JKPSC JKAS Prelims 2022 Previous Year Questions

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

The extraction of aluminum is carried out by which of the following processes?

A Hall–Heroult process

B Calcination

C Leaching

D Van-Arkel method

Correct Answer: Option A

To determine the correct process for extracting aluminum, we must look at the specific metallurgical steps required to move from the raw ore (Bauxite) to the pure metal.A) Hall–Heroult process: Correct. This is the major industrial process for smelting aluminum. Since aluminum is highly reactive, it cannot be reduced by carbon (like iron). Instead, aluminum oxide ($Al_2O_3$) is dissolved in molten cryolite and subjected to electrolysis, which deposits pure aluminum at the cathode.B) Calcination: This is a general metallurgical step where an ore is heated to a high temperature in the absence or limited supply of air to remove volatile impurities or water. While used to prepare alumina from bauxite, it is not the extraction process that yields the metal.C) Leaching: This is a process of treating an ore with a chemical solvent to dissolve the desired metal while leaving the gangue (impurities) behind. For aluminum, the Baeyer Process uses leaching with caustic soda to purify bauxite into alumina, but it does not extract the actual metal.D) Van-Arkel method: This is a refining process used for obtaining ultra-pure metals like Zirconium or Titanium. It involves the formation of a volatile metal iodide which is then decomposed on a hot filament.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

The device used by traffic police in breath tests for drunk driving works on the principle of:

A Potassium dichromate with sulphuric acid

B Turmeric on filter paper

C Silica gel coated with silver nitrate

D Potassium permanganate with sulphuric acid

Correct Answer: Option A

The breathalyzer test used by traffic police is a classic example of an Oxidation-Reduction (Redox) reaction.The Principle: The device contains a solution of Potassium dichromate ($K_2Cr_2O_7$) dissolved in Sulphuric acid ($H_2SO_4$).The Reaction: When a driver blows into the device, any ethanol (alcohol) in their breath reacts with the orange potassium dichromate. The alcohol is oxidized to acetic acid, and the chromium is reduced from an oxidation state of $+6$ to $+3$.The Color Change: This chemical change causes a visible transition from Orange to Green. The intensity of the green color is proportional to the concentration of alcohol in the breath.

Conclusion:

The specific chemical reaction used to detect ethanol via a colorimetric change involves the acidified potassium dichromate solution.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

When an artificial satellite revolves around the Earth in a circular orbit, which of the following quantities remains constant?

A Linear velocity

B Angular frequency

C Angular momentum

D Angular displacement

Correct Answer: Option C

To determine which quantity remains constant for a satellite in a circular orbit, we must analyze the physics of uniform circular motion and central forces:A) Linear velocity: Incorrect. Velocity is a vector quantity, meaning it has both magnitude (speed) and direction. While the speed of the satellite is constant in a circular orbit, its direction is constantly changing as it curves around the Earth. Therefore, linear velocity is not constant.B) Angular frequency ($\omega$): Correct. In a stable circular orbit, the satellite covers equal angles in equal intervals of time. Since the orbital period ($T$) and the rate of rotation are steady, the angular frequency (or angular velocity magnitude) remains constant.C) Angular momentum ($L$): Correct. For a satellite, the gravitational pull of the Earth acts as a central force (it always points toward the center of the Earth). Since the force is central, there is no external torque ($\tau = 0$) acting on the system. According to the law of conservation of angular momentum, if the torque is zero, the angular momentum remains constant.D) Angular displacement ($\theta$): Incorrect. Angular displacement refers to the angle through which the satellite has moved. As the satellite continues to revolve, this angle increases over time.Why both B and C could be considered?In the context of standard competitive exams (like UPSC), Angular Momentum is the most "fundamental" physics answer because it remains constant due to the absence of external torque. However, in a perfect circular orbit, Angular Frequency is also constant. Usually, in these multiple-choice formats, C is the prioritized answer because it holds true even if the orbit were slightly elliptical (Kepler's Second Law), whereas angular frequency would vary in an ellipse.Conclusion:In a circular orbit, the satellite experiences a central force, ensuring its angular momentum is conserved.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

Assertion (A): GSAT-24 was launched aboard the French Ariane-5 rocket.

Reason (R): India currently lacks a launch vehicle capable of placing a 4-ton satellite in geostationary orbit.

Which of the following is correct?

A Both A and R are true, and R explains A.

B Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.

C A is true, R is false.

D A is false, R is true.

Correct Answer: Option C

To determine the correct relationship between the Assertion and the Reason, we need to examine India's heavy-lift launch capabilities:

Assertion (A) is Correct: GSAT-24, a 24-KU band communication satellite, was indeed launched by NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) using the Ariane-5 rocket from Kourou, French Guiana, in June 2022.

Reason (R) is False: This statement is no longer accurate. India's LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark 3, formerly known as GSLV Mk-III) is specifically designed to carry payloads of up to 4 tons into the Geostationary Transfer Orbit (GTO). While India historically relied on foreign rockets like Ariane for 4-ton class satellites, the LVM3 has successfully proven this capability (for example, launching the Chandrayaan missions and heavy communication satellites).

Why was GSAT-24 launched on Ariane-5?

Although India has the LVM3, the specific launch of GSAT-24 was a commercial demand-driven mission by NSIL where the launch slot and mission requirements led to the choice of the Ariane-5. It was not due to an absolute lack of indigenous capability at that time.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

Why does an apple change color when exposed to air?

1. Apples contain tannins acting as astringent agents.

2. Apples cannot contain tannins due to the presence of betacyanins.

3. Apples turn brown because of phenolic compounds.

4. Apples do not change color in air.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A One statement only

B Two statements only

C Three statements only

D All four statements

Correct Answer: Option B

To determine the correct answer, we need to look at the biochemical process that occurs when an apple is sliced or bruised, known as enzymatic browning.

Statement 1 is Correct: Apples contain tannins, which are a type of polyphenol. These act as astringent agents (giving underripe fruit a "puckering" taste) and serve as a defense mechanism for the plant.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: This statement contradicts Statement 1. Furthermore, betacyanins are pigments responsible for the deep red/violet color in plants like beets or dragon fruit; they are not the reason for an apple's composition or lack of tannins.

Statement 3 is Correct: When an apple is cut, the enzyme polyphenol oxidase (PPO) reacts with oxygen and the phenolic compounds (including tannins) present in the fruit's tissue. This reaction produces o-quinones, which then polymerize to form melanin, the brown pigment.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: It is a common household observation that apples turn brown (change color) when exposed to air.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

Assertion (A): Raindrops usually hit the earth’s surface with constant velocity.

Reason (R): A falling body through a viscous medium attains constant terminal velocity.

Which of the following is correct?

A A is false, R is true

B A is true, R is false

C Both A and R are true, and R explains A

D Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A

Correct Answer: Option C

To determine the correct relationship between the Assertion and the Reason, we need to apply the principles of fluid dynamics:Assertion (A) is Correct: If raindrops were falling in a vacuum, they would accelerate indefinitely due to gravity ($g$). However, because they fall through the atmosphere, they experience air resistance. After falling a certain distance, they stop accelerating and hit the ground at a constant velocity.Reason (R) is Correct: When an object falls through a viscous medium (like air or water), it experiences two main forces: gravity pulling it down and a viscous drag force (air resistance) pushing it up. When these two forces become equal, the net force is zero, and the body continues to fall at a constant speed called terminal velocity.Does R explain A?Yes. Raindrops hit the surface at a constant velocity because the atmosphere acts as a viscous medium that allows the drops to reach their terminal velocity.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

Consider the following statements regarding Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs):

1. Digital assets like art, music, videos, tweets, and selfies can be tokenized as NFTs.

2. NFTs can be traded or exchanged using blockchain technology.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option C

To determine the correct answer, let's look at the defining characteristics of Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs):

Statement 1 is Correct: Any unique digital item can be "tokenized" to create an NFT. This includes digital art, music, videos, and even social media posts like tweets or selfies. By tokenizing these assets, the creator establishes a digital certificate of authenticity and ownership.

Statement 2 is Correct: NFTs are built on blockchain technology (primarily Ethereum, but also Solana and others). The blockchain acts as a decentralized ledger that records every transaction, allowing these tokens to be securely traded, bought, or exchanged on various digital marketplaces.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

Regarding 5G technology, consider the following statements:

1. 5G operates mainly in low, mid, and high-frequency bands.

2. Low band spectrum provides wide coverage and stable speeds but is limited to 100 Mbps.

3. Low band spectrum may also be used by industries for private captive networks.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A 1 and 2 only

B 2 and 3 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: Option D

To determine the correct statements regarding 5G technology, let's analyze the characteristics of the different spectrum bands:

Statement 1 is Correct: 5G technology is designed to operate across a broad range of frequencies, categorized into three main tiers: Low-band (under 1 GHz), Mid-band (1 GHz to 6 GHz), and High-band (Millimeter wave/mmWave, above 24 GHz).

Statement 2 is Correct: The Low-band spectrum is known for its ability to travel long distances and penetrate buildings easily, providing wide coverage. However, because it has limited bandwidth, peak data speeds are typically capped around 100 Mbps, making it similar to high-end 4G LTE.

Statement 3 is Correct: While high-band is often associated with specialized industrial use due to low latency, Low-band spectrum is also used for Private Captive Networks (Non-Public Networks). This is especially true in large-scale industrial areas (like mines or massive agriculture projects) where wide-area coverage and high reliability are more critical than extreme speeds.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

With reference to Artificial Intelligence, consider the following statements:

1. Machine learning uses layered neural networks loosely modeled on the human brain.

2. Deep learning enables computers to recognize patterns and make decisions from large datasets without specific programming.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option D

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The description of using "layered neural networks loosely modeled on the human brain" specifically refers to Deep Learning. While Deep Learning is a subset of Machine Learning, the use of multi-layered (deep) artificial neural networks is the defining characteristic of Deep Learning specifically.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The description "enables computers to recognize patterns and make decisions from large datasets without specific programming" is the foundational definition of Machine Learning. Machine Learning is the broader field that encompasses various algorithms (like linear regression or decision trees) that learn from data, whereas Deep Learning is just one specific, complex method within that field.

Conclusion:

Both statements are defined incorrectly because the technical descriptions for Machine Learning and Deep Learning were interchanged.

The correct answer is D) Neither 1 nor 2.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

Match the following space missions with their agencies:

1. Psyche – ESA

2. SLIM – NASA

3. JUICE – JAXA

4. Aditya L-1 – ISRO

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

A One pair only

B Two pairs only

C Three pairs only

D All four pairs

Correct Answer: Option A

To determine the correct answer, let's look at the specific space agencies responsible for these missions:

Psyche – ESA: Incorrect. The Psyche mission, which aims to explore a unique metal-rich asteroid orbiting the Sun between Mars and Jupiter, is a NASA mission.

SLIM – NASA: Incorrect. SLIM (Smart Lander for Investigating Moon), also known as the "Moon Sniper" for its precision landing, is a mission by JAXA (Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency).

JUICE – JAXA: Incorrect. The JUICE (JUpiter ICy moons Explorer) mission, which is set to observe Jupiter and its three large ocean-bearing moons, is led by the ESA (European Space Agency).

Aditya L-1 – ISRO: Correct. This is India's first dedicated solar mission to study the Sun from the Lagrange point L1, launched by ISRO.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Consider the following:

Assertion (A): Kharif crops are more susceptible to pest attacks compared to Rabi crops.

Reason (R): Humid and warm climate is more favorable to rapid crop growth than humid and cool climate.

Which of the following is correct?

A Both A and R are correct, and R explains A.

B Both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A.

C A is correct, R is incorrect.

D A is incorrect, R is correct.

Correct Answer: Option B

Assertion (A) is Correct: Kharif crops (grown during the monsoon season, June–October) generally face higher pest and disease pressure than Rabi crops (grown in winter, October–March). The high moisture and temperature levels during the monsoon create an ideal breeding ground for insects, fungi, and bacteria.

Reason (R) is Correct: It is a biological fact that humid and warm conditions accelerate the metabolic rates of plants, leading to rapid growth. In contrast, the cool, dry air of the Rabi season slows down physiological processes.

Does R explain A?

While both statements are factually true, Reason (R) does not explain Assertion (A). The reason why Kharif crops are more susceptible to pests is that the warm and humid climate favors the growth and multiplication of pests and pathogens, not because it favors the rapid growth of the crops themselves. In fact, rapid crop growth can sometimes help a plant outpace certain types of damage, but it isn't the cause of the increased pest population.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

Consider the following statements:

1. The ability of carbon atoms to bond with other carbon atoms is called Catenation.

2. Compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures exhibit Isomerism.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option D

Both statements are fundamental concepts in organic chemistry:

Statement 1 is Correct: Catenation is the unique ability of an element (most notably carbon) to form long chains or rings by bonding with atoms of the same element through strong covalent bonds. This is why carbon can form such a vast number of diverse organic molecules.

Statement 2 is Correct: Isomerism occurs when two or more compounds have the same molecular formula (the same number and types of atoms) but different structural arrangements. Because their structures differ, their physical and chemical properties often differ as well.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

Consider the following statements regarding purification of water:

1. Chlorine kills pathogenic bacteria but is ineffective against spores and hepatitis viruses.

2. Ozone removes all chlorine and inactivates viruses rapidly.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option C

To evaluate these statements, we look at the efficacy and chemical properties of common water disinfectants:

Statement 1 is Correct: While Chlorine is an excellent disinfectant for killing most pathogenic bacteria (like those causing cholera or typhoid), it has limitations. It is generally ineffective against certain highly resistant life forms like bacterial spores (e.g., Clostridium) and has a slower/less reliable inactivation rate for certain viruses like Hepatitis A compared to other methods.

Statement 2 is Correct: Ozone ($O_3$) is a much more powerful oxidizing agent than chlorine. It inactivates viruses (and protozoan cysts like Giardia) much more rapidly. Additionally, because it is an unstable molecule that reacts quickly, it helps in the removal of organic compounds and can effectively eliminate residual chlorine levels in water treatment processes.

Conclusion:

Both statements are scientifically accurate regarding water treatment standards.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

Consider the following statements regarding purification of water:

1. Chlorine kills pathogenic bacteria but is ineffective against spores and hepatitis viruses.

2. Ozone removes all chlorine and inactivates viruses rapidly.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option C

To evaluate these statements, we look at the efficacy and chemical properties of common water disinfectants:

Statement 1 is Correct: While Chlorine is an excellent disinfectant for killing most pathogenic bacteria (like those causing cholera or typhoid), it has limitations. It is generally ineffective against certain highly resistant life forms like bacterial spores (e.g., Clostridium) and has a slower/less reliable inactivation rate for certain viruses like Hepatitis A compared to other methods.

Statement 2 is Correct: Ozone ($O_3$) is a much more powerful oxidizing agent than chlorine. It inactivates viruses (and protozoan cysts like Giardia) much more rapidly. Additionally, because it is an unstable molecule that reacts quickly, it helps in the removal of organic compounds and can effectively eliminate residual chlorine levels in water treatment processes.

Conclusion:

Both statements are scientifically accurate regarding water treatment standards.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

With reference to Augmented Reality (AR) and Virtual Reality (VR), consider the following statements:

1. AR refers to a digitally simulated experience that can mimic or alter reality.

2. VR brings digital elements into the real world through glasses or other digital devices.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option D

To determine the correct answer, we must look at the definitions of both technologies, as the statements provided have swapped their primary functions:

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The description "a digitally simulated experience that can mimic or alter reality" by creating a fully immersive environment refers to Virtual Reality (VR). In VR, the user's physical surroundings are completely replaced by a digital world.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The description "brings digital elements into the real world" refers to Augmented Reality (AR). AR overlays digital information (like images, sounds, or text) onto the actual physical environment you see around you.

Conclusion:

Since both statements are defined incorrectly, the correct answer is D) Neither 1 nor 2.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

Match the following vaccines with their types:

1. Zycov-D – DNA vaccine

2. Sputnik – Vector-based vaccine

3. Moderna – mRNA vaccine

4. Covaxin – Live attenuated vaccine

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

A One pair only

B Two pairs only

C Three pairs only

D All four pairs

Correct Answer: Option C

Based on the scientific classification of these vaccines, here is the breakdown of the matches:

Zycov-D – DNA vaccine: Correct. Developed by Zydus Cadila, this was the world’s first DNA plasmid vaccine for COVID-19.

Sputnik V – Vector-based vaccine: Correct. It uses a non-replicating viral vector (adenovirus) to deliver the genetic instructions to the body.

Moderna – mRNA vaccine: Correct. The Moderna vaccine (as well as the Pfizer-BioNTech vaccine) uses messenger RNA technology.

Covaxin – Live attenuated vaccine: Incorrect. Covaxin is an Inactivated (Killed) virus vaccine. It uses a "dead" version of the virus that cannot replicate but still triggers an immune response. (Examples of live attenuated vaccines include the Yellow Fever or MMR vaccines).

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

Match the following diseases with their causal microbes:

1. Mucormycosis – Fungus

2. Tuberculosis – Bacteria

3. Monkeypox – DNA Virus

4. Malaria – RNA Virus

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

A One pair only

B Two pairs only

C Three pairs only

D All four pairs

Correct Answer: Option C

Based on the analysis of each pair, here is the breakdown of the correctly matched diseases and their causal microbes:

Mucormycosis – Fungus: Correct. Mucormycosis (often called "black fungus") is a serious fungal infection caused by a group of molds called mucormycetes.

Tuberculosis – Bacteria: Correct. Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Monkeypox – DNA Virus: Correct. Monkeypox is caused by the monkeypox virus, which is a double-stranded DNA virus belonging to the Orthopoxvirus genus.

Malaria – RNA Virus: Incorrect. Malaria is not caused by a virus; it is caused by single-celled microorganisms called protozoan parasites (specifically of the genus Plasmodium).

Conclusion:

There are three correctly matched pairs.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology Current Affairs

Which among the following bacteria play a role in the process of denitrification?

A Nitrosomonas

B Nitrobacter

C Pseudomonas

D Rhizobium

Correct Answer: Option C

Understanding Denitrification Denitrification is a microbially facilitated process where nitrates ($NO_3^-$) are reduced and ultimately converted into gaseous nitrogen ($N_2$). This process completes the nitrogen cycle by returning nitrogen to the atmosphere. Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus are the primary genera of bacteria responsible for this process.These are generally facultative anaerobes, meaning they perform denitrification in anaerobic conditions (low oxygen), such as waterlogged soils.

Key Points for Ecology & AgricultureSoil Fertility: Denitrification is generally considered detrimental to agriculture because it removes nitrogen (a vital nutrient) from the soil and releases it into the air.Environmental Impact: If the process is incomplete, it can release Nitrous Oxide ($N_2O$), which is a potent greenhouse gas.Nitrification vs. Denitrification: While Nitrification is an aerobic process (requires oxygen), Denitrification is an anaerobic process.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology Current Affairs

Pollination carried out by butterflies is termed as:

A Ornithophily

B Elelophily

C Myrmecophily

D Psychophily

Correct Answer: Option D

Types of Biotic Pollination

Pollination by animals (zoophily) is categorized based on the specific agent involved. Here is a breakdown of the terms provided in your options:

Psychophily: Pollination by butterflies. These flowers are typically brightly colored (often red or yellow), have a strong scent, and provide a landing platform for the butterfly.

Ornithophily: Pollination by birds (such as sunbirds or hummingbirds). These flowers are usually large, tubular, and produce high amounts of nectar.

Myrmecophily: Pollination (or more commonly, a symbiotic relationship) involving ants.

Malacophily: Pollination by snails or slugs (often confused with similar-sounding terms).

Ecological Significance

Pollination is a classic example of mutualism. The plant achieves genetic diversity through cross-pollination, while the pollinator receives a reward in the form of nectar or pollen. Butterflies, specifically, are effective long-distance pollinators, though they are generally less efficient than bees because they carry less pollen on their bodies.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology Current Affairs

Lichen represents an example of:

A Mutualism

B Commensalism

C Amensalism

D Parasitism

Correct Answer: Option A

Ecological Relationship: Mutualism

Mutualism is a type of symbiotic interaction where both organisms involved benefit from the relationship. In the case of a lichen, it is not a single organism but a complex partnership between two distinct life forms:

The Phycobiont (Algae or Cyanobacteria): Through photosynthesis, this partner produces food (carbohydrates) for the entire structure.

The Mycobiont (Fungus): The fungus provides the structural framework, protects the algae from harsh environmental conditions, and absorbs water and essential minerals from the substrate.

Why other options are incorrect:

Commensalism: One organism benefits while the other is unaffected. In lichens, both are actively contributing and benefiting.

Amensalism: One organism is harmed or inhibited, while the other remains unaffected.

Parasitism: One organism (the parasite) benefits at the expense of the other (the host), which is harmed.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology Current Affairs

A coalition of more than 50 global companies formed to send a strong market signal for the commercialization of zero-carbon technologies is known as:

A First Movers Coalition

B Global Initiative of Companies for Zero Carbon

C World Environmental Forum

D Global Environmental Forum

Correct Answer: Option A

Conceptual Breakdown

The First Movers Coalition (FMC) is a high-level global initiative aimed at creating a market for emerging green technologies.

The Mission: It targets sectors that are "hard to abate" (difficult to decarbonize), such as shipping, aviation, steel, and trucking.

The Strategy: Instead of just promising to reduce their own emissions, these companies commit to purchasing a specific percentage of near-zero-carbon products by 2030. This guaranteed demand encourages investment in new, cleaner technologies that are currently too expensive for the mass market.

Leadership: It was launched by the World Economic Forum in partnership with the US Government at COP26 in 2021.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

The processes of permafrost, glaciations, defrosting and de-glaciations are known as:

A Ardent processes

B Searing processes

C Warming processes

D Cryogenic processes

Correct Answer: Option D

The term Cryogenic comes from the Greek words kryos (meaning "ice" or "cold") and genes (meaning "born" or "produced"). In geomorphology and geology, these processes refer to the physical and chemical actions associated with frozen ground and ice.

Permafrost: Ground that remains completely frozen (at or below 0° Celsius) for at least two consecutive years.

Glaciations: The process or state of being covered by glaciers or ice sheets.

Defrosting and De-glaciations: These represent the melting phase of the cycle, where ice retreats and frozen ground thaws, significantly altering the landscape through erosion and sediment deposition.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): The solar radiation from the sun is balanced by the thermal radiations reflecting from the earth. The incoming solar radiation from the sun is independent.

Reason (R): The outgoing thermal radiation depends on the earth's surface temperature and the presence of greenhouse gases, which absorb some of the thermal radiation.

Choose the correct answer:

A Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C (A) is true but (R) is false

D (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer: Option A

Conceptual Breakdown

Assertion (A) is True:

This describes the Earth's Heat Budget. For the Earth's temperature to remain relatively stable over long periods, the amount of energy it receives from the sun (short-wave solar radiation) must be balanced by the amount of energy it sends back into space (long-wave thermal radiation). The "independent" part refers to the fact that the sun's energy output is not affected by what happens on Earth.

Reason (R) is True:

While incoming solar radiation is constant, the outgoing radiation is a "dependent" variable. It depends on:

Surface Temperature: Warmer surfaces emit more thermal radiation.

Greenhouse Gases: Gases like carbon dioxide and methane trap some of this outgoing heat, acting like a blanket.

Why (R) explains (A):

The reason explains the mechanism of the balance. The Earth maintains its thermal equilibrium (the balance mentioned in the assertion) specifically by adjusting its outgoing radiation based on its temperature and atmospheric composition. If greenhouse gases increase, the outgoing radiation is blocked, the Earth warms up, and eventually, a new balance is reached at a higher temperature.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

Which of the following statements is true?

A Benthic refers to the floor of the sea and benthos refers to plants and animals that live there.

B Benthos refers to the floor of the sea and benthic refers to plants and animals that live there.

C Benthos refers to the flora of the sea and benthic refers to animals that live there.

D Benthos and benthic both refer to animals that live there.

Correct Answer: Option A

Conceptual Breakdown

Benthic: This is an adjective used to describe the lowest ecological region of a body of water, including the sediment surface and some sub-surface layers. For example, the "benthic zone" is the very bottom of the ocean or a lake.

Benthos: This is a noun used to describe the actual community of organisms—both flora (plants/algae) and fauna (animals)—that live in or on that bottom layer.

Common examples of benthos include:

Animals: Crabs, lobsters, sea stars, oysters, and worms.

Plants/Algae: Seaweeds and seagrasses (in shallower areas where sunlight reaches).

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

The equation dN/dt = rN describes pattern of population:

A Exponential growth

B Hyperbolic growth

C Logistic growth

D Rectangular growth

Correct Answer: Option A

Conceptual Breakdown

The equation described represents Exponential Growth, often called geometric growth. Here is how it works in plain language:

The Process: This model assumes that a population has access to unlimited resources, such as food, water, and space. Because nothing is stopping the population from expanding, it grows faster and faster as the number of individuals increases.

The Result: This leads to a rapid "explosion" in numbers. When you look at this on a graph, it creates a J-shaped curve. The line starts relatively flat but eventually shoots almost straight up.

The Components: The rate of change in the population is determined by the "intrinsic rate of natural increase." This is essentially the birth rate minus the death rate. If the birth rate is higher than the death rate and resources are infinite, you get this specific type of growth.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): Small animals have a larger surface area relative to their volume.

Reason (R): They lose body heat when it’s cold outside.

Choose the correct answer:

A Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C (A) is true but (R) is false

D (A) is false but (R) is true

Correct Answer: Option B

Conceptual BreakdownAssertion (A) is True:This is a mathematical and biological principle. As an object (or animal) decreases in size, its surface area-to-volume ratio ($SA:V$) increases. For example, a small shrew has much more skin surface relative to its internal body mass than an elephant does.Reason (R) is True:Because small animals have a high $SA:V$ ratio, they have more surface (skin) through which heat can escape. Consequently, they lose body heat very rapidly in cold environments. This is why you rarely find very small endothermic (warm-blooded) animals in extremely cold polar regions—they would have to eat constantly just to maintain their body temperature.Why (R) is NOT the explanation for (A):The Reason (R) describes a consequence of the Assertion, not the cause. The cause of Assertion (A) is geometric scaling, not heat loss. If the question asked, "Small animals tend to struggle in cold climates because they have a large surface area relative to their volume," then the logic would follow. Here, the heat loss doesn't cause them to have a large surface area; the large surface area causes the heat loss.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

Which of the following bacterium is called the superbug that is used for oil degradation?

A Staphylococcus aureus

B Streptococcus pyrogenes

C Pseudomonas putida

D Bacillus subtilis

Correct Answer: Option C

Why it is called the "Superbug"

Pseudomonas putida is often referred to as a "superbug" in the context of bioremediation. It was the first genetically engineered organism to be patented. Dr. Ananda Mohan Chakrabarty, an Indian-American microbiologist, modified this bacterium in the 1970s by introducing different plasmids that allow it to break down various components of crude oil.

Role in Oil Degradation

Oil spills are complex mixtures of hydrocarbons. While natural bacteria can sometimes break these down, they are usually slow and can only handle one type of molecule. Pseudomonas putida was engineered to:

Consume complex hydrocarbons: It can digest several types of hydrocarbons (like octane, camphor, and salicylate) simultaneously.

Rapid Clean-up: It breaks down these pollutants into simpler, non-toxic substances like carbon dioxide and water much faster than naturally occurring strains.

Bioremediation: This process of using living organisms to remove contaminants from the environment is essential for cleaning up maritime oil spills.

Overview of Other Options

To give you the full context for your exams, here is a quick breakdown of the other bacteria mentioned:

Staphylococcus aureus: A common bacterium often found on the skin or in the nose. While usually harmless, it can cause various infections and is well-known for "MRSA" (methicillin-resistant strains).

Streptococcus pyogenes: A major human pathogen responsible for many diseases, ranging from "strep throat" to more serious conditions like scarlet fever.

Bacillus subtilis: A soil-dwelling bacterium used extensively in labs and industry. It is known for its ability to form tough, protective endospores, allowing it to survive extreme environmental conditions.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Consider the following statements:

1. GDP evaluated at current market price is not the right metric to compare the GDP figures of different countries.

2. Nominal GDP is calculated in a way such that the goods and services are evaluated at some constant set of prices.

3. If the Real GDP changes, we can be sure that it is the volume of production which is undergoing changes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A 1 and 2

B 2 and 3

C 1 and 3

D 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: Option C

Analysis of Statements

GDP evaluated at current market price is not the right metric to compare the GDP figures of different countries.

Correct. GDP at current market prices (Nominal GDP) is influenced by inflation and fluctuating exchange rates. Because different countries have different price levels and currency values, comparing them directly using current market prices can be misleading. Economists typically use Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) or Real GDP for more accurate international comparisons.

Nominal GDP is calculated in a way such that the goods and services are evaluated at some constant set of prices.

Incorrect. This is the definition of Real GDP. Nominal GDP evaluates goods and services at current year prices. Because it uses current prices, Nominal GDP can increase simply because prices went up (inflation), even if the actual output of goods remained the same.

If the Real GDP changes, we can be sure that it is the volume of production which is undergoing changes.

Correct. Real GDP is calculated using a base year (constant prices). By keeping prices fixed, any change in the Real GDP value must mathematically result from a change in the physical quantity (volume) of goods and services produced.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Consider the following statements:

1. If the fiscal deficit ratio is too high, it leads to higher rates of interest for the borrowings of private entrepreneurs and businesses.

2. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 suggests bringing the fiscal deficit down to about 3% plus or minus 2% of the GDP.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option A

Here is the conceptual analysis of the statements:

Statement 1 is correct: This refers to the "Crowding Out Effect." When the government’s fiscal deficit is high, it borrows heavily from the market to bridge the gap. This massive demand for loanable funds reduces the supply available for the private sector and pushes up the interest rates. Consequently, it becomes more expensive for private entrepreneurs and businesses to borrow for investment.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While the FRBM Act, 2003, and subsequent amendments (including the N.K. Singh Committee recommendations) do target a fiscal deficit of 3% of the GDP, it does not include a "plus or minus 2%" flexibility clause like the inflation targeting framework of the RBI. The Act provides for specific "escape clauses" (up to 0.5%) under extraordinary circumstances like national security, calamity, or structural reforms, but the "3% +/- 2%" target is not a provision of the FRBM Act.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Consider the following statements about National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):

1. It is a "Not for Profit" company under the provisions of Section 8 of Companies Act, 2013.

2. It is set up to provide infrastructure to the entire banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems.

3. National Financial Switch (NFS) and Cheque Truncation System (CTS) are the flagship products of NPCI.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A 1 and 2

B 2 and 3

C 1 and 3

D 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: Option D

All three statements accurately reflect the structure and role of the NPCI:

Statement 1 is correct: The NPCI was established as a "Not for Profit" company under Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 (which corresponds to Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013). It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA).

Statement 2 is correct: It acts as an umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India. Its mandate is to provide a robust infrastructure to the entire banking system, covering both physical (like cheques) and electronic (like UPI and IMPS) payment methods.

Statement 3 is correct: While UPI is the most famous product today, National Financial Switch (NFS) (the network of shared ATMs) and Cheque Truncation System (CTS) (the electronic image-based clearing of cheques) are foundational flagship products managed by the NPCI that revolutionized banking operations in India.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Bonds:

1. A sovereign bond is a specific debt instrument issued by the government in both foreign and domestic currency.

2. The yield of the sovereign bond is the interest rate that the government pays on issuing bonds.

3. The central banks also control the supply of money within the economy by the use of these bonds.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A 1 and 2

B 1 and 3

C 2 and 3

D 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: Option D

Here is the conceptual breakdown for each statement:

Statement 1 is correct: A sovereign bond is a debt security issued by a national government to finance its spending. These can be denominated in both the domestic currency (e.g., Rupee-denominated G-Secs) or in foreign currencies (e.g., Eurobonds or Dollar-denominated bonds) to attract international investors.

Statement 2 is correct: The yield represents the effective interest rate or the return an investor realizes on a bond. While the "coupon rate" is fixed at issuance, the yield fluctuates based on the bond's market price, reflecting the actual cost of borrowing for the government at any given time.

Statement 3 is correct: Central banks (like the RBI) use these bonds as a primary tool for Open Market Operations (OMO). By purchasing bonds, the central bank injects liquidity (money) into the economy; by selling bonds, it absorbs excess liquidity to control inflation and manage the money supply.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Consider the following statements regarding Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) of Reserve Bank of India:

1. It aims to monitor the operation of weaker banks more closely to encourage them to conserve capital and avoid risks.

2. It imposes certain restrictions on dividend distribution and expansion of branches by banks that are financially weak.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option D

This question requires careful reading, as it asks for the incorrect statements. Here is the breakdown of why both statements are actually correct, making "Neither" the right choice:

Statement 1 is correct: The Prompt Corrective Action framework is designed by the Reserve Bank of India to identify and closely monitor banks with weak financial metrics, specifically concerning capital adequacy, asset quality, and profitability. The primary objective is to intervene early and encourage these banks to conserve capital and avoid taking on further financial risks.

Statement 2 is correct: When a bank falls under the Prompt Corrective Action framework, the Reserve Bank of India triggers mandatory corrective actions to halt further financial deterioration. These restrictions explicitly include halting dividend distributions and stopping the expansion of new branches. Depending on the severity, it may also cap management compensation and restrict certain types of lending.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Which among the following statements are correct regarding share market operations?

1. Bear is a person who speculates share prices to fall in future and so sells his shares and earns a profit.

2. Bull is a person who speculates share prices to go up in future so either stops selling selected shares for a time period.

3. A Bull increases the number of shares in a stock market.

4. A Bear creates a scarcity of shares in the stock market.

The correct statements are:

A 1 and 2

B 1, 2 and 3

C 1, 3 and 4

D 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: Option A

This is a well-framed conceptual question for testing aspirants on the foundational terminology of stock market behaviors. Here is a clear breakdown of why the statements evaluate this way:

Statement 1 is correct: A "Bear" is a market participant who expects share prices to fall. They sell their current holdings with the intent to buy them back later at a lower price, thereby securing a profit from the decline.

Statement 2 is correct: A "Bull" is an investor who expects share prices to rise. They buy shares and hold onto them, effectively stopping the sale of those selected shares for a period of time to maximize future returns.

Statement 3 is incorrect: A Bull does not increase the number of shares in the stock market. Because Bulls buy and hold shares, they actually absorb the available supply, taking those shares out of active circulation and reducing the number available for trading.

Statement 4 is incorrect: A Bear does not create a scarcity of shares. By aggressively selling off their holdings, Bears flood the market with shares, actively increasing the supply available to other traders.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Which among the following statements are correct regarding share market operations?

1. Bear is a person who speculates share prices to fall in future and so sells his shares and earns a profit.

2. Bull is a person who speculates share prices to go up in future so either stops selling selected shares for a time period.

3. A Bull increases the number of shares in a stock market.

4. A Bear creates a scarcity of shares in the stock market.

The correct statements are:

A 1 and 2

B 1, 2 and 3

C 1, 3 and 4

D 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: Option A

Detailed Analysis of the Statements:

Statement 1 is Correct: A Bear is a pessimistic speculator. They believe that the prices of securities will fall in the near future. To capitalize on this, they sell shares (often through short-selling) with the intention of buying them back later at a lower price, thus pocketing the difference as profit. Their action of selling "heavy" puts downward pressure on the market.

Statement 2 is Correct: A Bull is an optimistic speculator. They expect share prices to rise. To benefit from this, they buy shares or hold onto their existing portfolio (avoiding sales) to sell them later at a higher peak. Their buying activity drives prices upward.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: A Bull does not "increase the number of shares" in the market. The total number of shares is determined by the issuing companies (via IPOs or FPOs). A Bull increases the demand for shares, not the supply or the absolute quantity available in the market.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: A Bear does not create a "scarcity" of shares. Scarcity occurs when demand exceeds supply. Since Bears are selling their holdings or short-selling, they are actually increasing the supply of shares available on the exchange, which is what leads to a price drop.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Which of the following could be said to have prevented 'trickle-down effects' in the Indian economy?

1. Increased dependence of agriculture on purchased input and privately managed irrigation.

2. More employment of labour by larger landholding farmers.

3. Lower participation of women in the agricultural workforce due to new technology.

4. The failure of the Green Revolution.

A 1 and 2

B 2 and 3

C 1 and 3

D 2 and 4

Correct Answer: Option C

Analysis of the Statements

The "Trickle-down effect" suggests that economic growth or progress at the top (e.g., wealthy farmers or industrial sectors) will naturally benefit the poor through job creation and increased demand. In the Indian agricultural context, several factors hindered this process:

Increased dependence on purchased inputs and private irrigation: TRUE. The Green Revolution shifted agriculture from a self-sustaining model to one requiring expensive seeds (HYV), fertilizers, and private tube wells. Because only wealthy farmers could afford these, the "wealth" stayed concentrated, and small/marginal farmers often fell into debt rather than benefiting from the progress.

More employment of labour by larger landholding farmers: FALSE. If larger farmers had employed more labor, it would have been a success of the trickle-down effect (wealth reaching the laborers via wages). In reality, large farmers moved toward mechanization (tractors, harvesters), which actually reduced the demand for manual labor.

Lower participation of women due to new technology: TRUE. As technology and mechanization were introduced, traditional roles often held by women were displaced. This reduced the household income of the poorest families, preventing the benefits of agricultural growth from "trickling down" to the most vulnerable gender and class groups.

The failure of the Green Revolution: FALSE. The Green Revolution did not "fail" in terms of production; it was a massive success in making India food-secure. The issue was its uneven distribution (geographical and social), but calling it a "failure" is factually incorrect in an economic context.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

In India, the Broad Money (M3) measures money supply as the sum of:

A Currency with the public + Demand Deposits with banks + Other Deposits with RBI

B Currency with the public + Demand Deposits with banks + Other Deposits with RBI + Time Deposits with banks

C Demand Deposits with banks + Other Deposits with RBI + Saving Deposits with post office + Currency with the public

D Currency with the public + Demand Deposits with banks + Other Deposits with RBI + Total post office deposits

Correct Answer: Option B

Analysis of the Options

In India, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses four measures of money supply ($M1$, $M2$, $M3$, and $M4$). These are categorized based on their liquidity.

Option A ($M1$): This represents Narrow Money. It includes the most liquid assets: Currency (Notes + Coins) held by the public, Demand Deposits (Savings and Current accounts), and "Other" deposits with the RBI.

Option B ($M3$): This represents Broad Money. It takes everything in $M1$ and adds Time Deposits (Fixed Deposits and Recurring Deposits) held with the banking system. It is called "Broad" because it includes money that is not immediately available for transactions but can be converted into cash in a short time.

Option C ($M2$): This is $M1$ plus Saving Deposits with Post Office savings banks.

Option D ($M4$): This is $M3$ plus total deposits with Post Office savings organizations (excluding National Savings Certificates).

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Additional Tier-1 (AT1) bonds are used by banks to augment their core equity base and thus comply with Basel-III norms.

Reason (R): Additional Tier-1 bonds are long-term bonds.

Choose the correct one:

A Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A

B Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A

C A is true but R is false

D A is false but R is true

Correct Answer: Option C

Analysis of the Statements

Assertion (A):

This is true. AT1 bonds are a type of unsecured, perpetual bond that banks issue to meet the capital adequacy requirements set by Basel III norms. They are designed to act as a cushion; if a bank’s capital falls below a certain threshold, these bonds can be written off or converted into common equity to absorb losses, thereby protecting the bank's core equity base.

Reason (R):

This is false. AT1 bonds are technically perpetual bonds, meaning they have no maturity date. While "long-term" usually implies a specific (though distant) end date, AT1 bonds are unique because they never mature. They only feature "call options" where the bank can choose to buy them back after a certain period (usually 5 or 10 years), but the investor cannot force the bank to pay them back. Therefore, categorizing them simply as "long-term bonds" is technically inaccurate in a regulatory sense.

Understanding AT1 Bonds

No Maturity: Unlike regular bonds, there is no date on which the principal must be returned.

High Risk, High Return: Because they are "subordinated" debt (meaning they are paid last in case of failure) and can be written off during a crisis, they offer higher interest rates than regular bonds.

Regulatory Purpose: They are part of Tier 1 Capital, which is the primary funding source of a bank and consists of its most reliable forms of capital.

The "Point of Non-Viability" (PONV): If the RBI or relevant authority decides a bank is no longer viable, it can trigger a clause that allows the bank to stop paying interest or even cancel the principal of AT1 bonds entirely to save itself.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Which among the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to the Indian economy?

1. Demonetisation is the act of stripping money of its legal tender status.

2. An increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio by the Reserve Bank of India increases the money multiplication in the market.

3. Haircut reflects the borrower's perception of the risk of falls in the value of assets.

Select the correct option:

A 1 and 2 only

B 2 and 3 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 1 only

Correct Answer: Option D

Analysis of the Statements

1. Demonetisation is the act of stripping money of its legal tender status.

TRUE. Demonetisation is a drastic monetary step where a currency unit's status as legal tender is withdrawn. It occurs when there is a change of national currency or when the government intends to curb "black money" or counterfeiting.

2. An increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by the Reserve Bank of India increases the money multiplication in the market.

FALSE. The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the percentage of total deposits that commercial banks must keep as cash with the RBI.

If the RBI increases the CRR, banks have less money available to lend to consumers.

This leads to a decrease in the money supply and a lower money multiplier effect.

Money multiplication is inversely related to the reserve ratio.

3. Haircut reflects the borrower's perception of the risk of falls in the value of assets.

FALSE. While the definition of a "haircut" involves the risk of falling asset values, the perception belongs to the lender, not the borrower. A haircut is the difference between the market value of an asset used as loan collateral and the actual amount of the loan granted. The lender applies this "discount" to protect themselves against potential fluctuations in the asset's price.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Match the following Schedules and subjects they deal with:

1. Schedule 3 – Oath and affirmation

2. Schedule 4 – Seats allotted to Rajya Sabha

3. Schedule 5 – Division of Powers

4. Schedule 8 – Languages

How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A Only one pair

B Only two pairs

C Only three pairs

D All the four pairs

Correct Answer: Option C

Detailed Analysis of the Matches

To determine how many pairs are correct, let’s look at the actual provisions of the Indian Constitution:

Schedule 3 – Oath and Affirmation: CORRECT. This schedule contains the forms of oath or affirmations for Union Ministers, Candidates for election to Parliament, MPs, Supreme Court Judges, the CAG, State Ministers, State Legislature candidates, MLAs, and High Court Judges.

Schedule 4 – Seats allotted to Rajya Sabha: CORRECT. This schedule deals with the allocation of seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) to the various States and Union Territories.

Schedule 5 – Division of Powers: INCORRECT. Schedule 5 actually deals with the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. The "Division of Powers" (Union, State, and Concurrent Lists) is found in the 7th Schedule.

Schedule 8 – Languages: CORRECT. This schedule lists the 22 official languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Final Count: Pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched. Pair 3 is mismatched.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Sunset clause in legislation is one which provides that after a particular date it ceases to exist.

Reason (R): Sunset clause is a provision to avoid stagnation in the legislative process by removing unwanted laws of the time.

Choose the correct one:

A Both A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A

B Both A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A

C A is true but R is false

D A is false but R is true

Correct Answer: Option A

Analysis of the Statements

Assertion (A):

This is a factually accurate definition. A Sunset Clause (or sunset provision) is a specific measure within a statute that mandates the law will automatically expire on a specific date unless the legislature takes proactive steps to extend it. It essentially gives the law a "shelf life."

Reason (R):

This explains the administrative and legal philosophy behind the clause. The primary purpose is to ensure that laws do not become obsolete or redundant. It prevents "legislative creep," where outdated regulations continue to exist simply because no one has taken the time to repeal them. By forcing a mandatory review, it ensures that only necessary and effective laws remain on the books.

Why R explains A:

The reason the law "ceases to exist" (the sunset) is specifically designed to facilitate this "removal of unwanted laws." Therefore, the Reason (R) provides the logical justification for why the mechanism described in the Assertion (A) is implemented in the first place.

In the context of governance, sunset clauses are often found in:

Temporary Tax Laws: Where a tax is levied only for a specific recovery period.

Emergency or Security Legislation: Laws that grant extraordinary powers (like TADA or POTA in India's history) often include these clauses to ensure they are not used indefinitely.

Economic Incentives: Provisions that are meant to jumpstart an industry but are intended to be phased out once the industry is self-sufficient.

Benefits of Sunset Clauses

Accountability: It forces the government to evaluate the performance of a law before renewing it.

Efficiency: It keeps the legal code lean and relevant to current societal needs.

Flexibility: It allows for "experimental" legislation where a policy can be tested for a few years without a permanent commitment.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

The theory of Separation of Powers was advocated by which of the following political and constitutional philosophers?

A Hobbes

B Montesquieu

C Locke

D Mussolini

Correct Answer: Option B

Understanding the Theory

The theory of Separation of Powers is a fundamental principle of modern democracies. It suggests that to prevent the abuse of power and protect individual liberty, the functions of government should be divided among distinct branches.

The Philosophers Mentioned

Montesquieu (Baron de Montesquieu): In his 1748 masterpiece, The Spirit of the Laws, he argued that "power should be a check to power." He proposed dividing the state into three branches: the Legislative, the Executive, and the Judiciary. This model heavily influenced the United States Constitution and modern democratic frameworks worldwide.

John Locke: While Locke also advocated for a division of power (Legislative and Executive) in his Two Treatises of Government, he did not formalize the three-fold separation as clearly as Montesquieu did.

Thomas Hobbes: He was an advocate of Absolute Sovereignty. In his work Leviathan, he argued that power must be centralized in a single authority (the Monarch) to maintain order and prevent social chaos.

Benito Mussolini: He was the founder of Fascism. His ideology was the opposite of the separation of powers; it favored Totalitarianism, where all state power is concentrated in a single leader.

Application in India

While India follows the British parliamentary system (where the Executive is part of the Legislature), the Constitution still maintains a functional separation:

Legislature: Makes laws (Parliament).

Executive: Implements laws (President, PM, Council of Ministers, and Bureaucracy).

Judiciary: Interprets laws and settles disputes (Supreme Court and High Courts).

India practices a system of Checks and Balances rather than a rigid, watertight separation. For example, the Judiciary can declare laws unconstitutional, but the Legislature has the power to amend the Constitution.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Consider the following statements:

1. The word ‘Cabinet’ was not a part of the original Constitution; it was added in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.

2. ‘Ministers’ refers to members of the Council of Ministers, but does not include Deputy Ministers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option A

Analysis of Statement 1: Correct

Original Constitution: The word "Cabinet" did not appear anywhere in the original text of the Constitution of India. The Constitution originally referred only to the "Council of Ministers."

The Change: The word was inserted into Article 352 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978. This was done during the post-Emergency period to ensure that the President could only proclaim a National Emergency after receiving a written recommendation from the entire Cabinet (the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank), rather than just the Prime Minister alone.

Analysis of Statement 2: Incorrect

The term "Ministers" or the Council of Ministers is a broad category. According to the constitutional setup and the Salaries and Allowances of Ministers Act, the Council of Ministers consists of three categories:

Cabinet Ministers

Ministers of State

Deputy Ministers

Therefore, saying that "Ministers" does not include Deputy Ministers is factually wrong in the context of the Council of Ministers. All three tiers are part of the Ministry.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Identify the correct match:

1. Chief Justice of India

2. Judges of Supreme Court

3. Speaker of Lok Sabha

4. Attorney General

How many statements given above is/are correct?

A Only one statement

B Only two statements

C Only three statements

D All the four statements

Correct Answer: Option B

1. Chief Justice of India (CJI)

Key Match: Appointed by the President of India; holds office until the age of 65 years; administers the oath to the President.

2. Judges of the Supreme Court

Key Match: Appointed by the President after consultation with the Collegium; can be removed only by Impeachment (Presidential order after an address by Parliament).

3. Speaker of Lok Sabha

Key Match: Elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members; presides over Joint Sittings of Parliament; decides whether a bill is a Money Bill.

4. Attorney General

Key Match: Appointed by the President; holds office during the pleasure of the President; has the right to speak in proceedings of either House of Parliament but cannot vote.

Analysis of Your Question

If your source material provided different definitions (for example, if it said the Attorney General is elected by Parliament), that would be an incorrect match.

Based on standard Constitutional provisions:

If all four were matched to the descriptions above, the answer would be D) All four.

If the descriptions were swapped (e.g., saying the Speaker is appointed by the President), the count of "correct matches" would decrease.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India does not declare the location of the seat of the Supreme Court.

2. The Chief Justice of India can appoint other places as the seat of the Supreme Court only after the approval of the President.

3. The President of India can order the Supreme Court to change its seat of location.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3

B 1 and 3

C 2 only

D 1 and 2

Correct Answer: Option C

Analysis of the Statements

1. The Constitution of India does not declare the location of the seat of the Supreme Court.

Status: Incorrect.

Details: Unlike many other provisions, the Constitution does explicitly declare the location. Article 130 states: "The Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi..."

2. The Chief Justice of India can appoint other places as the seat of the Supreme Court only after the approval of the President.

Status: Correct.

Details: While Delhi is the declared seat, the Constitution allows for flexibility. The Chief Justice of India (CJI) has the authority to appoint another place (or places) as the seat of the Supreme Court. However, the CJI cannot do this independently; they must obtain the prior approval of the President.

3. The President of India can order the Supreme Court to change its seat of location.

Status: Incorrect.

Details: The power to initiate a change of seat rests solely with the Chief Justice of India. While the President must approve the decision, the President cannot compel or order the CJI to move the court or establish a bench elsewhere. This provision is designed to protect the independence of the judiciary.

Key Points of Article 130

Default Seat: Delhi.

Discretionary Power: Vested in the Chief Justice of India.

Mandatory Requirement: Approval from the President.

Nature of Provision: It is "optional" and not "compulsory." No court can give a direction to the CJI to establish a seat or bench elsewhere.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Altruistic surrogacy involves no monetary compensation to the surrogate mother.

Reason (R): Only medical expenses and insurance coverage during the pregnancy are given.

Choose the correct option:

A Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C A is true but R is false

D A is false but R is true

Correct Answer: Option A

Understanding Altruistic Surrogacy

Assertion (A): Altruistic surrogacy involves no monetary compensation to the surrogate mother.

Status: Correct.

Details: Under Indian law, "altruistic surrogacy" is the only legal form of surrogacy. It prohibits commercial surrogacy, meaning the surrogate mother cannot be paid any "fee," "reward," or "remuneration" for her services or for "renting" her womb.

Reason (R): Only medical expenses and insurance coverage during the pregnancy are given.

Status: Correct.

Details: While the surrogate cannot be paid a salary or fee, the law recognizes that she should not bear the financial burden of the pregnancy. Therefore, the intending parents are legally required to cover her medical bills and provide an insurance policy to protect her health during the term and for a specified period after delivery.

Why R explains A:

The Reason (R) defines the specific financial boundaries of "altruistic surrogacy." It explains why the process is considered non-monetary: because the only funds exchanged are strictly for healthcare and protection (expenses), rather than for profit or compensation (income).

Key Legal Context: The 2021 Act

Ban on Commercial Surrogacy: The Act was passed to prevent the exploitation of women and the "commodification" of children.

Eligibility: Previously, only close relatives could be surrogates. However, recent judicial interventions and rules have slightly expanded the criteria, though the "altruistic" nature remains the core requirement.

Intending Parents: They must be a married couple (woman aged twenty three to fifty, man aged twenty six to fifty five) or a widow/divorcee (aged thirty five to forty five) with a certificate of essentiality.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Which of the following do NOT participate in the process of election of President of India?

1. Nominated members of both Houses of Parliament

2. Nominated members of Legislative Assemblies

3. Elected members of Legislative Councils

4. Elected members of UT Legislative Assemblies

How many statements given above is/are correct?

A Only one statement

B Only two statements

C Only three statements

D All the four statements

Correct Answer: Option C

Analysis of the Participants

1. Nominated members of both Houses of Parliament

Status: Do NOT participate. Only elected members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha can vote.

Result: This statement is a correct identification of a non-participant.

2. Nominated members of Legislative Assemblies

Status: Do NOT participate. Only the elected members (MLAs) of the State Legislative Assemblies are part of the Electoral College.

Result: This statement is a correct identification of a non-participant.

3. Elected members of Legislative Councils

Status: Do NOT participate. Members of the Legislative Councils (MLCs) in bicameral states have no role in the Presidential election, whether they are elected or nominated.

Result: This statement is a correct identification of a non-participant.

4. Elected members of UT Legislative Assemblies

Status: They DO participate. The 70th Amendment Act of 1992 included the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry in the Electoral College. (Note: This now also includes Jammu and Kashmir under the Reorganisation Act).

Result: This statement is an incorrect identification of a non-participant.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I

a) Independence of Judiciary

b) Executive Legislation

c) Quasi-judicial function

d) Collective responsibility

List II

1. Administrative Adjudication

2. Parliamentary form of Government

3. Appointment and transfer of Judges

4. Ordinance

A (a)2 (b)1 (c)4 (d)3

B (a)3 (b)4 (c)1 (d)2

C (a)2 (b)4 (c)1 (d)3

D (a)3 (b)1 (c)4 (d)2

Correct Answer: Option B

Detailed Matching and Explanation

a) Independence of Judiciary — 3) Appointment and transfer of Judges

Explanation: The independence of the judiciary is maintained through a specific process of appointment and transfer that limits interference from the executive. In India, this is largely managed through the "Collegium System," which ensures that judges are not subject to political pressure.

b) Executive Legislation — 4) Ordinance

Explanation: Typically, making laws is the job of the Legislature. However, under Article 123 (for the President) and Article 213 (for Governors), the Executive can issue an Ordinance when Parliament or the State Assembly is not in session. This is a form of "Executive Legislation."

c) Quasi-judicial function — 1) Administrative Adjudication

Explanation: When administrative bodies or tribunals (which are part of the executive branch) resolve disputes or exercise powers similar to a court, it is called Administrative Adjudication. Because they act like a court but are not part of the formal judiciary, their function is termed "Quasi-judicial."

d) Collective responsibility — 2) Parliamentary form of Government

Explanation: Collective responsibility is the "bedrock" principle of the parliamentary system. As per Article 75, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means the entire ministry sinks or swims together; if a No-Confidence Motion is passed, the whole cabinet must resign.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

What is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention?

A The Finance Minister is to be a member of the Lower House

B The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses the majority in the Lower House

C All sections of India are to be represented in the Councils of Ministers

D If both the President and the Vice President demit office simultaneously before the end of the tenure, Speaker of the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President

Correct Answer: Option B

Analysis of the Options

A) The Finance Minister is to be a member of the Lower House

Status: Incorrect (as a rule).

Details: There is no such rule or even a strict convention. Several Finance Ministers, including Manmohan Singh and Arun Jaitley, have served while being members of the Rajya Sabha (Upper House).

B) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses the majority in the Lower House

Status: Correct (Convention).

Details: Article 75 simply states that the Council of Ministers shall be "collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha)." It does not explicitly state that the PM must resign upon losing a majority. However, following the British Westminster model, this is a binding convention. If a PM loses a No-Confidence Motion, they are expected to resign immediately.

C) All sections of India are to be represented in the Councils of Ministers

Status: Incorrect.

Details: This is a political aspiration or a matter of administrative pragmatism, but it is neither a written constitutional requirement nor a strictly followed formal convention.

D) If both the President and the Vice President demit office... the Speaker will officiate...

Status: Incorrect.

Details: This is governed by the President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969. According to this law, if both offices are vacant, the Chief Justice of India (CJI)—not the Speaker—officiates as the President.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Consider the following statements:

1. Unlike the Rajya Sabha Chairman, the Speaker of Lok Sabha cannot suspend a member without adopting a motion for suspension.

2. While the Rajya Sabha Chairman is empowered to place a member under suspension, the authority for revocation of this order is not vested in him.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option C

Analysis of the Statements

1. Unlike the Rajya Sabha Chairman, the Speaker of Lok Sabha cannot suspend a member without adopting a motion for suspension.

Status: Incorrect.

Details: Under Rule 374A of the Lok Sabha Rules, the Speaker has the power of "Automatic Suspension." If the Speaker names a member for persistently obstructing business, that member stands automatically suspended for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less. No formal motion is required. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, however, does not have this power; the Rajya Sabha must pass a formal motion to suspend a member.

2. While the Rajya Sabha Chairman is empowered to place a member under suspension, the authority for revocation of this order is not vested in him.

Status: Incorrect.

Details: As mentioned above, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is not empowered to suspend a member on his own authority; he can only "name" the member, and then a motion must be moved and passed by the House. Since the House suspends the member, only the House (by a motion) can revoke that suspension. The statement is incorrect because it wrongly attributes the power of suspension to the Chairman.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

The Incremental Model of Policy Making was propounded by:

A James Anderson

B Charles Lindblom

C Robert Haveman

D Etzioni

Correct Answer: Option B

Understanding the Incremental Model

1. The "Branch" vs. "Root" Method

In 1959, Charles Lindblom published a famous paper titled "The Science of 'Muddling Through'." He argued that policymakers do not usually conduct a comprehensive, "root" (rational) analysis of every possible option. Instead, they use the "branch" method, where they make small, cautious adjustments to existing policies.

2. Key Characteristics

Marginal Changes: Policy is viewed as a continuation of past activities with only incremental modifications.

Political Feasibility: It is easier to reach a consensus on small changes than on radical transformations.

Trial and Error: By making small steps, policymakers can easily reverse course if a decision leads to unforeseen negative consequences.

Analysis of Other Options

James Anderson (A): Known for the Policy Cycle model (Agenda setting, Formulation, Adoption, Implementation, and Evaluation).

Etzioni (D): Amitai Etzioni proposed the Mixed Scanning Model, which attempts to combine the high-level perspective of the Rational Model with the practical detail of the Incremental Model.

Robert Haveman (C): A prominent economist known for his work on the economics of the public sector and poverty, rather than the specific propounding of the Incremental Model.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Consider the following statements regarding CJI appointment:

1. The Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs would, at the appropriate time, seek the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice of India for appointment of the next CJI.

2. Whenever there is any doubt about the fitness of the senior-most Judge to hold the office of CJI, consultation with other Judges as envisaged in Article 124(2) would be made.

3. After receipt of the recommendation of the CJI, the Union Minister will put up the recommendation to the President.

The correct statement/s is/are:

A 1, 2 and 3

B 2 and 3

C 1 only

D 1 and 2

Correct Answer: Option D

Analysis of the Statements1. The Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs would, at the appropriate time, seek the recommendation of the outgoing CJI.Status: Correct.Details: According to the MoP, the process begins when the Union Law Minister initiates the proposal and requests a recommendation from the outgoing CJI. This usually happens about a month before the incumbent's retirement.2. Whenever there is any doubt about the fitness of the senior-most Judge, consultation with other Judges as envisaged in Article 124(2) would be made.Status: Correct.Details: While the convention is to appoint the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court, if there is a doubt regarding their "fitness" (physical or mental) to hold office, the outgoing CJI must consult with other judges in accordance with the spirit of Article 124 of the Constitution.3. After receipt of the recommendation of the CJI, the Union Minister will put up the recommendation to the President.Status: Incorrect.Details: There is an intermediate step involving the Prime Minister. After receiving the recommendation from the CJI, the Union Law Minister must first forward it to the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister then advises the President on the appointment.The Process at a GlanceInitiation: Union Law Minister asks the outgoing CJI for a name.Selection: Convention dictates the senior-most judge is named.Recommendation Path: Outgoing CJI $\rightarrow$ Law Minister $\rightarrow$ Prime Minister $\rightarrow$ President.Final Act: The President appoints the new CJI under their hand and seal.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Identify the correct match of the Indian Parliamentary Closure Motions and their definitions:

1. Simple Closure – A member moves that the matter has been sufficiently discussed and be now put to vote.

2. Closure by Compartments – Only important clauses are taken up for debate and voting, intervening clauses are skipped over.

3. Kangaroo Closure – Clauses of a bill are grouped into parts before debate; debate covers the part as a whole and entire part is put to vote.

4. Guillotine Closure – Undiscussed clauses of a bill/resolution are also put to vote along with discussed ones due to want of time.

How many statements given above are correct?

A Only one statement

B Only two statements

C Only three statements

D All four statements

Correct Answer: Option B

Analysis of the Statements

1. Simple Closure

Definition: A member moves that the matter has been sufficiently discussed and be now put to vote.

Status: Correct. This is the most basic form of a closure motion.

2. Closure by Compartments

Definition: Clauses of a bill or a resolution are grouped into parts (compartments) before the debate starts. The debate covers the part as a whole, and the entire part is put to vote.

Status: Incorrect. The definition provided in the question for "Closure by Compartments" actually describes "Kangaroo Closure," and vice versa.

3. Kangaroo Closure

Definition: Only important clauses are taken up for debate and voting, and the intervening clauses are skipped over as if they have been passed.

Status: Incorrect. As noted above, the definitions for statements 2 and 3 have been swapped in your list.

4. Guillotine Closure

Definition: This occurs when the undiscussed clauses of a bill or a resolution are also put to vote along with the discussed ones due to a lack of time (usually on the last day of the allotted period).

Status: Correct. This is a common practice during the "Budget Session" when several demands for grants are passed without discussion.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Arrange the following officials based on the Order of Precedence:

1. Chief Election Commissioner

2. Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration

3. Attorney General

4. Chief of Staff holding rank of General

A 2 – 1 – 3 – 4

B 2 – 1 – 4 – 3

C 1 – 2 – 4 – 3

D 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Correct Answer: Option B

Detailed Rank Breakdown

According to the official Table of Precedence:

Rank 7A: Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration (2)

Individuals honored with India's highest civilian award occupy a very high position, placed just below Union Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of States.

Rank 9: Chief Election Commissioner (1)

The Chief Election Commissioner is placed in the ninth position. Interestingly, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) also shares this same rank.

Rank 9A: Chief of Staff holding the rank of General (4)

The Chiefs of the three armed services (Army, Navy, and Air Force) are placed just below the Chief Election Commissioner.

Rank 11: Attorney General (3)

The Attorney General of India is placed at the eleventh position. This rank is also shared by the Cabinet Secretary and the Lieutenant Governors within their respective Union Territories.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

The correct sequence of the following seas from East to West is:

A Caspian Sea – Aral Sea – Black Sea – Mediterranean Sea

B Aral Sea – Caspian Sea – Black Sea – Mediterranean Sea

C Black Sea – Mediterranean Sea – Aral Sea – Caspian Sea

D Mediterranean Sea – Black Sea – Caspian Sea – Aral Sea

Correct Answer: Option B

Spatial Arrangement (From East to West)

To visualize the sequence, you can track these water bodies starting from Central Asia and moving toward the Atlantic Ocean:

Aral Sea (Easternmost): Located in Central Asia between Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan. It is the furthest east in this list.

Caspian Sea: Located west of the Aral Sea. It is the world's largest inland body of water and is bordered by countries including Kazakhstan, Russia, Azerbaijan, Iran, and Turkmenistan.

Black Sea: Moving further west past the Caucasus Mountains, you find the Black Sea, bordered by Ukraine, Russia, Georgia, Turkey, Bulgaria, and Romania.

Mediterranean Sea (Westernmost): Located to the west of the Black Sea, connected via the Bosporus and Dardanelles straits. It sits between Europe, Africa, and Asia.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

If the time at Greenwich Meridian is 12:00 AM (Midnight), what would be the time at 30°W meridian?

A 8:30 PM

B 10:00 PM

C 10:30 PM

D 2:00 AM

Correct Answer: Option B

This calculation is based on how the Earth rotates in relation to time and longitude.

The Logic of the Calculation

1. The Relationship Between Distance and Time

The Earth takes twenty four hours to complete a full rotation. Because a full circle consists of three hundred and sixty degrees, we can determine that the Earth rotates fifteen degrees every hour. This means that for every one degree you move, the time changes by four minutes.

2. Calculating the Two Hour Difference

Since the location in the question is thirty degrees away from the starting point at Greenwich, we multiply those thirty degrees by the four minutes per degree. This gives us a total of one hundred and twenty minutes, which is exactly two hours.

3. Determining the Direction

A simple rule to remember is that time is ahead as you move East and behind as you move West. Because the question specifies thirty degrees West, the time at that location must be earlier than the time at Greenwich.

4. The Final Result

If it is exactly Midnight at the Greenwich Meridian, we must count back two hours to find the time at the Western location. Moving back one hour brings us to eleven at night, and moving back a second hour brings us to ten at night.

Summary for Time Zones

Moving East: Add four minutes for every degree.

Moving West: Subtract four minutes for every degree.

Fifteen Degree Blocks: Each fifteen degree section represents a one hour difference.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Arrange the main peaks of Western Ghats in descending order of elevation:

i. Doddabetta

ii. Ooty

iii. Anamudi

iv. Pushpagiri

A iii, ii, i, iv

B iii, i, ii, iv

C i, ii, iii, iv

D i, iv, iii, ii

Correct Answer: Option B

Vertical Arrangement of Peaks (Descending Order)

Anamudi (iii)

Elevation: 2,695 meters.

Location: Eravikulam National Park, Kerala.

Significance: It is the highest peak in the Western Ghats and all of South India. It is located at the junction of the Anaimalai, Palani, and Cardamom Hills.

Doddabetta (i)

Elevation: 2,637 meters.

Location: Nilgiri District, Tamil Nadu.

Significance: It is the highest peak in the Nilgiri Hills and the second-highest in the Western Ghats.

Ooty / Udhagamandalam (ii)

Elevation: approximately 2,240 meters.

Location: Nilgiris, Tamil Nadu.

Significance: While primarily known as a hill station, its urban center and surrounding ridges sit at this significant altitude, placing it below the major peaks like Doddabetta but above many others in the range.

Pushpagiri (iv)

Elevation: 1,712 meters.

Location: Kodagu (Coorg) District, Karnataka.

Significance: Also known as Kumara Parvatha, it is one of the highest peaks in Karnataka and the highest point within the Pushpagiri Wildlife Sanctuary.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Match the following List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

List I

a) Khunjerab

b) Lanak La

c) Lekhapani

d) Lipulekh

List II

1. Arunachal Pradesh with Myanmar

2. Ladakh with Lhasa

3. Uttarakhand with Tibet

4. Ladakh with Sinkiang

Codes: a b c d

A 4 2 1 3

B 2 4 3 1

C 3 1 4 2

D 1 3 2 4

Correct Answer: Option D

Analysis of the Statements

A) The rate of global GHG emissions growth has slowed... (Correct)

According to the IPCC AR6, while total emissions reached their highest level in human history in 2019, the rate of growth has indeed slowed. It decreased from an average of 2.1% per year between 2000–2009 to 1.3% per year between 2010–2019.

B) Lockdown policies... led to an estimated global drop of 5.8% in CO₂ emissions in 2020... (Correct)

The report notes that the COVID-19 pandemic caused a temporary but steep drop in fossil fuel and industrial CO₂ emissions. The estimated reduction was approximately 5.8% (with a range of 5.1% to 6.3%) compared to 2019 levels.

C) Significant global transition from coal and biomass use in buildings... (Correct)

The report highlights that in the buildings sector, there has been a steady global shift away from traditional biomass and coal toward "modern energy carriers" (like electricity and natural gas) and more efficient conversion technologies (like heat pumps), though progress varies by region.

D) Average annual growth in GHG emissions from energy supply increased... (Incorrect)

This is the false statement. The report explicitly states that average annual GHG emissions growth in the energy supply sector actually slowed down, decreasing from 2.3% (during 2000–2009) to 1.0% (during 2010–2019). This slowdown is attributed to improvements in energy efficiency and a shift toward renewables and natural gas.

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Which of the following statement is NOT correct as per IPCC latest report?

A The rate of global GHG emissions growth has slowed in recent years, from 2.1% per year (2000–2009) to 1.3% per year (2010–2019).

B Lockdown policies in response to COVID-19 led to an estimated global drop of 5.8% in CO₂ emissions in 2020 relative to 2019.

C There has been a significant global transition from coal and biomass use in buildings towards modern energy carriers and efficient conversion technologies.

D Average annual growth in GHG emissions from energy supply increased from 2.3% (2000–2009) to 3.1% (2010–2019).