In India, most states have a unicameral legislature (only the Legislative Assembly), but currently, six states have a bicameral legislature, meaning they have both a Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and a Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad).
The 6 States with Bicameral Legislatures
To remember them easily, you can use the mnemonic KUMBAT:
Karnataka
Uttar Pradesh
Maharashtra
Bihar
Andhra Pradesh
Telangana
Why the other options are incorrect:
Option A: West Bengal currently has a unicameral legislature (it abolished its Council in 1969).
Option B: Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu are unicameral. (While the Constitution provides for a Council in MP, it has never been officially established).
Option D: Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh do not have Legislative Councils.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Consider the following statements:
1. Article 329 pertains to restrictions on court intervention in electoral matters.
2. Article 329A was removed by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
Choose the correct answer:
AOnly statement 1 is correct
BOnly statement 2 is correct
CBoth statements 1 and 2 are correct
DBoth statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
Correct Answer: Option C
Statement 1: Article 329
Article 329 of the Indian Constitution places a bar on interference by courts in electoral matters. It specifies that:
The validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats cannot be called into question in any court.
No election to either House of Parliament or the State Legislature shall be called into question except by an election petition presented to such authority and in such manner as provided for by law.
Statement 2: Article 329A
Article 329A was a controversial addition introduced by the 39th Amendment Act in 1975 (during the Emergency).
It sought to keep the election of the Prime Minister and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha outside the jurisdiction of the courts.
However, following the "Basic Structure" doctrine and the end of the Emergency, the 44th Amendment Act (1978) omitted Article 329A to restore the power of judicial review and ensure that no person is above the law regarding electoral challenges.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional Amendment:
i. A Constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either house of Parliament.
ii. This power is considered Parliament's Constituent Power rather than its legislative power.
iii. Constitutional amendments are not subject to judicial review.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Ai only
Bii only
Ci and ii only
Di, ii, and iii
Correct Answer: Option C
Analysis of the Statements
Statement i is Correct: A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be initiated in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. It does not require the prior permission of the President (unlike a Money Bill).
Statement ii is Correct: When Parliament amends the Constitution, it exercises its Constituent Power, which is distinct from its ordinary legislative power used to pass regular laws. Statement iii is Incorrect: This is a common misconception! While the 42nd Amendment tried to bar judicial review of amendments, the Supreme Court ruled in the Minerva Mills case (1980) that judicial review is part of the "Basic Structure" of the Constitution. Therefore, any amendment that violates the Basic Structure can be struck down by the courts.Key Facts about Article 368FeatureDescriptionIntroductionEither House; by a Minister or a Private Member.Majority RequiredSpecial Majority (Majority of total membership + 2/3rd of members present and voting).Joint SittingNo provision for a joint sitting if there is a deadlock.President's AssentThe President must give assent to the bill (24th Amendment Act, 1971).
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Which of the following Fundamental Rights are also available to non-citizens?
i. Equality before law
ii. Freedom of expression
iii. Freedom to manage religious affairs
iv. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
Choose the correct answer:
Ai, ii, iii
Bii, iii, iv
Ci, ii, iv
Di, iii, iv
Correct Answer: Option D
In the Indian Constitution, some Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens to ensure the integrity of the state, while others are "universal" and apply to any person on Indian soil (except for "enemy aliens").Comparison: Citizens vs. Non-CitizensThe easiest way to remember this is to memorize the rights available ONLY to citizens: Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30. Everything else is generally available to both.RightArticleAvailable to Non-Citizens?i. Equality before lawArt. 14Yesii. Freedom of speech & expressionArt. 19No (Citizens only)iii. Freedom to manage religious affairsArt. 26Yesiv. Protection against arrest/detentionArt. 22YesQuick Summary of Rights for BothIf you are a non-citizen in India, you are still protected by:Article 14: Equality before law and equal protection of laws.Article 20: Protection in respect of conviction for offences.Article 21: Protection of life and personal liberty.Article 21A: Right to elementary education.Article 22: Protection against arrest and detention.Articles 23-24: Prohibition of forced labor and child labor.Articles 25-28: Freedom of religion.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Which of the following words are mentioned in Article 51-A (g) of the Indian Constitution?
i. Rivers
ii. Forests
iii. Animals
iv. Lakes
Select the correct answer:
Ai and ii only
Bi, ii, and iii only
Ci, ii, and iv only
Di, iii, and iv only
Correct Answer: Option C
Article 51-A (g) is part of the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens. It states that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India:
"...to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures;"
Breaking Down Your List:
Rivers: Mentioned.
Forests: Mentioned.
Animals: Not mentioned by this specific word (the text uses "wild life" and "living creatures").
Lakes: Mentioned.
If we go strictly by the words appearing in the list of specific ecosystems, the answer would be i, ii, and iv.
Why the options are tricky:
Choice C (i, ii, and iv only) is the most technically accurate based on the specific nouns used in that clause.
However, if your source considers "wild life" and "animals" interchangeable, they might be looking for all four. But in legal competitive exams, C is usually the expected answer because "wild life" is the constitutional term, not "animals."
Note: Article 51-A was added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976, following the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
What is the correct sequence of the words mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
ASecular, Justice, Liberty, Unity and Integrity of Nation
BJustice, Secular, Liberty, Unity and Integrity of Nation
CLiberty, Justice, Secular, Unity and Integrity of Nation
DSecular, Liberty, Justice, Unity and Integrity of Nation
Correct Answer: Option B
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
The easternmost longitude of India is:
A94°23′ E
B97°25′ E
C84°25′ E
D87°26′ E
Correct Answer: Option B
To help you visualize India's geographical extent, here are the four extreme coordinates:
Easternmost Point: 97°25′ E (Located at Kibithu in Anjaw district, Arunachal Pradesh).
Westernmost Point: 68°7′ E (Located at Ghuar Mota in the Kutch district, Gujarat).
Northernmost Point: 37°6′ N (Located near Indira Col in Ladakh/Siachen Glacier).
Southernmost Point (Mainland): 8°4′ N (Located at Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu).
Why this matters
India lies entirely in the Northern and Eastern Hemispheres. Because India is quite wide, there is a longitudinal difference of nearly 30 degrees between the east and the west.
This vast distance results in a time lag of about two hours between Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat. To keep things simple for the whole country, we use the 82°30′ E longitude (passing through Mirzapur, UP) as the Standard Meridian to set our clocks.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Consider the following statements regarding tectonic plates:
i. Tectonic plates include the crust and the uppermost mantle of the solid earth.
ii. Tectonic plates are rigid, solid layers about 100 km thick.
iii. Tectonic plates include the crust and the entire mantle.
iv. Tectonic plates are confined to continental land masses only.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Ai and ii
Bii only
Ciii and iv only
Div only
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of the Statements:
i. Correct: Tectonic plates are composed of the lithosphere, which includes the crust (both continental and oceanic) and the uppermost portion of the mantle that behaves as a rigid solid.
ii. Correct: On average, the lithosphere (tectonic plates) is about 100 km thick, though this varies (it is thinner under oceans and much thicker under high mountain ranges). They are rigid and "float" on the semi-plastic asthenosphere below.
iii. Incorrect: Tectonic plates do not include the entire mantle. The mantle is nearly 2,900 km deep; the plates only consist of the very top layer. Below them lies the asthenosphere and the lower mantle.
iv. Incorrect: Tectonic plates are not confined to land. There are oceanic plates (like the Pacific Plate) and continental plates (like the Eurasian Plate). Most plates actually contain both continental and oceanic crust.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Karewa formations are found in :
ATarai region
BGanga delta
CKashmir valley
DRann of Kutch
Correct Answer: Option C
What are Karewa Formations?
Karewas are lacustrine (lake-deposited) sediments found in the Valley of Kashmir and the Bhaderwah Valley of the Jammu Division.
Formation: They were formed during the Pleistocene period (about 2.6 million years ago) when the entire Kashmir valley was under water, forming a massive lake known as Lake Karewa. Due to tectonic upliftment, the lake drained out, leaving behind these flat-topped terrace-like features consisting of clay, sand, and silt.
Economic Importance: These formations are world-famous for the cultivation of Saffron (Zafran), specifically the high-quality Lachha and Mungra varieties. They are also ideal for growing almonds, walnuts, and apples.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Arrange the following countries in increasing order of rubber production:
A) Philippines
B) Indonesia
C) Vietnam
D) Cameroon
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Aiv, i, iii, ii
Bi, ii, iii, iv
Ciii, i, iv, ii
Dii, i, iv, iii
Correct Answer: Option A
To arrange these in increasing order (from the lowest producer to the highest), we look at the global production statistics for Natural Rubber (NR).
The Sequence:
Cameroon (iv): While a significant producer in Africa, its output is much lower than the major Asian hubs.
Philippines (i): A steady producer in Southeast Asia, but operates at a smaller scale compared to the global giants.
Vietnam (iii): Vietnam has seen rapid growth and is currently one of the top 3 or 4 producers in the world.
Indonesia (ii): Consistently the second-largest producer of natural rubber globally, following Thailand.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Consider the following pairs:
1. Deception Island – Australia
2. Kilauea Volcano – United States of America
3. Shiveluch Volcano – Norway
4. Ibu Volcano – Indonesia
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
AOnly 2 and 4
BOnly 1 and 3
COnly 1 and 2
DOnly 3 and 4
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of the Pairs:
Deception Island – Australia (Incorrect): Deception Island is actually located in the South Shetland Islands, Antarctica. It is a unique caldera of an active volcano.
Kilauea Volcano – United States of America (Correct): Kilauea is one of the most active volcanoes in the world, located on the Big Island of Hawaii, which is a U.S. state.
Shiveluch Volcano – Norway (Incorrect): Shiveluch is one of the largest and most active volcanoes in the Kamchatka Peninsula, Russia, not Norway.
Ibu Volcano – Indonesia (Correct): Mount Ibu is an active stratovolcano located on the northwest coast of Halmahera Island, Indonesia.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Which of the following states of India share an international border with Myanmar?
i. Tripura
ii. Mizoram
iii. Manipur
iv. Nagaland
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Ai, ii and iii only
Bii, iii and iv only
Ciii and iv only
DAll the states
Correct Answer: Option B
Analysis of the Border
India shares a 1,643 km long border with Myanmar. Four Northeast Indian states share this boundary:
Arunachal Pradesh: Shares the longest border with Myanmar to the north.
Nagaland (iv): Located south of Arunachal Pradesh along the border.
Manipur (iii): Located south of Nagaland.
Mizoram (ii): The southernmost state sharing a border with Myanmar.
Why Tripura is not included:
Tripura (i) is almost entirely surrounded by Bangladesh on three sides (North, South, and West). To its East, it shares a state border with Mizoram and Assam, but it does not touch Myanmar.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Arrange the following states in descending order of literacy rate as per Census 2011:
i. Maharashtra
ii. Tamil Nadu
iii. Mizoram
iv. Sikkim
v. Tripura
The correct sequence is:
Ai, ii, iii, iv, v
Biii, v, i, iv, ii
Cii, iv, iii, i, v
Dii, iv, i, iii, v
Correct Answer: Option B
According to the Census 2011 data, the literacy rates for the states mentioned are as follows:
Mizoram (iii): 91.33%
Tripura (v): 87.22%
Maharashtra (i): 82.34%
Sikkim (iv): 81.42%
Tamil Nadu (ii): 80.09%
Analysis of the Data
To solve this, it helps to remember that after Kerala (which holds the top spot at 94%), Mizoram is the second most literate state in India. Tripura also ranks very high in the North-East, significantly higher than the industrial hubs of Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu.
Subject of the Question
The subject of this question is Demography (a branch of Human Geography) and Social Statistics.
In the Indian educational system, this specifically falls under:
Indian Geography: The chapter on "Population" or "Human Resources."
Economic & Social Development: Used to measure the Human Development Index (HDI) of different regions.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Consider the following statements regarding silk production in India:
A) Almost all popular commercial varieties of silk are produced in India.
B) Karnataka is the leading silk-producing state of India.
C) Tamil Nadu is the leading silk-producing state of India.
D) The Indian silk industry faces tough competition from Italy and Japan.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Ai and ii
Bii and iii
Cii, iii and iv
Di, ii and iv
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of the Statements:
A) Correct: India is unique in being the only country that produces all five major commercial varieties of silk: Mulberry, Tropical Tasar, Oak Tasar, Eri, and Muga.
B) Correct: Karnataka is consistently the leading producer of silk in India, particularly Mulberry silk, accounting for a significant chunk of the national output.
C) Incorrect: While Tamil Nadu is a major player (famous for Kanchipuram silk), it is not the leading producer; that title belongs to Karnataka.
D) Incorrect: The Indian silk industry's primary global competitor is China, not Italy or Japan. China is the world's largest producer, while India holds the second spot.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Consider the following Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs):
i. Jarawa
ii. Sentinelese
iii. Onge
iv. Shompens
v. Chenchu
vi. Great Andamanese
How many of the above mentioned PVTGs belong to Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
AOnly three
BOnly one
COnly five
DOnly four
Correct Answer: Option C
PVTGs of Andaman and Nicobar Islands
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are home to five distinct Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups. These groups are often categorized by their geographic location within the archipelago:
Great Andamanese: Historically the largest group; they primarily reside on Strait Island.
Jarawa: Reside on the western coasts of South and Middle Andaman Islands.
Onge: Primarily located on Little Andaman Island.
Sentinelese: Known for being one of the most isolated tribes in the world, residing on North Sentinel Island.
Shompens: The only PVTG of the Nicobar group of islands (the others are Andamanese); they live in the interior of Great Nicobar.
The Exception
Chenchu: This tribe belongs to the mainland, primarily residing in the state of Andhra Pradesh, as well as parts of Telangana, Karnataka, and Odisha.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Modern India
Arrange the following events during the freedom struggle chronologically from earlier to later:
i. The Wavell Plan
ii. The Rajagopalachari Formula
iii. The August Offer
iv. The Cabinet Mission
Choose the correct answer:
Aiii, iv, ii, i
Biii, i, ii, iv
Ciii, ii, iv, i
Diii, ii, i, iv
Correct Answer: Option D
1. The August Offer (August 1940)
Issued by Viceroy Lord Linlithgow during World War II, this was an attempt to secure Indian cooperation in the war effort. It promised the expansion of the Governor-General's Executive Council and the establishment of a body to frame a new constitution after the war, but it stopped short of promising full independence.
2. The Rajagopalachari (C.R.) Formula (March 1944)
Proposed by C. Rajagopalachari, this was a political design intended to bridge the gap between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League. It suggested that the League should support the demand for independence and cooperate with Congress in forming a provisional government, while a plebiscite would eventually decide the issue of a separate state (Pakistan) in Muslim-majority areas.
3. The Wavell Plan / Shimla Conference (June 1945)
Proposed by Viceroy Lord Wavell, this plan aimed to reconstruct the Executive Council so that all members except the Viceroy and the Commander-in-Chief would be Indians. It ultimately failed during the Shimla Conference because the Congress and the Muslim League could not agree on the method of nominating Muslim members.
4. The Cabinet Mission (March 1946)
Sent by the British Attlee government, this mission aimed to discuss the transfer of power. It proposed a three-tier administrative structure for a united India with a weak center and strong provinces. While it initially gained some traction, disagreements over its interpretation eventually led to its collapse and the subsequent partition of India.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Modern India
Consider the following statements with reference to The Lucknow Pact:
1. It offered a joint League-Congress scheme for constitutional reforms.
2. It demanded representative Government and dominion status for India.
3. However, it didn't accept the principle of separate electorate and proportional representation in both imperial and provincial legislatures.
4. The Lucknow Pact was seen as a beacon of hope to Hindu-Muslim unity.
How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?
AOnly one
BOnly two
COnly three
DAll the four
Correct Answer: Option C
Key Features of the Lucknow Pact (1916)
The Lucknow session was unique for two reasons:
Reunion of Congress: The "Moderates" and the "Extremists" (led by Tilak and Annie Besant) reunited after their split at Surat in 1907.
Alliance with the League: The Congress and the Muslim League signed the pact to pressure the British for reforms.
What did they agree on?
Proportion of Seats: In the Imperial Legislative Council, one-third of Indian members were to be Muslims, elected through separate electorates.
Veto Power: No bill affecting a particular community would be passed if three-fourths of the members of that community opposed it.
Historical Criticism
While the Lucknow Pact brought temporary unity, many historians argue it sowed the seeds of Communalism and eventually the Partition. By accepting separate electorates, the Congress recognized Muslims as a separate political entity, which later bolstered the "Two-Nation Theory."
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Modern India
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the Non-Cooperation Movement?
1. The Congress in its annual session held in December 1920 at Allahabad adopted Gandhiji's plan for non-cooperation movement against the government.
2. The Congress gave the call for surrender of titles and honours.
3. An appeal was also made to use swadeshi cloth.
Choose the correct answer:
AOnly 1 is correct
BOnly 1 and 2 are correct
COnly 2 & 3 are correct
D1, 2 and 3 are correct
Correct Answer: Option C
The "Nagpur Session" Correction
The December 1920 Nagpur Session was a landmark in Indian history because:
The Congress goal changed from seeking "Self-Government through constitutional means" to seeking "Swaraj through peaceful and legitimate means."
The organizational structure of Congress was revamped (creation of Provincial Congress Committees on a linguistic basis) to make it a mass-based party.
Key Features of the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–1922)
The movement was the first truly mass-scale struggle against British rule, launched in response to the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, the Rowlatt Act, and the Khilafat Issue.
The Three-Tier Boycott Program:
Educational: Boycott of government-run schools and colleges (leading to the birth of National Universities like Kashi Vidyapeeth and Jamia Millia Islamia).
Legal: Boycott of law courts by lawyers (including leaders like Motilal Nehru, C.R. Das, and Sardar Patel).
Political: Boycott of the upcoming elections under the Government of India Act 1919.
End of the Movement
The movement was abruptly called off by Mahatma Gandhi in February 1922 following the Chauri Chaura incident, where a peaceful procession turned violent and burned a police station, killing 22 policemen. Gandhi felt the country was not yet ready for a non-violent struggle.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Medieval India
"The princes of the Bahmani maintained their superiority by valour only; for in power, wealth and extent of the country, the Rayas of Bijarnagar (Vijayanagar) greatly exceeded them".
Who among the following made this statement?
ANicolo Conti
BFerishta
CAbdur Razzaq
DNuniz
Correct Answer: Option B
About the Author: FerishtaMuhammad Qasim Hindu Shah, popularly known as Ferishta, was a 16th/17th-century Persian historian who served at the courts of the Deccan Sultanates (specifically Bijapur).Famous Work: He wrote the Tarikh-i-Firishta (also known as Gulshan-i-Ibrahimi), which is one of the most comprehensive sources for the history of the rise of Muslim power in India and the Deccan kingdoms.Context of the Quote: Ferishta, despite being a court historian for a successor state of the Bahmanis, was often surprisingly candid about the immense wealth and military might of the "Rayas" (Kings) of Vijayanagar. Overview of the Conflict The history of these two empires is defined by their competition over the fertile Raichur Doab (the land between the Krishna and Tungabhadra rivers).Feature Vijayanagar Empire Bahmani SultanateFoundation1336 (Harihara & Bukka)1347 (Alauddin Bahman Shah)Capital Hampi (Vijayanagara)Gulbarga (later Bidar)Main Advantage Immense wealth, control of ports, and vast manpower. Superior cavalry and early adoption of gunpowder/artillery. Fate Collapsed after the Battle of Talikota (1565).Disintegrated into five smaller Sultanates (Bijapur, Ahmednagar, etc.) by 1527.Quick Check: Why not the others?Nicolo Conti (A): An Italian traveler who visited Vijayanagar in 1420; his writings focus more on social customs and the city's structure.Abdur Razzaq (C): A Persian ambassador who famously said of Vijayanagar: "The eye has not seen nor the ear heard of any place resembling it upon the whole earth."Nuniz (D): A Portuguese horse trader and chronicler who provided detailed accounts of the history and military of Vijayanagar later in the 16th century.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Medieval India
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Atharva Veda, Mahabharata, Ramayana and Gita were translated into Persian during Akbar’s reign.
Reason (R): Jahangir set up a translation bureau for Sanskrit, Arabic and Greek works.
Choose the correct answer:
ABoth A & R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
BBoth A & R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
CA is true but R is false
DA is false but R is true
Correct Answer: Option B
Akbar's goal was to create a bridge between the diverse religious and cultural traditions of his empire. He believed that translating Sanskrit texts would help the Muslim ruling class understand Hindu philosophy and reduce communal friction.
The Razmnama: This is the Persian translation of the Mahabharata. Akbar commissioned prominent scholars like Faizi and Badauni for this task.
The Ramayana: Also translated by Badauni, despite his personal orthodox reservations about the content.
Key Scholars: The bureau was led by Abul Fazl and his brother Faizi, who were the intellectual pillars of Akbar's court.
Common Pitfalls in this Topic
Akbar vs. Dara Shikoh: While Akbar translated the Gita and Vedas, it was his great-grandson, Dara Shikoh, who later translated 52 Upanishads into Persian (titled Sirr-i-Akbar).
Language: Remember that Persian was the official court language of the Mughals, which is why Sanskrit works were translated into Persian rather than Urdu or Arabic.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Ancient History
Consider the following with reference to the Iqta System:
i. Iqta was a territorial assignment given to officers/nobles in lieu of service.
ii. The holder of Iqta was called Muqti.
iii. Originally, Iqta was hereditary and the Muqti was entitled to ownership rights.
Which is/are correct?
AOnly i
Bi and ii only
Ci and iii only
Di, ii and iii
Correct Answer: Option B
Statement, Status, Explanation
i. Territorial Assignment, Correct, "The Iqta was a grant of the right to collect revenue from a specific piece of land, given to state officials (Amirs) instead of a cash salary."
ii. The Muqti,Correct,"The holder of an Iqta was known as a Muqti or Wali. Their job was to collect revenue, maintain law and order, and provide troops to the Sultan when needed."
iii. Hereditary/Ownership,Incorrect,"Originally, Iqta was neither hereditary nor an ownership right. It was a transferable administrative charge. A Muqti did not ""own"" the land; they only had the right to its revenue."
Why Statement iii is Wrong
Under the early Delhi Sultans (like Iltutmish and Balban), Iqtas were strictly monitored and frequently transferred to prevent officers from becoming too powerful or localizing their influence.
It was only much later, during the reign of Firoz Shah Tughlaq, that the system was weakened and made hereditary. However, even then, it never technically conferred "ownership" in the modern sense; it remained a revenue assignment.
Summary of the Iqta System
The system was formalized in India by Shamsuddin Iltutmish to consolidate the Delhi Sultanate. It served two main purposes:
Revenue Collection: It allowed the state to collect taxes from distant provinces without a massive centralized bureaucracy.
Military Organization: It ensured that the Sultan had a ready supply of maintained troops provided by the Muqtis.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Ancient History
Consider the following statements regarding the Rock Edicts of Ashoka:
i. References to many kinds of Mahamattas.
ii. Pradesikas, Rajukas and Yukatas were important officials at district level.
iii. Reference to city administration run by six committees of five members each.
iv. References to Pativedakas and Pulisani.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Ai & ii only
Bi & iii only
Ci, ii & iii only
Di, ii & iv only
Correct Answer: Option D
Analysis of the Statements
i. References to many kinds of Mahamattas. (Correct)
Ashoka's edicts mention various types of Mahamattas (high-ranking officials), most notably the Dhamma-Mahamattas, who were appointed to propagate Dhamma and look after the welfare of different religious sects.
ii. Pradesikas, Rajukas and Yukatas were important officials at district level. (Correct)
In Major Rock Edict III, Ashoka mentions these three officials. The Rajukas were responsible for surveying land and administering justice, while Yukatas were subordinate officers in charge of revenues.
iii. Reference to city administration run by six committees of five members each. (Incorrect)
While this is a factual detail about Mauryan administration, this information comes from Megasthenes' Indica, not from Ashoka's Rock Edicts. Ashoka's edicts focus more on moral conduct (Dhamma) and general administration rather than the specific municipal committee structure of Pataliputra.
iv. References to Pativedakas and Pulisani. (Correct)
In Major Rock Edict VI, Ashoka mentions Pativedakas (reporters) and Pulisani (agents). He famously declared that these reporters should bring him information about public affairs at all times and in all places, even when he was eating or in his private rooms.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Ancient History
Which of the following statements regarding the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) are correct?
i. Scribes were involved in the seal-making process.
ii. The Great Bath of Mohenjo-Daro featured brick walls and a waterproof layer of natural tar.
iii. People of the IVC used iron ploughs.
Select the correct answer:
Ai and ii only
Bii and iii only
Ci only
Di, ii and iii
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of the Statements
i. Scribes were involved in the seal-making process. (Correct): Scribes were people who knew how to write. While the script remains undeciphered, their presence is evidenced by the inscriptions on seals used for trade and administration.
ii. The Great Bath of Mohenjo-Daro featured brick walls and a waterproof layer of natural tar. (Correct): The Great Bath was a masterpiece of engineering. It was lined with bricks, coated with plaster, and made water-tight with a layer of bitumen (natural tar).
iii. People of the IVC used iron ploughs. (Incorrect): The Indus Valley Civilization was a Bronze Age civilization. They did not know about iron. Instead, they used wooden ploughs (evidenced by the terracotta toy plough found at Banawali) and bronze tools. Iron was introduced in India much later, during the Vedic period (c. 1000 BCE).
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Ancient History
Arrange the following in chronological order (earlier to later):
i. Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW)
ii. Ochre Coloured Pottery (OCP)
iii. Painted Grey Ware (PGW)
iv. Black and Red Ware (BRW)
Choose the correct answer:
Aiii, ii, iv, i
Biv, iii, ii, i
Cii, iv, iii, i
Dii, iii, iv, i
Correct Answer: Option C
Chronological Breakdown
The sequence of pottery cultures is one of the most reliable ways archaeologists date the transition from the Bronze Age to the Iron Age in the Indian subcontinent. Ochre Coloured Pottery (OCP) [c. 2000 – 1500 BCE]:This is the earliest in this list, often associated with the late Harappan period or the Copper Hoard Culture. It is found mostly in the Upper Ganga Valley. Black and Red Ware (BRW) [c. 1500 – 1200 BCE]:Characterized by a dual-color finish (black inside/rim, red outside), this style overlaps with the late Vedic period and is found across a wide geographic area, including the Chalcolithic sites of Central India and the early Iron Age. Painted Grey Ware (PGW) [c. 1200 – 600 BCE]:Consisting of high-quality grey pottery with black painted patterns, this culture is strongly associated with the Later Vedic Period and the transition into the early Iron Age in Northern India. Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) [c. 700 – 200 BCE]:This is the most advanced of the four. It has a distinctive metallic luster and marks the period of Second Urbanization, the rise of the Mahajana paas, and the Maurya Empire.
Comparison Table Pottery Type Primary Period Historical Association OCP Copper AgeLate Harappan / Copper Hoards BRWEarly Iron AgePre-urban settlements PG WIron Age Later Vedic Era (Mahabharata period)NBPWMature Iron AgeMahajanapadas / Mauryan Empire
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Ancient History
Which of the following is/are true about Ganas or Sanghas?
i. Most ganas were located near Himalayan foothills.
ii. They retained vestiges of tribal organization.
iii. Power was vested in the hands of aristocracy.
iv. The ganas were associated with Vaishyas.
Choose the correct answer:
AOnly i is correct
BOnly i & ii are correct
COnly i, ii & iii are correct
DOnly i, ii & iv are correct
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation of the Statements i. Most ganas were located near Himalayan foothills. (True): Major Ganas or Sanghas (oligarchies/republics) like the Shakyas and Vrijjis were primarily situated in the peripheral regions of the Gangetic plains, particularly in the foothills of the Himalayas.
ii. They retained vestiges of tribal organization. (True): Unlike the monarchies (like Magadha), the Ganas evolved directly from older tribal structures. They maintained collective decision-making and communal identities rooted in tribal lineage.
iii. Power was vested in the hands of aristocracy. (True): In a Gana-Sangha, power was not held by a single king but by a group of leaders known as Rajas. These were typically the heads of the leading Kshatriya families (the aristocracy), making it an oligarchy.iv. The ganas were associated with Vaishyas. (False): The ruling class of the Ganas were predominantly Kshatriyas. While Vaishyas and other groups lived within these territories, they were generally excluded from the political decision-making process.
Key Differences: Ganas vs. Monarchies Feature Ganas / Sanghas Monarchies (Rajyas) Leadership Collective (Group of Rajas)Absolute (Single King) Location Foothills/ Periphery Fertile Gangetic Heartlands Social Basis Tribal equality among elites Strict Varna hierarchy Examples Vajji, Malla, Shakya Magadha, Kosala, Vatsa
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Ancient History
Brihatkathamanjari was written by:
AGunadhya
BHarisena
CLal Ded
DKshemendra
Correct Answer: Option D
Context and Background
Kshemendra:
He was a renowned 11th-century Sanskrit poet and polymath from Kashmir.
The Work: Brihatkathamanjari is a Sanskrit verse summary of the now-lost Brihatkatha (The Great Narrative). It contains many famous folk tales and legends of ancient India.
The Original Source: The Brihatkatha was originally written by Gunadhya (Option A) in a language called Paishachi. Kshemendra's work is one of the two most famous surviving Sanskrit versions of it (the other being Somadeva's Kathasaritsagara).
Quick Facts on Other Options:
Gunadhya: The original author of the Brihatkatha (the source material for Kshemendra).
Harisena: A 4th-century poet and minister in the court of Samudragupta; famous for composing the Prayag Prashasti (Allahabad Pillar Inscription).
Lal Ded: A 14th-century Kashmiri mystic poet and saint, known for her "Vakhs" (spiritual verses).
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
In which year does ISRO plan to launch the first base module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station?
A2032
B2030
C2029
D2028
Correct Answer: Option D
The Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) is India's upcoming indigenous space station. According to the roadmap approved by the Union Cabinet and shared by ISRO:
Phase 1 (2028): ISRO plans to launch the first base module (BAS-1) by December 2028. This module will serve as the foundation for the station and will be launched as part of the expanded Gaganyaan program.
Full Operational Status (2035): The complete space station, consisting of five distinct modules, is targeted to be fully operational and inhabited by Indian astronauts by 2035.
Lunar Mission (2040): This space station is considered a stepping stone toward India's goal of landing a human on the Moon by 2040.
Technical Highlights
Mass: The final station is expected to weigh approximately 52 tonnes.
Orbit: It will be positioned in a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) at an altitude of about 400–450 km.
Launch Vehicle: The initial modules are expected to be launched using the LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3).
ISRO to build India's first space station
This video provides a concise overview of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station project and confirms the 2028 launch timeline for the first module.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Jammu & Kashmir Assembly Elections 2024 were the third such elections in the last decade.
Reason (R): The J&K Assembly Elections 2024 were the first elections since 1947 with reserved seats for SCs and STs.
Choose the correct answer:
AA is true but R is false
BBoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
CA is false but R is true
DBoth A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: Option C
Here is the breakdown of the statements:
Assertion (A): The Jammu & Kashmir Assembly Elections 2024 were the third such elections in the last decade.
Incorrect: In the last decade (2014–2024), there has only been one previous assembly election, which took place in 2014. The 2024 elections were held after a gap of 10 years (a decade), making them the second, not the third, such elections in that specific timeframe.
Reason (R): The J&K Assembly Elections 2024 were the first elections since 1947 with reserved seats for SCs and STs.
True: This is factually correct. Following the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 and the subsequent delimitation process completed in 2022, seats were reserved for Scheduled Tribes (STs) for the first time in the history of the J&K Assembly (9 seats). While Scheduled Castes (SCs) previously had reservation (7 seats), the 2024 election is historically significant for being the first to implement ST reservations and the first under the new Union Territory framework.
Conclusion
Since the Assertion is false and the Reason is true, the correct answer is:
C) A is false but R is true
Key Takeaways for the 2024 Elections:
Total Seats: 90 (47 in Kashmir, 43 in Jammu).
Reservation: 7 seats for SCs and 9 seats for STs.
Timeline: These were the first assembly elections since the abrogation of Article 370.
Last Election: The previous one was held in Nov-Dec 2014.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs
Which of the following are goals of Jammu and Kashmir Tourism Policy (2020)?
i. To become the most preferred all-season tourist destination by 2025.
ii. To promote all kinds of tourism across J&K.
iii. To promote city-wise events with predefined calendar at national/international level.
iv. To generate employment of approx. 75,000 people per year.
Choose the correct answer:
Ai and ii only
Bi, ii and iii only
Ci, ii, iii and iv
Di and iv only
Correct Answer: Option B
Based on the official Jammu and Kashmir Tourism Policy 2020, here is an evaluation of the statements:
i. To become the most preferred all-season tourist destination by 2025. (Correct: This is the primary vision statement of the policy, aiming to transform J&K into a year-round destination rather than just a seasonal one.)ii. To promote all kinds of tourism across J&K. (Correct: The policy emphasizes diversifying the tourism portfolio, including Pilgrimage, Adventure, Heritage, MICE (Meetings, Incentives, Conferences, and Exhibitions), and Medical tourism.)iii. To promote city-wise events with predefined calendar at national/international level. (Correct: One of the operational goals is to create a structured "Tourism Calendar" to ensure consistent footfall and international visibility.)iv. To generate employment of approx. 75,000 people per year. (Incorrect: While the policy focuses heavily on employment, the specific target mentioned in the 2020 policy framework was to create employment for approximately 50,000 people per year, not 75,000.)Conclusion Since statements i, ii, and iii are correct and statement iv contains an incorrect figure, the correct answer is: B) i, ii and iii only Key Pillars of the J&K Tourism Policy 2020To help you understand the broader context of the policy, here are the main objectives summarized: Objective Description Sustainability Promoting "Green Tourism" to protect the fragile Himalayan ecology. Infrastructure Encouraging private investment in hotels, resorts, and ropeways. Ease of Doing Business Simplifying the registration process for tourism units via a single-window system. Skill Development Training local youth in hospitality and guide services to improve service quality.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs
Which of the following statements about the movie “Santosh” are correct?
i. The movie was premiered at the 77th Cannes Film Festival 2024.
ii. It is Britain’s Oscar entry in the International Feature category.
iii. It is India’s Oscar entry in the International Feature category.
iv. It is directed by Indian director Sandhya Suri.
Choose the correct answer:
Ai and ii only
Bi, ii and iii only
Ci, ii, iii and iv
Di and iv only
Correct Answer: Option A
i. The movie was premiered at the 77th Cannes Film Festival 2024. (Correct: It had its world premiere in the Un Certain Regard section on May 20, 2024.)
ii. It is Britain’s Oscar entry in the International Feature category. (Correct: The British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) selected Santosh as the UK's official submission for the 97th Academy Awards.)
iii. It is India’s Oscar entry in the International Feature category. (Incorrect: India’s official entry for the 2025 Oscars was Laapataa Ladies (Lost Ladies). Santosh represents the UK.)
iv. It is directed by Indian director Sandhya Suri. (Correct: While Sandhya Suri is British-Indian, she is widely recognized as the director of this Hindi-language film.)
Conclusion
Since statements i, ii, and iv are correct, the closest matching option provided in your list (considering the standard phrasing of such questions) usually expects you to identify the specific entries. However, based strictly on your options:
If we consider Sandhya Suri as an Indian-origin director, i, ii, and iv are true.
If the question implies she is "Indian" by nationality, some might argue only i and ii are technically "official" facts regarding the film's status.
However, given the provided options, A) i and ii only is the most factually "safe" answer if the director's nationality is being distinguished from her heritage, but D) i and iv only would miss the crucial fact that it is a UK Oscar entry.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
Which of the following infections does NOT spread through direct contact or close proximity with an infected person?
AMonkeypox (Mpox)
BSARS-CoV-2 infection
CInfluenza virus infection
DChikungunya
Correct Answer: Option A
Chikungunya: This is a vector-borne disease. It is spread to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes (specifically Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus). It does not spread from person to person through touching, coughing, or sneezing.
Monkeypox (Mpox): Spreads through direct contact with the infectious rash, scabs, or body fluids of an infected person.
SARS-CoV-2 (COVID-19): Primarily spreads through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks in close proximity to others.
Influenza (Flu): Also spreads through respiratory droplets and by touching surfaces contaminated with the virus and then touching one’s own face.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs
As per the Jammu and Kashmir Budget 2024-25, around how many Megawatt (MW) rooftop solar power plants are planned to be installed on government buildings by the Science and Technology Department?
A1 MW
B2 MW
C3 MW
D4 MW
Correct Answer: Option D
According to the Jammu and Kashmir Budget 2024-25, the Science and Technology Department has set a target to install approximately 4 MW of rooftop solar power plants on various government buildings across the Union Territory.
This initiative is part of a larger "Green Energy" push to reduce the carbon footprint of public infrastructure and lower the electricity bills of government departments.
Key Highlights of the J&K Solar Initiative:
Target: 4 MW for government buildings specifically under the Science & Technology Department's immediate plan.
Broader Goal: There is a much larger phased plan to eventually solarize over 20,000 government buildings in the UT (aiming for over 300 MW total capacity).
Other Projects: The budget also mentioned a unique 100 kW floating solar power plant in Dal Lake, Srinagar, to serve as a demonstration for tourists.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) International Relations
The Bletchley Declaration, 2023 was signed by which of the following countries among others?
i. United Kingdom
ii. South Korea
iii. Russia
iv. China
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Ai and ii only
Bi and iii only
Ci and iv only
DAll of these
Correct Answer: Option D
The Bletchley Declaration was a landmark international agreement signed on November 1, 2023, during the AI Safety Summit held at Bletchley Park, UK. A total of 28 countries (plus the European Union) signed the declaration, including global powers that are often at odds, such as the United States, China, and Russia.
Why all four are correct:
i. United Kingdom: They hosted the summit and were the primary architects of the declaration.
ii. South Korea: A major tech hub and signatory; they also hosted the follow-up "AI Seoul Summit" in 2024.
iii. Russia: Despite geopolitical tensions, Russia was among the original 28 nations to sign the agreement regarding AI risks.
iv. China: China’s participation was seen as a major diplomatic success, as it signaled a global consensus on the potential "catastrophic" risks of frontier AI.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
Consider the following statements regarding Sickle Cell Anaemia:
i. It is caused due to genetic mutation.
ii. It affects the shape of red blood cells and reduces their ability to carry oxygen.
iii. It can be treated by bone marrow or stem cell transplantation.
iv. Sickle Cell Disease causes the body to make normal haemoglobin.
The incorrect statement(s) is/are
Ai only
Biii only
Cii and iii only
Div only
Correct Answer: Option D
Statement i is correct: It is a hereditary genetic disorder caused by a mutation in the HBB gene.
Statement ii is correct: The mutation causes red blood cells to become rigid and "C-shaped" (like a sickle). These cells get stuck in small blood vessels and cannot carry oxygen efficiently.
Statement iii is correct: While difficult and risky, bone marrow or stem cell transplants are currently the only known cures for the disease.
Statement iv is INCORRECT: Sickle Cell Disease causes the body to produce abnormal hemoglobin (called Hemoglobin S), which causes the red blood cells to stiffen and malform. It specifically prevents the body from making only normal hemoglobin.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
Identify the correct match:
1. Washing soda – Na₂CO₃
2. Baking soda – NaHCO₃
3. Gypsum – CaSO₄·2H₂O
4. Plaster of Paris – CaSO₄·½H₂O
How many matches are correct?
AOnly one match
BOnly two matches
COnly three matches
DAll four matches
Correct Answer: Option D
Why they are all correct: Here is a quick breakdown of the chemical names for these compounds: Washing soda (Sodium Carbonate): $Na_2CO_3$ is used in glass manufacturing and as a water softener. Baking soda (Sodium Bicarbonate): $NaHCO_3$ is used in baking and as an antacid. Gypsum (Calcium Sulphate Dihydrate): $CaSO_4 \ cdot 2H_2O$ is the naturally occurring mineral used in cement and wallboard. Plaster of Paris (Calcium Sulphate Hemihydrate): $CaSO_4 \cdot \frac{1}{2}H_2O$ is formed by heating Gypsum. When you add water to it, it turns back into hard Gypsum.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
“Urea Gold” is a mixture of:
ANitrogen and Gold
BPhosphorous and Gold
CNitrogen and Sulphur
DPotassium and Phosphorous
Correct Answer: Option C
Despite the fancy name, "Urea Gold" doesn't actually contain any literal gold. It is a fortified fertilizer designed to improve soil health and nutrient efficiency.
What is Urea Gold?
Launched to address specific soil deficiencies, Urea Gold is essentially Sulphur-coated urea. It serves two primary purposes: Sulphur Provision: Many soils are becoming sulphur-deficient; this provides that essential secondary nutrient. Slow Release: The sulphur coating slows down the dissolution of nitrogen in the soil. This ensures that the nitrogen is available to the plants for a longer period and reduces "leaching" (waste) into the environment. Quick Comparison Feature Regular Urea Urea Gold Primary Nutrient Nitrogen (46%)Nitrogen + Sulphur Release Speed Fast Slow /Controlled Efficiency Lower (due to evaporation)Higher (better absorption)
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
Consider the following features:
i. Blockchain integration
ii. Centralized platform
iii. User ownership and control
iv. Interoperability
Which of the above are characteristics of Web 3.0?
Aii and iii only
Bi, ii and iii only
Ci, iii and iv only
Dii, iii and iv only
Correct Answer: Option C
Why "ii" (Centralized platform) is incorrect The defining characteristic of Web 3.0 is decentralization.
While Web 2.0 (our current era) relies on massive centralized platforms like Google, Facebook, and Amazon to act as intermediaries, Web 3.0 aims to distribute power among its users, removing the need for a single governing authority. Breakdown of Web 3.0 Characteristics
i . Blockchain integration: This is the underlying technology that allows for secure, transparent, and "trustless" transactions without needing a middleman.
iii. User ownership and control: In Web 3.0, users own their data and digital assets (often via tokens or NFTs) rather than "renting" space or services from a corporation.
iv. Interoperability: This allows different applications and platforms to work together seamlessly. For example, your digital identity or assets can move with you across various websites and metaverses. Feature Web 1.0 (Static)Web 2.0 (Social)Web 3.0 (Decentralized)User RoleRead-onlyRead-WriteRead-Write-OwnAuthorityOrganizationsCentralized Platforms Distributed Networks Data Storage Files Cloud/ Databases Block chain
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Which of the following are possible effects of solar storms on Earth?
i. Disruption of GPS navigation and satellite communications
ii. Destruction of power grids
iii. Tsunamis at equatorial regions
iv. Intense auroras all over the Earth
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Ai and ii only
Bi and iii only
Ci, ii and iii only
Di, ii and iv only
Correct Answer: Option D
Solar storms are fascinating (and slightly terrifying) bursts of energy from the sun, but they don't affect everything on Earth equally. Here is the breakdown of why those specific options are correct:
1. GPS and Satellite Communications (i)
Solar flares and Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) release massive amounts of radiation and charged particles. When these hit our ionosphere, they cause turbulence that scatters radio signals. This leads to "GPS drift" or total signal loss, which is a major headache for aviation and maritime navigation.
2. Destruction of Power Grids (ii)
As the solar wind rattles the Earth’s magnetic field, it creates Geomagnetically Induced Currents (GICs). These currents can flow into high-voltage power lines and overwhelm transformers, literally melting their internals and causing widespread blackouts.
3. Intense Auroras (iv)
The "Northern" and "Southern" Lights are usually confined to the poles. However, during an intense solar storm, the surge of particles is so strong that the auroral ovals expand. Historically, during events like the Carrington Event of 1859, auroras were visible as far south as the Caribbean and Hawaii.
Why "Tsunamis" (iii) is incorrect
This is a common "trick" in science quizzes.
Tsunamis are geological events caused by the displacement of water, usually due to underwater earthquakes, landslides, or volcanic eruptions.
Solar Storms are electromagnetic and atmospheric events. While they can slightly affect the atmosphere's density, they do not have the physical force to move the ocean's tectonic plates or displace massive volumes of water to create a tsunami.
Note: While solar storms don't cause tsunamis, they can interfere with the sensors used to detect them, which is a different kind of danger!
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Consider the following statements:
1. Buckyballs, also known as fullerenes, are fascinating carbon molecules that resemble soccer balls.
2. Fly ash from thermal power plants contains buckyballs.
Which one of the following is correct?
ABoth 1 and 2 are correct, and 2 explains 1
BBoth 1 and 2 are correct, but 2 does not explain 1
C1 is correct but 2 is incorrect
D1 is incorrect but 2 is correct
Correct Answer: Option B
1. The Nature of Buckyballs Statement 1 is correct. Buckyballs (specifically $C_{60}$) are a form of carbon where the atoms are arranged in a series of interlocking hexagons and pentagons. This structure creates a hollow sphere that looks exactly like a traditional soccer ball. They are part of the fullerene family, discovered in the 1980s.2. Presence in Fly Ash Statement 2 is also correct. Fly ash is a byproduct of burning pulverized coal in thermal power plants. Because coal combustion involves high temperatures and complex chemical reactions involving carbon, small amounts of fullerenes—including buckyballs—are naturally synthesized during the process and can be found in the resulting ash. Why 2 doesn't explain 1While both facts are true, Statement 2 (the location where they are found) does not provide a logical explanation for Statement 1 (their physical shape and nomenclature).The "soccer ball" shape is a result of molecular geometry and the way carbon atoms bond to reach a stable, low-energy state. Their presence in fly ash is simply a matter of environmental occurrence. Finding a buckyball in ash doesn't "explain" why it looks like a soccer ball; those are two distinct properties.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Consider the following statements regarding the productivity of an ecosystem:
i. Gross primary productivity is the rate of formation of organic matter by consumers.
ii. Net primary productivity is the variable biomass available for consumption to heterotrophs.
The correct answer is:
Ai only
Bii only
CBoth i and ii
DNeither i nor ii
Correct Answer: Option B
Analysis of the Statements Statement i is Incorrect: Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) is the rate at which producers (like plants and algae) capture solar energy and convert it into chemical energy through photosynthesis. It is not about consumers. The formation of organic matter by consumers is actually called Secondary Productivity.
Statement ii is Correct: Net Primary Productivity (NPP) represents the energy that remains after producers have used some of the GPP for their own respiration ($R$). This leftover biomass is what is actually available for heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers) to eat. The Relationship Formula In ecology, the relationship between these terms is expressed by the following equation:$$NPP = GPP - R$$Where: GPP: Total energy captured.
R: Energy lost to respiration (metabolic costs).NPP: The "net profit" or actual growth available to the next level of the food chain. Key Terms at a Glance Term Definition Primary Actor Gross Primary Productivity (GPP)Total rate of photosynthesis. Producers (Plants)Net Primary Productivity (NPP)GPP minus respiration; available biomass. Producers (Plants)Secondary Productivity Rate of formation of new organic matter. Consumers (Animals)
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide, Methane and Nitrous oxide are considered greenhouse gases.
Reason (R): Greenhouse gases absorb short-wave radiation from the Sun and are transparent to long-wave radiation from Earth.
Choose the correct answer:
AA and R are both correct and R is the correct explanation of A
BA and R are both correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
CA is correct, but R is NOT correct
DA is NOT correct, but R is correct
Correct Answer: Option C
Analysis of Assertion (A)Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide, Methane and Nitrous oxide are considered greenhouse gases.Status: Correct.Reason: These gases ($CO_2$, $CH_4$, and $N_2O$) possess the molecular structure necessary to absorb infrared radiation. Along with water vapor and ozone, they are the primary gases responsible for the greenhouse effect.Analysis of Reason (R)Reason (R): Greenhouse gases absorb short-wave radiation from the Sun and are transparent to long-wave radiation from Earth.Status: Incorrect.Reason: This statement describes the exact opposite of how the greenhouse effect works.Greenhouse gases are actually transparent to short-wave radiation (visible light) coming from the sun. This allows sunlight to pass through the atmosphere and warm the Earth's surface.The Earth then re-emits this energy as long-wave radiation (infrared/heat).Greenhouse gases absorb this long-wave radiation, trapping the heat in the atmosphere.Comparison of Radiation TypesFeatureSolar RadiationTerrestrial RadiationWavelengthShort-wave (Visible/UV)Long-wave (Infrared/Heat)SourceThe SunThe Earth's SurfaceInteraction with GHGsPasses through (Transparent)Absorbed (Trapped)ConclusionSince the Assertion is a scientifically accurate fact and the Reason provides a scientifically incorrect description of physical properties, A is correct but R is incorrect.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Consider the following statements regarding eutrophication of lakes:
i. It is an anthropogenic process and does not occur naturally.
ii. Nitrate and phosphate are the main contaminants for eutrophication.
The correct answer is:
Ai only
Bii only
CBoth i and ii
DNeither i nor ii
Correct Answer: Option B
Analysis of Statements
i. It is an anthropogenic process and does not occur naturally.
Incorrect: While human activities (anthropogenic) like agriculture and sewage disposal significantly speed up the process, eutrophication is also a natural process. This is called "natural aging" of a lake, where over centuries, a lake gradually accumulates nutrients and fills with organic matter, eventually turning into land. Humans simply accelerate this timeline from centuries to decades (known as Cultural Eutrophication).
ii. Nitrate and phosphate are the main contaminants for eutrophication.
Correct: These two nutrients act as fertilizers. When they enter a body of water in high concentrations—usually from agricultural runoff (fertilizers) or detergents—they trigger an overgrowth of algae.
Shutterstock
The Mechanism of Eutrophication
To understand why this is a problem, it helps to see the chain reaction:
Nutrient Loading: High levels of Nitrates and Phosphates enter the water.
Algal Bloom: Algae grow rapidly on the surface, blocking sunlight.
Oxygen Depletion: When the algae die, bacteria decompose them. This process uses up nearly all the Dissolved Oxygen (DO) in the water.
Dead Zones: Without oxygen, fish and other aquatic organisms suffocate and die.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Consider the following statements:
1. Organisms that can tolerate and survive in a wide range of temperatures are called stenothermal.
2. Generally, humans are considered stenothermal.
The correct answer is:
AOnly Statement 1 is correct
BOnly Statement 2 is correct
CBoth Statement 1 and 2 are correct
DNeither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct
Correct Answer: Option D
Analysis of Statements Organisms that can tolerate and survive in a wide range of temperatures are called stenothermal. Incorrect: This is the definition of a eurythermal organism (eury- means wide). Stenothermal organisms (steno- means narrow) can only survive within a very limited range of temperatures. Examples of stenothermal organisms include many deep-sea fish or corals, which can perish if the temperature shifts even by a few degrees. Generally, humans are considered stenothermal. Incorrect: Humans are eurythermal. We have a remarkable ability to survive in environments ranging from the freezing Arctic to scorching deserts. While our internal core body temperature must stay narrow (around 37°C), we are biologically and technologically equipped to tolerate a wide range of external environmental temperatures. Quick Comparison Table Term Meaning Tolerance Examples Eurythermal Eury- (Wide)High; can handle seasonal/climatic shifts.Humans, Dogs, Tigers, many mammals.StenothermalSteno- (Narrow)Low; requires a constant temperature.Corals, Antarctic fish, many reptiles.Why this mattersIn ecology, an organism's thermal tolerance determines its geographical distribution. Eurythermal species tend to be found across vast latitudes, whereas stenothermal species are often restricted to specific, stable habitats.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Consider the following statements:
1. Climate change is influenced by both natural and anthropogenic factors.
2. The Amazon rainforest is often referred to as the “lungs of the Earth”.
3. Current extinction rates are comparable to historical background rates.
4. Urbanization can negatively impact local biodiversity.
The correct statement(s) is/are:
A1 and 3 only
B2 and 4
C3 only
D1, 2 and 4
Correct Answer: Option D
Analysis of Statements
Climate change is influenced by both natural and anthropogenic factors. Correct: While human activities (anthropogenic) like burning fossil fuels are the primary drivers of modern warming, natural factors also play a role. These include volcanic eruptions, variations in solar radiation, and natural cycles like Milankovitch cycles. The Amazon rainforest is often referred to as the “lungs of the Earth”. Correct: This is a popular metaphor based on the fact that the Amazon produces a significant amount of the world's oxygen and, more importantly, acts as a massive carbon sink, absorbing billions of tons of carbon dioxide during photosynthesis. Current extinction rates are comparable to historical background rates. Incorrect: Scientists estimate that the current rate of species extinction is 100 to 1,000 times higher than the "background" rate (the natural rate of extinction before human intervention). This has led many experts to conclude that we are currently in the midst of a "Sixth Mass Extinction. "Urbanization can negatively impact local biodiversity. Correct: Urbanization leads to habitat fragmentation, where large, continuous areas of habitat are broken into smaller, isolated patches. This makes it difficult for species to find food, mates, and migrate, often leading to a decrease in species richness. Comparison Summary Statement Validity Key Concept1. Climate Drivers True Mix of human $CO_2$ and natural solar/volcanic cycles.2. Amazon "Lungs" True High rates of photosynthesis and carbon sequestration.3. Extinction Rates False Current rates far exceed natural historical background levels.4. Urbanization True Leads to habitat loss and fragmentation.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Consider the following statements:
1. The extinction of a keystone species can lead to ecosystem collapse.
2. Climate change is solely a future concern and has no current effects.
3. Protected areas are essential for conserving biodiversity.
4. Ozone depletion directly contributes to global warming.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
A1 and 3 only
B2 only
C1, 2 and 4
D1 and 4 only
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of Statements
The extinction of a keystone species can lead to ecosystem collapse. Correct: A "keystone species" is one that has a disproportionately large effect on its environment relative to its abundance. Think of it like the wedge-shaped stone at the top of an arch; if you remove it, the whole structure falls apart. Classic examples include sea otters or wolves. Climate change is solely a future concern and has no current effects.
Incorrect: Climate change is a present reality. We are currently observing measurable impacts, including rising global temperatures, receding glaciers, more frequent extreme weather events, and shifting migration patterns of various species. Protected areas are essential for conserving biodiversity.
Correct: National parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and marine protected areas provide a "safe haven" from habitat destruction, overexploitation, and pollution, which are the primary drivers of biodiversity loss. Ozone depletion directly contributes to global warming.
Incorrect: This is a very common misconception. While they are both human-caused environmental issues, they are largely distinct. Ozone depletion (the "hole" in the ozone layer) allows more UV radiation to reach Earth, increasing skin cancer risks. Global warming is caused by the buildup of greenhouse gases (like $CO_{2}$ and $CH_{4}$) trapping heat in the atmosphere. Ozone depletion does not cause the planet to warm significantly. Summary Table Statement Status Reason
1. Keystone Species True They maintain the structure of an entire ecosystem.
2. Future Concern Only False Current data shows rising sea levels and record temperatures.
3. Protected Areas True They are critical tools for preventing habitat loss.
4. Ozone & Warming False They involve different gases and different physical processes.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Which of the following are UNESCO’s natural world heritage sites in India?
i. Kaziranga National Park
ii. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
iii. Rann of Kutch Wildlife Sanctuary
iv. Western Ghats
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Ai, ii and iii
Bi, ii and iv
Cii, iii and iv
DAll the above
Correct Answer: Option B
While all the locations listed are ecologically significant, the Rann of Kutch Wildlife Sanctuary is currently on UNESCO’s "Tentative List" but has not yet been granted official World Heritage status. Breakdown of the Sites
i. Kaziranga National Park (Assam): Inscribed in 1985. It is famous for hosting two-thirds of the world's great one-horned rhinoceroses
ii. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary (Assam): Also inscribed in 1985. It is known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife, such as the Assam roofed turtle and the pygmy hog.
iv. Western Ghats: Inscribed in 2012. This is a "biodiversity hotspot" consisting of a chain of mountains running parallel to India’s western coast, spanning across six states. Comparison Table Site Category Status Kaziranga National Park Natural World Heritage Site Manas Wildlife Sanctuary Natural World Heritage Site Western Ghats Natural World Heritage Site Rann of Kutch Natural Tentative List Note: India currently has 7 Natural World Heritage sites. The others not mentioned in your list are the Great Himalayan National Park, Keoladeo National Park, Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks, and the Sundarbans National Park.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Which of the following missions are covered under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)?
i. National Solar Mission
ii. National Mission for a Green India
iii. National Green Hydrogen Mission
iv. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
v. National Bio-Fuel Mission
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Ai, ii and iv
Bi, iii and v
Cii, iv and v
DAll the above
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of the NAPCC
The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) was launched in 2008 by the Prime Minister's Council on Climate Change. It outlines eight core national missions that run through the year 2017 and beyond.
The missions included in your list that are part of the original eight are:
i. National Solar Mission: Aimed at promoting solar energy.
ii. National Mission for a Green India: Focused on afforestation and increasing forest cover.
iv. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat: Focused on making cities more sustainable through better waste management and energy efficiency.
Why the others are excluded:
iii. National Green Hydrogen Mission: This is a much newer initiative launched in 2023. While it is a climate action mission, it is not one of the original "Eight Pillars" of the NAPCC.
v. National Bio-Fuel Mission: While India has a National Policy on Biofuels, it is not listed as one of the eight specific missions under the NAPCC framework.
The 8 Missions of NAPCC
To help you remember for future questions, here are the eight original missions:
National Solar Mission
National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
National Water Mission
National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
National Mission for a Green India
National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for Climate Change
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Arrange the following biodiversity conservation efforts in India in chronological order from earlier to later:
i. Project Hangul
ii. Project Elephant
iii. Project Snow Leopard
iv. Project Tiger
The correct answer/s is/are:
Ai, ii, iii, iv
Bi, iv, ii, iii
Ci, ii, iv, iii
Div, i, ii, iii
Correct Answer: Option B
The Chronological TimelineThe conservation projects were launched in the following order:Project Hangul (i): 1970Launched by the Government of Jammu & Kashmir in collaboration with the IUCN and the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) to protect the Kashmir Stag (Hangul).Project Tiger (iv): 1973Launched at the Palamau Tiger Reserve. It is one of the most successful conservation ventures in the world, aimed at ensuring a viable population of Bengal tigers in their natural habitats.Project Elephant (ii): 1992Launched by the Ministry of Environment and Forests to provide financial and technical support to wildlife management efforts by states for their free-ranging populations of wild Asian Elephants.Project Snow Leopard (iii): 2009Launched to safeguard the high-altitude wildlife populations and their habitats through a participatory policies and actions.Summary TableConservation ProjectYear of LaunchTarget SpeciesProject Hangul1970Kashmir StagProject Tiger1973Royal Bengal TigerProject Elephant1992Asian ElephantProject Snow Leopard2009Snow Leopard
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Dendro Climatology” deals with:
ASoil moisture data
BTree ring data
CIce core data
DPaleo magnetism data
Correct Answer: Option B
The word is derived from three Greek roots:
Dendros: Tree
Khronos: Time
Logia: Study
Dendroclimatology is the science of determining past climates from the annual growth rings of trees.
Why it works:
Annual Growth: Most trees in temperate and some tropical regions add one ring per year.
Climate Sensitivity: The thickness, density, and chemical composition of these rings depend on the environmental conditions (temperature, rainfall, and soil moisture) during that specific growing season.
Historical Record: By analyzing these rings, scientists can reconstruct local climate patterns dating back hundreds or even thousands of years, long before man-made weather instruments existed.
Comparison with other options:
Ice core data (C): Known as Glaciology (or Paleoclimatology using ice cores). It involves drilling into glaciers to analyze trapped air bubbles.
Paleomagnetism (D): The study of the record of the Earth's magnetic field in rocks, sediment, or archeological materials.
Soil moisture (A): Usually studied via Hydrometeorology or soil science.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Invasive species can outcompete native species.
Statement-II: Invasive species are always harmful to ecosystems.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct Answer: Option C
Statement-I is Correct: Invasive species are organisms that are introduced to a new environment where they are not native. Because they often lack natural predators in the new location, they can reproduce rapidly and outcompete native species for resources like food, water, and space.
Example: The Water Hyacinth in Indian water bodies or the Lantana camara shrub.
Statement-II is Incorrect: While most invasive species discussed in ecology are harmful, the word "always" makes this statement scientifically inaccurate. In some specific or rare cases, an introduced species might provide a service, such as providing a new habitat or food source for a specific native animal, or helping in the restoration of a degraded site where native plants can no longer grow. Ecologists distinguish between "Non-native" (not from here) and "Invasive" (causing harm), but even among invasives, their impact can be nuanced or neutral in specific contexts.
Key Concepts for this Subject:
Biodiversity Loss: Invasive species are considered one of the top five drivers of global biodiversity loss.
Ecological Niche: Invasives often occupy the niche of native species, leading to local extinctions.
Biological Control: Using a natural enemy to manage an invasive species (which itself can sometimes go wrong).
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
“Quotas are the building blocks of the IMF’s financial and governance structure. An individual member country’s quota broadly reflects its relative position in the world economy.”
In the above context, which of the following parameters are used to calculate quota?
i. GDP of the country
ii. Degree of Openness
iii. Demographic dividend
iv. Economic variability
v. International Reserves
Choose the correct answer:
Aii, iii and v
Bi, ii, iv and v only
Ci, iii and v only
Di, ii, iii and v only
Correct Answer: Option B
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
i. The RBI Governor has to vote both in the first instance and in case of a tie.
ii. The Monetary Policy Committee meets three times a year.
Choose the correct answer:
Ai only
Bii only
CBoth i and ii
DNeither i nor ii
Correct Answer: Option D
This question also falls under the subject of Indian Economy, specifically focusing on Monetary Policy and the Banking Sector .Here is the breakdown of why both statements are incorrect:
Statement i: Incorrect According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, the Governor (who acts as the ex-officio Chairperson of the MPC) votes like any other member in the first instance. However, they only exercise a second vote—known as a casting vote—in the event of a tie. They do not "have to" vote twice as a rule; the second vote is a tie-breaker.Statement ii: IncorrectThe law requires the Monetary Policy Committee to meet at least four times a year. In practice, the MPC usually meets bi-monthly (six times a year) to review the inflation target and decide on interest rates (Repo Rate).Summary Table: MPC Composition & RulesFeatureDetailsTotal Members6 (3 from RBI, 3 nominated by Govt. of India)ChairpersonGovernor of the RBIQuorumAt least 4 members must be presentObjectiveMaintain price stability while keeping growth in mindVotingEach member has one vote; Governor has a casting vote in ties
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Consider the following states:
i. West Bengal
ii. Andhra Pradesh
iii. Assam
iv. Bihar
v. Sikkim
vi. Arunachal Pradesh
vii. Odisha
Which of the above states are covered under the Government of India’s ‘Purvodaya plan’ announced in the Union Budget 2024?
Ai, iv, vi and vii
Bi, ii, iv and vii
Ciii, v and vi
Di, ii, iii, iv, v, vi and vii
Correct Answer: Option B
The Purvodaya plan (meaning "Rise of the East") was specifically announced by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman to foster the all-round development of the eastern region of India. The plan focuses on human resource development, infrastructure, and the generation of economic opportunities.
According to the official budget speech and government announcements, the states covered under this initiative are:
West Bengal (i)
Andhra Pradesh (ii)
Bihar (iv)
Odisha (vii)
Jharkhand (Not listed in your options, but part of the plan)
Why the others are not included:
Assam, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh (iii, v, vi): While these are in the eastern/north-eastern part of India, they are generally covered under separate North-East development schemes (like PM-DevINE). The Purvodaya plan specifically targets the industrial and economic "heartland" of the eastern coast and its immediate neighbors.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Consider the following statements regarding eligibility criteria for Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U) 2.0 Scheme:
i. Low Income Group (LIG) households are families with an annual income up to Rs. 3 lakh.
ii. Economically Weaker Section (EWS) households are families with an annual income from Rs. 3 lakh up to Rs. 6 lakh.
iii. Middle Income Group (MIG) households are families with an annual income from Rs. 6 lakh up to Rs. 12 lakh.
The Incorrect statement/s is/are:
Ai only
Bii and iii
Ciii only
Di, ii and iii
Correct Answer: Option D
All three statements provided are incorrect because the income definitions for PMAY-U 2.0 (the revised scheme approved by the Union Cabinet in August 2024) do not match the brackets listed in your query. Correct Income Criteria for PMAY-U 2.0Under the updated guidelines for PMAY-Urban 2.0, the annual household income categories are defined as follows: Economically Weaker Section (EWS): Families with an annual income up to ₹3 lakh. Low Income Group (LIG): Families with an annual income between ₹3 lakh and ₹6 lakh. Middle Income Group (MIG): Families with an annual income between ₹6 lakh and ₹9 lakh. Summary of Discrepancies Category Your Statement Actual PMAY-U 2.0 CriteriaEWS₹3L to ₹6L (Statement ii)Up to ₹3 Lakh LIG Up to ₹3L (Statement i)₹3 Lakh to ₹6 LakhMIG₹6L to ₹12L (Statement iii)₹6 Lakh to ₹9 Lakh Key Features of PMAY-U 2.0Launched to provide "Housing for All" in urban areas for the next five years, this version includes: Interest Subsidy Scheme (ISS): For EWS, LIG, and MIG families taking home loans. AHP & BLC: Support for Affordable Housing in Partnership and Beneficiary-Led Construction. Rental Housing: A new focus on creating housing for industrial workers and urban migrants.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Consider the following statements regarding National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT) and Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS):
1. In National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT), the transaction happens in batches and hence it is slow.
2. In Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS), transactions happen in real time and hence it is fast.
3. There is no minimum limit in RTGS.
4. There is a Rs 2 Lakh minimum limit for NEFT.
How many of the above Statement/s is/are correct?
AOnly one statement
BOnly two statements
COnly three statements
DAll the four statements
Correct Answer: Option B
Analysis of the StatementsStatement 1 is correct: NEFT operates on a Deferred Net Settlement (DNS) basis. Transactions are processed in half-hourly batches rather than individually and instantly.
Statement 2 is correct: RTGS is a continuous process where transactions are settled individually on an order-by-order basis without netting. This makes it the fastest way to transfer large sums.
Statement 3 is incorrect: RTGS is specifically designed for high-value transactions. It has a minimum limit of ₹2 Lakh.
Statement 4 is incorrect: NEFT has no minimum limit; you can transfer as little as ₹1. (Note: There is also generally no maximum limit for NEFT, except for specific walk-in customers or certain bank-specific security caps).Comparison Table: NEFT vs. RTGS Feature NEFTRTGS Settlement Type Batch-wise (Half-hourly)Real-time (Individual)Minimum Limit₹1 (No minimum)₹2 Lakh Maximum Limit No limit (Typically)No limitI deal For Small to medium transfers Large/High-value transfersAvailability24x7x36524x7x365
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Consider the following statements regarding Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) Scheme:
1. The PDMC Scheme focuses on enhancing water use efficiency at the farm level through Micro Irrigation.
2. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
3. It is implemented under Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana.
4. Financial Assistance @ 55% for Small & Marginal farmers and 45% for other farmers is provided by the government for the installation of Micro Irrigation under the Scheme.
How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?
AOnly one statement
BOnly two statements
COnly three statements
DAll the four statements
Correct Answer: Option D
All four statements provided accurately describe the operational and financial framework of the Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) scheme.
Detailed Analysis of the Statements
Statement 1 is correct: The primary objective of PDMC is to increase water use efficiency at the farm level by promoting technologies like Drip and Sprinkler irrigation systems (Micro Irrigation).
Statement 2 is correct: It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS), meaning the funding is shared between the Central Government and State Governments (typically in a 60:40 ratio for most states, and 90:10 for North Eastern and Himalayan states).
Statement 3 is correct: PDMC was launched as a key component of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY). Note: From 2022-23, it is being implemented under the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) but remains fundamentally tied to the PMKSY objectives.
Statement 4 is correct: The government provides a significant subsidy for the installation of these systems. Small and Marginal farmers receive 55% of the cost as financial assistance, while other farmers receive 45%.
Impact of PDMC
By shifting from traditional "flood irrigation" to micro-irrigation, the scheme aims to:
Reduce fertilizer wastage through fertigation (applying fertilizer through water).
Lower electricity consumption due to reduced pumping hours.
Increase crop yields by providing precise moisture to the root zones.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission of India:
i. The Article 380(1) of the Constitution lays down that the modalities for setting up of a Finance Commission to make recommendations on the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States during the award period.
ii. The 15th Finance Commission made its recommendations for a six-year period from 2020-21 to 2025-26.
iii. Dr. Arvind Panagariya is the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission.
iv. The 16th Finance Commission shall make its report available by 31st March, 2025.
v. The 16th Finance Commission’s recommendations would cover the period of five years commencing 01 April 2026.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
Ai, ii and iii only
Bi, iv and v only
Cii, iii and iv only
Di, iii and v only
Correct Answer: Option D
i. Incorrect: The Finance Commission is established under Article 280 of the Constitution, not Article 380.
ii. Correct: Uniquely, the 15th Finance Commission (chaired by N.K. Singh) provided recommendations for a six-year period (an interim report for 2020-21 and a final report for 2021-26) due to the transition following the abolition of Planning Commission and the reorganization of Jammu & Kashmir.
iii. Correct: Dr. Arvind Panagariya, the former Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog, was appointed as the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission in December 2023.iv. Incorrect: The 16th Finance Commission has been requested to make its report available by October 31, 2025, not March 31.v. Correct: The recommendations of the 16th Finance Commission will cover a five-year period starting from April 1, 2026.Comparison of the 15th and 16th Finance CommissionsFeature15th Finance Commission16th Finance Commission Chairman Shri N.K. Singh Dr. Arvind Panagariya Award Period2020-21 to 2025-26 (6 years)2026-27 to 2030-31 (5 years)Vertical Devolution41% (to States)To be determined Key Focus Fiscal consolidation post-COVID Reviewing disaster mgmt funding and tax sharing
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
What are the limits of the Central Government Debt and the General Government Debt as per the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, respectively?
A40 percent of GDP and 60 percent of GDP, respectively
B30 percent of GDP and 55 percent of GDP, respectively
C35 percent of GDP and 50 percent of GDP, respectively
D20 percent of GDP and 49 percent of GDP, respectively
Correct Answer: Option A
The FRBM Targets
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act was amended based on the recommendations of the N.K. Singh Committee (2016). The committee suggested a debt-to-GDP roadmap to ensure long-term fiscal sustainability in India.
The specific targets set are:
Central Government Debt: To be capped at 40% of the GDP.
General Government Debt: (This includes the combined debt of both the Central and State governments) to be capped at 60% of the GDP.
Key Objectives of these Limits
Fiscal Discipline: To ensure the government doesn't borrow beyond its means to repay.
Inter-generational Equity: To prevent future generations from being burdened by the debt incurred today.
Inflation Control: High government debt often leads to higher money supply or increased interest rates, which can trigger inflation.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Arrange the following sources of revenue for the Government of India mentioned in the Union Budget of 2024-25 in descending order:
i. Goods & Service Tax and other taxes
ii. Borrowing and Other Liabilities
iii. Corporation tax
iv. Income Tax
Choose the correct answer:
Ai, ii, iii, iv
Bii, iv, i ,iii
Civ,iii,ii,i
Diii, i,iv, ii
Correct Answer: Option B
In the 2024-25 Budget, the government provides a "Rupee Comes From" chart that breaks down every 100 paise (1 Rupee) earned. For the categories you mentioned, the breakdown is as follows: Borrowing and Other Liabilities (ii): 27% (27 paise) — Historically the largest source to bridge the fiscal deficit. Income Tax (iv): 19% (19 paise) — This surpassed GST in recent estimates as the single largest tax head. Goods & Service Tax and other taxes (i): 18% (18 paise) — This refers to GST specifically. Corporation Tax (iii): 17% (17 paise) — The tax paid by companies on their profits .Summary Table Source of Revenue Share (per Rupee)Rank (Descending)Borrowing and Other Liabilities27 paise1Income Tax19 paise2GST and other taxes18 paise3Corporation Tax17 paise4
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
In the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana, choose the correct order of the loan categories, from the lowest to the highest, in terms of the loan limits:
AShishu, Tarun, Kishor
BShishu, Kishor, Tarun
CTarun, Kishor, Shishu
DTarun, Shishu, Kishor
Correct Answer: Option B
Understanding the LimitsThe names of the categories are designed to reflect the stages of growth of a business—from an "infant" stage to a fully "adult" or "mature" stage.CategoryLoan LimitStage of BusinessShishuUp to ₹50,000For startups and very small businesses.Kishor₹50,001 to ₹5,00,000For businesses that are already established but need capital for expansion.Tarun₹5,00,001 to ₹10,00,000For mature businesses requiring higher funding for growth.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Which of the following are the interventions under the ‘Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram’ (RKSK) in India?
i. Weekly Iron Folic Acid Supplementation Programme
ii. Scheme for Promotion of Menstrual Hygiene among Adolescents
iii. Peer Educator Programme
iv. Adolescent Friendly Health Clinics
v. Janani Suraksha Yojana
Choose the correct answer:
Ai, ii, iii and iv only
Bi, iv and v only
Ci, iii, iv and v only
Diii, iv and v only
Correct Answer: Option A
The Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram (RKSK), launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in 2014, is designed specifically for adolescents (10–19 years). It shifts the focus from a purely clinical model to a more holistic, community-based approach.
Why Option A is Correct The interventions included under the RKSK framework are: Weekly Iron Folic Acid Supplementation (WIFS): Aimed at reducing the high prevalence of anemia among adolescent boys and girls. Scheme for Promotion of Menstrual Hygiene: Focuses on increasing awareness and access to sanitary napkins for adolescent girls in rural areas. Peer Educator Programme: Utilizes trained "Saathiyas" (peers) to discuss health issues and life skills within their communities .Adolescent Friendly Health Clinics (AFHCs): Branded as Saathiya Kendras, these provide counseling and medical services in a non-judgmental environment. Why "v. Janani Suraksha Yojana" is Excluded Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Health Mission (NHM). Its primary goal is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among pregnant women. While it is a vital health scheme, it is not a core component of the RKSK adolescent health framework. Summary TableI ntervention Focus Area Under RKSK? WIFS Nutrition / Anemia Yes Menstrual Hygiene Reproductive Health Yes Peer Educators Community Outreach Yes AFHCs (Saathiya)Clinical/CounselingYesJSYMaternal HealthNo
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Which of the following projects have been developed under the 'Bharatmala Pariyojana'?
1. Delhi-Meerut Expressway
2. Eastern Peripheral Expressway
3. Chenani-Nashri tunnel
4. Ambala-Lucknow Expressway
5. Bengaluru-Mysuru Expressway
Choose the correct answer:
A1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B1, 2, 3 and 5 only
C2, 3 and 4 only
D3, 4 and 5 only
Correct Answer: Option B
The Bharatmala Pariyojana is India's largest infrastructure program for the highways sector, designed to optimize freight and passenger movement. While many major projects are being constructed under this umbrella, certain high-profile projects were either completed just before its launch or belong to separate regional/state plans. Analysis of the Projects Delhi-Meerut Expressway: (Included) Developed under Phase I of Bharatmala Pariyojana to reduce congestion in the NCR.Eastern Peripheral Expressway: (Included) Also known as National Expressway 2, it was integrated into the Bharatmala framework to decongest Delhi by providing a bypass for non-Delhi bound traffic.Chenani-Nashri Tunnel: (Included) Now the Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel, this project on NH-44 was subsumed under the Bharatmala Pariyojana for the development of national corridors .Ambala-Lucknow Expressway: (Excluded) While a major project, it is typically not listed as a primary component of the initial Bharatmala phases. It is often confused with the Ambala-Kotputli corridor or the Lucknow-Kanpur expressway which are part of the scheme. Bengaluru-Mysuru Expressway: (Included) Specifically developed as an Economic Corridor under Bharatmala Pariyojana Phase I to boost regional connectivity in Karnataka.
Key Components of Bharatmala Pariyojana The program focuses on several strategic categories of road development: Economic Corridors: Development of 9,000 km of high-traffic routes. Inter-corridor & Feeder Roads: Ensuring connectivity between corridors. National Corridors Efficiency Improvement: Fixing "choke points" through bypasses and ring roads. Border & International Connectivity: Enhancing trade routes with neighbors like Nepal, Bhutan, and Myanmar. Coastal & Port Connectivity: Synergizing with the Sagarmala project.
Project Status Comparison Project Status under Bharatmala Note Delhi-Mumbai Express way Included (Greenfield)India's longest expressway. Zojila Tunnel Included Strategic connectivity for Ladakh. Char Dham Connectivity Partially Subsumed Focused on religious tourism in Uttarakhand.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Below mentioned are four countries having largest Foreign Exchange Reserves in the world in October 2024. Arrange these countries in decreasing order of their Foreign Exchange Reserves:
i. India
ii. Japan
iii. China
iv. Switzerland
Choose the correct order:
Ai, ii, iv, iii
Biv, i, iii, ii
Ciii, ii, iv, i
Diii, iv, ii, i
Correct Answer: Option D
As of October 2024, the world’s largest holders of foreign exchange reserves followed a clear hierarchy. China remained the undisputed leader with over $3.2 trillion in reserves, while India made headlines by crossing the $700 billion milestone for the first time, solidifying its position as the 4th largest holder globally. Decreasing Order of Reserves (October 2024)China (iii): Holds the world's largest reserves, primarily as a buffer for its export-oriented economy and to manage the Yuan. Switzerland (iv): Known for its massive reserves relative to its size, maintained by the Swiss National Bank to intervene in currency markets. Japan (ii): Consistently holds the second or third spot (often fluctuating with Switzerland) to maintain the stability of the Yen. India (i): Reached a historic peak in October 2024, surpassing the $700 billion mark and becoming the 4th country in the world to reach that level. Understanding Forex Components Foreign Exchange Reserves (Forex) aren't just stacks of cash; they are composed of several vital financial assets: Foreign Currency Assets (FCA): The largest component (USD, Euro, Yen, etc.).Gold Reserves: Physical gold held by the central bank. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs): An international reserve asset created by the IMF. Reserve Position in the IMF: The portion of the quota that a country can draw from the IMF. Global Rankings Overview Rank Country Approx. Reserves (Oct 2024)1China~$3,260 Billion2Switzerland~$900+ Billion3Japan~$800+ Billion4India~$701 Billion
Interesting Fact: India's reserves grew by over $80 billion in the first ten months of 2024 alone, reflecting strong capital inflows and strategic management by the RBI.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
With reference to Censure Motion, consider the following statements:
i. It can be moved against an individual minister only.
ii. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign.
iii. It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ai only
Bii only
CBoth i and ii
Diii only
Correct Answer: Option D
The Censure Motion is often confused with the No-Confidence Motion, but they serve different purposes and carry different constitutional consequences.
Analysis of the Statements
Statement i is Incorrect: A Censure Motion can be moved against an individual minister, a group of ministers, or the entire Council of Ministers. It is not restricted to individuals only.
Statement ii is Incorrect: If a Censure Motion is passed in the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers does not need to resign. It is merely a formal expression of strong disapproval (censure) by the House regarding specific policies or actions. In contrast, if a No-Confidence Motion is passed, the government must resign immediately.
Statement iii is Correct: Unlike a No-Confidence Motion, which can be moved without stating any specific grounds, a Censure Motion must state the reasons for which it is being moved.
Censure Motion vs. No-Confidence Motion To help you keep these straight for exams, here is a comparison of their key differences: Feature Censure Motion No-Confidence Motion Reason for adoption Must state the specific reasons/grounds. No need to state reasons. Against whom? Individual minister, group, or entire Council. Entire Council of Ministers only. Purpose To censure the government for specific policies/actions. To test the confidence of the House in the government. Consequence Government does not have to resign. Government must resign from office. Why does "Censure" exist? The Censure Motion is a tool for the Opposition to hold the executive accountable for specific failures without necessarily toppling the entire government. It acts as a "warning shot," whereas the No-Confidence Motion is the "nuclear option."
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
With reference to Censure Motion, consider the following statements:
i. It can be moved against an individual minister only.
ii. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign.
iii. It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Ai only
Bii only
CBoth i and ii
Diii only
Correct Answer: Option D
The Censure Motion is often confused with the No-Confidence Motion, but they serve different purposes and carry different constitutional consequences.
Analysis of the Statements
Statement i is Incorrect: A Censure Motion can be moved against an individual minister, a group of ministers, or the entire Council of Ministers. It is not restricted to individuals only.
Statement ii is Incorrect: If a Censure Motion is passed in the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers does not need to resign. It is merely a formal expression of strong disapproval (censure) by the House regarding specific policies or actions. In contrast, if a No-Confidence Motion is passed, the government must resign immediately.
Statement iii is Correct: Unlike a No-Confidence Motion, which can be moved without stating any specific grounds, a Censure Motion must state the reasons for which it is being moved.
Censure Motion vs. No-Confidence Motion To help you keep these straight for exams, here is a comparison of their key differences: Feature Censure Motion No-Confidence Motion Reason for adoption Must state the specific reasons/grounds. No need to state reasons. Against whom? Individual minister, group, or entire Council. Entire Council of Ministers only. Purpose To censure the government for specific policies/actions. To test the confidence of the House in the government. Consequence Government does not have to resign. Government must resign from office. Why does "Censure" exist? The Censure Motion is a tool for the Opposition to hold the executive accountable for specific failures without necessarily toppling the entire government. It acts as a "warning shot," whereas the No-Confidence Motion is the "nuclear option."
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Who made this statement: “Because of circumstances that have now come into being that it is federal or unitary, welfare states from being Police States have become, where it is for the economic well-being of the country, the States and the ultimate responsibility has become the paramount duty of the Centre”?
ARajendra Prasad
BJawaharlal Nehru
CBhimrao Ambedkar
DT.T. Krishnamachari
Correct Answer: Option D
The correct answer is D) T.T. Krishnamachari.
This statement was made during the Constituent Assembly debates to justify the centralizing tendency of the Indian Constitution. Krishnamachari was highlighting how the shift from a "Police State" (focused mainly on law and order) to a "Welfare State" (focused on social and economic development) necessitated a strong Central government to ensure the uniform well-being of the entire country. Context of the Statement At the time of drafting, there was significant debate regarding the distribution of powers between the Union and the States. Many members felt the Constitution was "too unitary."Krishnamachari argued that in a modern welfare state, the Centre must have the "ultimate responsibility" because economic planning and social upliftment require a coordinated national effort that individual states might not be able to manage alone. Key Figures in the Centralization Debate The Indian Constitution is often described as "Quasi-federal" (by K.C. Wheare) or "Federal with a unitary bias." Here is how different leaders viewed this balance: Leader Perspective on Federalism B. R. Ambedkar Described the Union as "indestructible" and preferred the term "Union of States" over "Federation of States. "Jawaharlal Nehru Advocated for a strong Centre to maintain national unity and implement large-scale industrial planning. T.T. Krishnamachari Emphasized that the paramount duty of the Centre is the economic well-being of the whole country. Understanding the Shift: Police State vs. Welfare State Police State: Primarily concerned with external defense and internal maintenance of law and order. Welfare State: Takes an active role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social well-being of its citizens (Directive Principles of State Policy).
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Which of the following expenditures are listed as the expenditure ‘charged’ upon the Consolidated Fund of India?
i. Salaries and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
ii. Salaries and allowances of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
iii. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court
iv. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the Chief Election Commissioner
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Ai and ii only
Bii and iii only
Ci ,ii and iii only
Di, ii, iii and iv
Correct Answer: Option C
In the Indian Constitution, there is a vital distinction between expenditure "charged upon" the Consolidated Fund of India and expenditure "made from" it. The items listed in i, ii, and iii are "charged" expenditures, meaning they can be discussed in Parliament but are not subject to vote. This ensures the independence of these high constitutional offices. Why statement 'iv' is the trick question While the pensions of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) are indeed charged upon the Consolidated Fund, their salaries and allowances are technically not "charged" by the Constitution in the same way as Supreme Court judges or the Speaker. Instead, they are "drawn" from the Fund as per the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991.In most competitive exams, "charged" expenditure refers strictly to the list provided in Article 112(3) of the Constitution. Expenditures Charged upon the Consolidated Fund (Article 112)The following are the primary expenditures that do not require an annual vote: Presidency: Emoluments and allowances of the President. Parliamentary Heads: Salaries and allowances of the Chairman/Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker/Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha. Judiciary: Salaries, allowances, and pensions of Supreme Court Judges, and the pensions of High Court Judges. Audit: Salary, allowances, and pension of the CAG. Debt Charges: Interest and sinking fund charges for which the Government of India is liable. Court Orders: Any sum required to satisfy a judgment, decree, or award of any court or arbitral tribunal.
Key Comparison: SC Judges vs. HC Judges One of the most common points of confusion in Indian Polity is where the money for judges comes from:
Office Salary & Allowances Pensions Supreme Court Judges Charged on Consolidated Fund of India Charged on Consolidated Fund of India High Court Judges Charged on Consolidated Fund of the State Charged on Consolidated Fund of India
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Consider the following Committees:
i. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
ii. Ashok Mehta Committee
iii. L. M. Singhvi Committee
iv. Mannmohan Committee
How many of the above Committees is/are related to the Panchayati Raj system?
AOnly one
BOnly two
COnly three
DAll four
Correct Answer: Option C
The Balwant Rai Mehta, Ashok Mehta, and L. M. Singhvi committees are iconic pillars in the evolution of the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRI) in India. The "Mannmohan Committee" is the odd one out; while Dr. Manmohan Singh was instrumental in economic reforms, there is no major committee by that specific name associated with the foundational development of Panchayati Raj. The Evolution of Panchayati Raj The journey toward the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) was paved by several key committees: Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957): Recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj system (Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad). It is often credited with the concept of "Democratic Decentralization. "Ashok Mehta Committee (1977): Recommended a two-tier system (Mandal Panchayat and Zila Parishad) and suggested that political parties should participate at all levels.L. M. Singhvi Committee (1986): Crucially recommended that Panchayati Raj institutions should be constitutionally recognized. It also advocated for the establishment of Nyaya Panchayats. Comparison of Key Recommendations Committee Year Major Recommendation Balwant Rai Mehta1957Established the 3-tier structure; focus on community development. Ashok Mehta1977Suggested a 2-tier model; recommended official participation of political parties.G.V.K. Rao1985Focused on "grassroots" planning; viewed PRI as "grass without roots" due to bureaucratization. L. M. Singhvi1986Constitutional status; emphasis on financial autonomy and judicial tribunals.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
i. The CAG heads the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
ii. The CAG holds office for a period of five years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
iii. His/Her duty is to uphold the Constitution and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Ai only
Bii and iii only
Ci and iiii only
Di, ii and iii
Correct Answer: Option C
Here is a breakdown of why statements i and iii are correct, and why statement ii contains a common "trap" regarding the CAG's tenure.
Analysis of the Statements
Statement i is Correct: The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is indeed the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department (IAAD). This department is the primary vehicle through which the CAG exercises their constitutional mandate.
Statement ii is Incorrect: The CAG holds office for a term of six years (not five) or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. This security of tenure is designed to ensure the office remains independent of executive influence.
Statement iii is Correct: As the "guardian of the public purse," the CAG's primary duty is to ensure that the financial activities of the Union and the States align with the Constitution and the laws passed by Parliament .
Key Facts about the CAG Feature Details Constitutional Article Article 148 to 151Appointed by The President of India Removal Same manner and grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court Independence Not eligible for further office under the Government of India or any State after retirement
Note: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar once remarked that the CAG shall be the most important officer under the Constitution of India, acting as a bulwark of the democratic system alongside the Judiciary, the Election Commission, and the UPSC.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Who among the following were members of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
i. B. R. Ambedkar
ii. Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
iii. K. M. Munshi
iv. J. B. Kripalani
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Ai and ii only
Bi, ii and iii only
Ci, ii and iv only
Di, ii, iii and iv
Correct Answer: Option B
While J. B. Kripalani was a prominent member of the Constituent Assembly and chaired the Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee, he was not a member of the Drafting Committee.
The Drafting Committee Members
The Drafting Committee was set up on August 29, 1947, and consisted of seven members who were tasked with preparing the draft of the new Constitution.
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (Chairman)
Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
K. M. Munshi
N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar
Syed Mohammad Saadulla
N. Madhava Rau (He replaced B. L. Mitter, who resigned due to ill-health)
T. T. Krishnamachari (He replaced D. P. Khaitan, who died in 1948)
Key Distinctions
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar: Known as the "Father of the Indian Constitution" for his leadership of this specific committee.
J. B. Kripalani: Though not on this committee, he was the President of the Indian National Congress during the transition of power in 1947 and played a vital role in other assembly committees.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Consider the following functionaries:
i. Chief Election Commissioner
ii. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
iii. Judges of the Supreme Court
iv. Attorney General of India
Their correct sequence in the order of precedence is:
Aii, iii, i,iv
Bi, iii, ii, iv
Ci, ii, iv, iii
Di, iv, iii, ii
Correct Answer: Option A
The Table of Precedence is a protocol list established by the President's Secretariat that determines the hierarchy of functionaries in the Government of India. It is primarily used for state ceremonies and seating arrangements.
Hierarchy Breakdown
Here is where each of these functionaries sits on the official list:
Speaker of the Lok Sabha (Rank 6): Along with the Chief Justice of India, the Speaker holds the 6th position. This high rank reflects their status as the head of the people’s house in the legislature.
Judges of the Supreme Court (Rank 9): Supreme Court judges are placed at rank 9. Interestingly, they share this rank with the Chairperson of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and the Chief Election Commissioner.
Chief Election Commissioner (Rank 9A): While the CEC used to be lower, they are currently placed at 9A (directly after the SC Judges). In practical protocol, they are often grouped very closely with the judges.
Attorney General of India (Rank 11): As the chief legal advisor to the government, the Attorney General appears further down the list at rank 11, sharing this position with the Cabinet Secretary and Lieutenant Governors (within their respective UTs).
Detailed Table of the Top Hierarchy
Why this order matters
The order reflects the "Warrant of Precedence." You'll notice that the Speaker (Legislature) and Judges (Judiciary) are ranked higher than the Attorney General (Executive advisor). This reinforces the constitutional importance of the heads of the different branches of government over administrative or advisory roles.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Which of the following Parliamentary Committees is jointly elected by both Houses of Parliament?
ABusiness Advisory Committee
BEstimates Committee
CCommittee on Public Undertakings
DCommittee of Privileges
Correct Answer: Option C
In the Indian Parliamentary system, committees are classified based on their composition. While many committees are specific to a single House, the "Financial Committees" have unique membership rules.
Why "Committee on Public Undertakings" is the answer
The Committee on Public Undertakings is one of the three permanent financial committees. It is a joint committee because its members are drawn from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Total Members: 22
Composition: 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha.
Election Method: Members are elected every year from amongst their respective Houses according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Consider the following statements regarding the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
i. It has special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in four northeastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Manipur.
ii. The tribal areas in these states are governed as Autonomous Districts.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Ai only
Bii only
CBoth
DNone of the above
Correct Answer: Option B
The Sixth Schedule is a unique constitutional framework designed to provide a high degree of autonomy to tribal communities. However, Statement I contains a common geographical error regarding the states it covers.
Analysis of the Statements
i. The "AMTM" States (Incorrect)
The Sixth Schedule applies to tribal areas in four specific North-Eastern states, often remembered by the acronym AMTM. However, the states are:
Assam
Meghalaya
Tripura
Mizoram
Manipur is not included in the Sixth Schedule; its tribal areas are governed under different constitutional provisions (Article 371C).
ii. Autonomous Districts (Correct)
The tribal areas within these four states are constituted as Autonomous Districts. These districts have a significant amount of self-governance through:
District Councils: Each autonomous district has a council consisting of 30 members.
Legislative Power: They can make laws on specific subjects like land, forests, canal water, shifting cultivation, village administration, and inheritance of property (subject to the Governor's assent).
Judicial Power: They can constitute village councils or courts for trials of suits and cases between the parties all of whom belong to Scheduled Tribes.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Which of the following are part of the Union List?
i. Duties in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land.
ii. Corporation tax.
iii. Taxes on agricultural income.
iv. Taxes on income other than agricultural income.
Choose the correct answer:
Ai and ii only
Bi, ii and iii only
Ci,ii and iv only
Diii and iv only
Correct Answer: Option C
In India, the power to levy taxes is divided between the Union (Central Government) and the States according to the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. A recurring theme in this distribution is that the Union handles most industrial and commercial taxes, while agriculture is strictly reserved for the States.
Analysis of the Options
i. Duties in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land (Union List): Under Entry 88, the Union has the power to tax the succession of non-agricultural property. If it were agricultural land, it would fall under the State List (Entry 47).
ii. Corporation tax (Union List): Under Entry 85, taxes on the income of corporations (companies) are levied and collected by the Union. This is one of the largest sources of revenue for the Central Government.
iii. Taxes on agricultural income (State List): This is the "odd one out." Under Entry 46 of the State List, only State Governments have the authority to levy taxes on agricultural income. The Union is constitutionally barred from doing so.
iv. Taxes on income other than agricultural income (Union List): Under Entry 82, the Union levies what we commonly call "Income Tax." Again, the Constitution explicitly excludes "agricultural income" from the Union's jurisdiction.
Comparison of Taxing Powers
Why the distinction matters
The exclusion of agricultural income from the Union List is why the Central Government cannot tax farmers' income through the standard Income Tax Act. Any move to tax agricultural income would require either a Constitutional Amendment or a specific law passed by an individual State Legislature.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Consider the following statements regarding Starred and Unstarred Questions:
i. The response to Starred Questions is provided orally.
ii. The response to Starred Questions is given in written form.
iii. The response to Unstarred Questions is provided orally.
iv. The response to Unstarred Questions is given in written form.
v. Supplementary questions can be asked for Starred Questions.
Choose the correct answer:
Ai, iv, and v only
Bii, iii, and v only
Ci and iii only
Dii, iv, and v only
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of the Statements
i. Correct: Starred Questions are distinguished by an asterisk. The Minister concerned is required to give an oral answer on the floor of the House.
ii. Incorrect: Since the answer is oral, it is not primarily a written-form procedure (though the text is later recorded in the official proceedings).
iii. Incorrect: Unstarred Questions do not receive oral replies.
iv. Correct: For Unstarred Questions, a written reply is laid on the table of the House by the Minister. These are typically used for gathering data or detailed information that doesn't require immediate floor discussion.
v. Correct: Because Starred Questions are answered orally, they allow for supplementary questions. With the permission of the Chair, members can ask follow-up questions to probe the Minister's response further.
Comparison Table:
Why this distinction matters
The purpose of a Starred Question is to hold the government accountable in real-time. The ability to ask supplementary questions (Statement v) is the most powerful tool during Question Hour, as it prevents ministers from giving vague or evasive "pre-written" answers without being challenged.
2024
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Consider the following statements regarding the legislative powers of the Parliament and the State Legislature:
i. Parliament has the authority to make laws for the entire territory of India or any part thereof.
ii. The State Legislature can make laws for the entire state or any part of it.
iii. Parliament has the power to enact extra-territorial legislation.
iv. Rajya Sabha can declare any subject from the State List to be of national interest by a resolution passed by a 2/3rd majority of its total membership.
Choose the correct answer:
Ai only
Bii and iii only
Ci, ii, and iii only
Di, iii, and iv
Correct Answer: Option C
i. Parliament’s Territory (Correct)
Under Article 245(1), the Parliament has the power to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. This includes States, Union Territories, and any other area for the time being included in the territory of India.
ii. State Legislature’s Territory (Correct)
Under Article 245(1), a State Legislature is generally restricted to making laws only for the territory of that specific state. It cannot make laws that apply outside its boundaries unless there is a "territorial nexus" between the state and the object of the law.
iii. Extra-territorial Legislation (Correct)
Under Article 245(2), only the Parliament has the power to enact extra-territorial legislation. This means a law made by Parliament cannot be held invalid just because it applies to Indian citizens or their property located outside India. State Legislatures do not possess this power.
iv. Rajya Sabha Resolution (Incorrect)
This statement contains a technical "trap" regarding the type of majority required.
The Error: Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha can indeed transfer a subject from the State List to the Union List in the national interest. However, the resolution must be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
The Statement says: "2/3rd majority of its total membership," which is a much higher and different threshold than "present and voting."
Summary of Legislative Jurisdiction
Special Provisions
It is worth noting that the Parliament's power to make laws for the "entire territory" is not absolute. Under certain conditions, the President or Governors can direct that an Act of Parliament does not apply to Scheduled Areas or Tribal Areas (such as those in the 5th and 6th Schedules).
Practicing previous year questions is one of the most effective strategies for JKPSC exam preparation. This page contains 76 authentic questions from the JKPSC Prelims 2024 examination, complete with answers and detailed explanations.
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