asset Management. He originally introduced the acronym as "BRIC" in a 2001 paper titled "Building Better Global Economic BRICs." At the time, he used the term to identify the four fast-growing economies—Brazil, Russia, India, and China—that he predicted would collectively dominate the global economy by 2050. South Africa was officially invited to join the group in 2010, at which point the acronym became "BRICS."

Key Milestones

2001: Term "BRIC" coined by Jim O'Neill.

2006: First formal meeting of BRIC Foreign Ministers (on the sidelines of the UN General Assembly).

2009: First formal Summit held in Yekaterinburg, Russia.

2010: South Africa joins, expanding the group to BRICS.

2024: The group underwent a major expansion, inviting countries including Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates to join.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Governance

What is the SACRED portal by the Government of India for?

A To legitimize religious workers5 job status

B To promote tourism based on religious activities

C To provide jobs to senior citizens

D To encourage students towards social work

Correct Answer: Option C

The SACRED portal stands for Senior Able Citizens for Re-Employment in Dignity. It was launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment on October 1, 2021 (International Day of Older Persons).The portal serves as an IT-based "employment exchange" platform that connects experienced senior citizens (aged 60 and above) with private enterprises and job providers looking for stable, experienced professionals for various roles.

Key Features of SACRED Target Group: Senior citizens who are physically fit and willing to contribute their expertise after retirement. Mechanism: It allows individuals to register their skills and education, while employers (including corporates, NGOs, and educational institutions) can post specific requirements. Funding: The government provided ₹10 crore for the platform's development and annual maintenance grants .Broader Vision: It is part of the Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana (AVYAY), which focuses on the holistic welfare of the elderly.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

What is the theme of World Brain Day 2021 ?

A Stop Alzheimer's

B Stop Parkinson's

C Stop Multiple Sclerosis

D Stop Aphasia

Correct Answer: Option C

World Brain Day is observed annually on July 22 by the World Federation of Neurology (WFN). In 2021, the campaign was dedicated specifically to raising awareness, improving diagnosis, and advocating for better treatments for Multiple Sclerosis (MS), a chronic disease that affects the central nervous system.

Key Information

Date: July 22 (Commemorating the founding of the WFN in 1957).

2021 Goal: The "Stop Multiple Sclerosis" theme aimed to highlight that MS is a manageable disease and that early access to specialized care can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected.

Subsequent Themes: For context, the 2022 theme was "Brain Health for All," and the 2023 theme was "Brain Health and Disability."

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) International Relations

How many Indian students will be sponsored each year under the Quad fellowship to pursue masters and doctoral degrees at leading STEM graduate universities in the United States?

A 100

B 200

C 50

D 25

Correct Answer: Option D

The Quad Fellowship is a first-of-its-kind scholarship program launched by the leaders of the Quad nations—Australia, India, Japan, and the United States. It sponsors 100 students in total each year to pursue Master's and Doctoral degrees in STEM fields at leading universities in the United States. These 100 slots are divided equally among the four member nations, resulting in 25 students from India being selected annually.

Key Details of the Fellowship Target Audience: Exceptional Master's and PhD students in Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM).Financial Award: Each fellow originally received a one-time award of $50,000 (now updated to $40,000 in recent cohorts) for tuition, research, and academic expenses, with additional need-based funding available. Goal: To build a network of science and technology experts committed to advancing innovation and collaboration across the Quad countries.

Expansion: In 2024, the program was expanded to include students from the ASEAN countries (Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam).

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Under the bench of which of the following judges, the Supreme Court of India upheld Media's freedom to report Court hearings in the case of Election Commission of India Vs MR Vijaya Bhaskar?

A Justices D.Y Chandrachud, K.M. Joseph

B Justices UU Lalit and Vineet Saran

C Justices AM Khanwilkar, Indu Malhotra

D Justices D.Y Chandrachud, M.R Shah'

Correct Answer: Option D

In the case of Election Commission of India v. M.R. Vijaya Bhaskar (2021), the Supreme Court emphasized that freedom of speech and expression extends to reporting judicial proceedings. The court ruled that the media's right to report what happens during a hearing—including oral observations made by judges—is a vital part of the "open court" principle and helps maintain public confidence in the judiciary.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Under the bench of which of the following judges, the Supreme Court of India upheld Media's freedom to report Court hearings in the case of Election Commission of India Vs MR Vijaya Bhaskar?

A Justices D.Y Chandrachud, K.M. Joseph

B Justices UU Lalit and Vineet Saran

C Justices AM Khanwilkar, Indu Malhotra

D Justices D.Y Chandrachud, M.R Shah'

Correct Answer: Option D

In the case of Election Commission of India v. M.R. Vijaya Bhaskar (2021), the Supreme Court emphasized that freedom of speech and expression extends to reporting judicial proceedings. The court ruled that the media's right to report what happens during a hearing—including oral observations made by judges—is a vital part of the "open court" principle and helps maintain public confidence in the judiciary.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Under the bench of which of the following judges, the Supreme Court of India upheld Media's freedom to report Court hearings in the case of Election Commission of India Vs MR Vijaya Bhaskar?

A Justices D.Y Chandrachud, K.M. Joseph

B Justices UU Lalit and Vineet Saran

C Justices AM Khanwilkar, Indu Malhotra

D Justices D.Y Chandrachud, M.R Shah'

Correct Answer: Option D

In the case of Election Commission of India v. M.R. Vijaya Bhaskar (2021), the Supreme Court emphasized that freedom of speech and expression extends to reporting judicial proceedings. The court ruled that the media's right to report what happens during a hearing—including oral observations made by judges—is a vital part of the "open court" principle and helps maintain public confidence in the judiciary.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Under the bench of which of the following judges, the Supreme Court of India upheld Media's freedom to report Court hearings in the case of Election Commission of India Vs MR Vijaya Bhaskar?

A Justices D.Y Chandrachud, K.M. Joseph

B Justices UU Lalit and Vineet Saran

C Justices AM Khanwilkar, Indu Malhotra

D Justices D.Y Chandrachud, M.R Shah'

Correct Answer: Option D

In the case of Election Commission of India v. M.R. Vijaya Bhaskar (2021), the Supreme Court emphasized that freedom of speech and expression extends to reporting judicial proceedings. The court ruled that the media's right to report what happens during a hearing—including oral observations made by judges—is a vital part of the "open court" principle and helps maintain public confidence in the judiciary.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Under the bench of which of the following judges, the Supreme Court of India upheld Media's freedom to report Court hearings in the case of Election Commission of India Vs MR Vijaya Bhaskar?

A Justices D.Y Chandrachud, K.M. Joseph

B Justices UU Lalit and Vineet Saran

C Justices AM Khanwilkar, Indu Malhotra

D Justices D.Y Chandrachud, M.R Shah'

Correct Answer: Option D

In the case of Election Commission of India v. M.R. Vijaya Bhaskar (2021), the Supreme Court emphasized that freedom of speech and expression extends to reporting judicial proceedings. The court ruled that the media's right to report what happens during a hearing—including oral observations made by judges—is a vital part of the "open court" principle and helps maintain public confidence in the judiciary.

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

According to the UNICEF First Child-focused Climate Risk Index- the Children's Climate Risk Index (CCRI), which of the following countries is at the lowest rank in South Asia.

A India

B Afghanistan

C Sri Lanka

D Pakistan

Correct Answer: Option C

According to the UNICEF report titled "The Climate Crisis Is a Child Rights Crisis: Introducing the Children’s Climate Risk Index (CCRI)", the country at the lowest rank in South Asia (meaning it has the lowest risk compared to its neighbors) is Bhutan.

However, looking at the specific options provided in your question:

Pakistan: Ranked 14th (Extremely High Risk)

Afghanistan: Ranked 25th (Extremely High Risk)

India: Ranked 26th (Extremely High Risk)

Sri Lanka: Ranked 61st (High-Medium Risk)

2021 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs Polity

When did the Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister approved the adoption of Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act

A 21 October, 2019

B 21 August, 2020

C 5 August, 2020

D 21 October, 2020

Correct Answer: Option D

On this date, the Union Cabinet approved the adoption of the Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj Act, 1989. This was a significant move as it paved the way for the establishment of all three tiers of grassroots-level democracy (Gram Panchayat, Block Development Council, and District Development Council) in the Union Territory for the first time.

JKPSC JKAS Prelims 2021 Previous Year Questions

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