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JKPSC JKAS Prelims 2022 Previous Year Questions

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2022
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General Studies (Paper 1) 17 questions

2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Governance
Consider the following statements:

1. The Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC) is the first and only tri-service theater command of the Indian Armed Forces, based at Port Blair in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
2. The CINCAN is a Three-star rank officer from the three Services in rotation who reports directly to the Chief of Defence Staff (India) (CDS) in New Delhi.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 & 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option C
Statement 1 is Correct:
The Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC) was established in 2001 following the recommendations of the Group of Ministers (GoM) after the Kargil War. It remains the first and only operational tri-service theater command in India, where assets of the Army, Navy, and Air Force are placed under a single unified commander at Port Blair. While the government is currently working on creating more theater commands (like the Maritime and Air Defence commands), the ANC is currently the only functional one.

Statement 2 is Correct:
The Commander-in-Chief, Andaman and Nicobar Command (CINCAN), is a Three-star rank officer (Lieutenant General, Vice Admiral, or Air Marshal). The leadership rotates among the three services. Since the creation of the post of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) in 2019, the CINCAN reports directly to the CDS, who serves as the principal military advisor and the head of the Department of Military Affairs (DMA).
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Shirur Mutt case judgement of 1954, which was recently in news, is related to:
A The doctrine of colorable legislation
B The doctrine of Basic Structure
C The doctrine of separation of power
D The doctrine of essential religious practices
Correct Answer: Option D
The Shirur Mutt case (1954), officially known as The Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras v. Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt, is a landmark judgment in Indian constitutional law.

In this case, a seven-judge bench of the Supreme Court introduced the "Essential Religious Practices" (ERP) doctrine. The court ruled that "religion" under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution covers not only ethical/philosophical beliefs but also rituals and practices that are regarded as "essential" to that religion.

Why it was recently in the news:
The doctrine remains a point of intense judicial debate. It was the primary legal lens used in high-profile contemporary cases, such as:

The Sabarimala Temple entry case.

The Hijab controversy in Karnataka.

The Talaq-e-Biddat (Triple Talaq) case.
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
With reference to Open Network Digital Commerce (ONDC), consider the following statements:

1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Science and Technology.
2. It is a globally first-of-its-kind initiative that aims to democratise Digital Commerce.
3. It is modelled around the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) project.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option B
Statement 1 is Incorrect:
The Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is an initiative of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), which falls under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It is not under the Ministry of Science and Technology.

Statement 2 is Correct:
ONDC is indeed a globally first-of-its-kind initiative. While most e-commerce today operates in "closed silos" (where a single platform like Amazon or Flipkart controls everything from the seller to the delivery), ONDC aims to democratize digital commerce by moving it to an open-network model. This allows small local retailers to be discoverable across any participant application.

Statement 3 is Correct:
ONDC is frequently described as the "UPI of e-commerce." Just as UPI allowed different banks and payment apps to talk to each other seamlessly, ONDC provides a set of open protocols that allow buyers and sellers to interact regardless of which specific platform or application they are using.
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Governance
With reference to SVAMITVA Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. It is launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
2. It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
3. It aims to allow citizens to use their property as a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 3 only
Correct Answer: Option D
Statement 1 is Incorrect:
The SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) scheme is launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. It is not a Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs initiative, as its primary focus is on rural "Abadi" (inhabited) areas.

Statement 2 is Incorrect:
SVAMITVA is a Central Sector Scheme, not a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. This means it is 100% funded by the Central Government.

Statement 3 is Correct:
One of the core objectives of the scheme is to provide "Property Cards" (also known as Gharauni in some states) to village household owners. This provides legal ownership rights, which in turn allows rural citizens to use their property as a financial asset (collateral) to secure loans from banks and access other financial benefits.
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
RUAV-200, a coaxial rotor helicopter drone, to be used as a Mule Drone for high altitude logistics operations by the Indian Army, is developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited, DRDO's ADE and an Indian Institute of Technology.

Find the correct one below:
A IIT Bombay
B IIT Kanpur
C IIT Delhi
D IIT Guwahati
Correct Answer: Option B
The RUAV-200 (Remotely Piloted Helicopter) is a specialized coaxial rotor drone designed for "last-mile" logistics in high-altitude regions like Siachen. It is a collaborative project between:

Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)

Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE), which is a premier lab under the DRDO.

IIT Kanpur, which provided significant expertise in flight control systems and autonomous navigation.

Key Features of the RUAV-200:

Coaxial Rotor System: It uses two rotors mounted one above the other on the same axis, rotating in opposite directions. This provides high lift and stability in the thin air of high-altitude environments without the need for a tail rotor.

Payload: It is designed to carry a payload of approximately 30 kg at altitudes up to 6,000 meters.

Purpose: It acts as a "Mule Drone," transporting essential supplies (food, medicine, ammunition) to troops stationed at forward posts where manual transport is dangerous or slow.
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
According to the 105th constitutional amendment, consider the following statements:

1. This amendment seeks to restore the power of state government to identify and specify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC).
2. It allows states to maintain a separate 'state list' for SEBC reservation.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option C
Statement 1 is Correct:
The 105th Constitutional Amendment Act (2021) was enacted to restore the power of State Governments and Union Territories to identify and notify their own lists of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs). This power had been inadvertently curtailed by the Supreme Court’s interpretation of the 102nd Amendment, which many believed had centralized the identification process under the President of India and the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).

Statement 2 is Correct:
By restoring the identification power to the states, the amendment explicitly allows them to maintain a separate 'State List' for SEBC reservations in state government jobs and educational institutions. This ensures that the federal structure of the country is maintained regarding reservation policies, allowing states to address local socio-economic nuances.
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Consider the following statement regarding 'Ways and Means Advances' (WMA):

1. It is a facility for both the Centre and States to borrow from the RBI.
2. These borrowings are meant purely to help them to tide over long-term mismatches in cash flows of their receipts and expenditures.
3. The interest rate on WMA is the repo rate of the RBI.

The correct statement is/are:
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 3 and 1 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option C
Statement 1 is Correct:
Ways and Means Advances (WMA) is a mechanism introduced in 1997 to provide a facility for both the Central Government and the State Governments to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Statement 2 is Incorrect:
WMA is specifically designed to tide over temporary (short-term) mismatches in the receipts and payments of the government. It is not intended for long-term financing or permanent deficits. The government must vacate these advances within 90 days. If the limit is exceeded for more than 90 days, it is treated as an "Overdraft."

Statement 3 is Correct:
The interest rate charged on WMA is equal to the Repo Rate. If the government opts for an Overdraft (exceeding the WMA limit), the interest rate is usually Repo Rate plus 2 percentage points.
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Governance
Which one of the following is not one of the functions performed by the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In)?
A Collection, analysis and dissemination of information on cyber incidents
B Forecast and alerts of cyber security incidents
C Coordinating with international private cyber agencies
D Emergency measures for handling cyber security incidents
Correct Answer: Option C
The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) is the national nodal agency for responding to computer security incidents. It was established under the Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008, specifically under Section 70B.

According to the Act, the primary functions of CERT-In are:

Collection, analysis, and dissemination of information on cyber incidents.

Forecasting and alerting of cybersecurity incidents.

Emergency measures for handling cybersecurity incidents.

Coordination of cyber incident response activities.

Issue of guidelines, advisories, vulnerability notes, and whitepapers relating to information security practices, procedures, prevention, and response.

Why Option C is incorrect:
While CERT-In does collaborate with international entities, its primary mandate for "coordination" is defined at the national level among domestic agencies. International cooperation usually happens through formal Government-to-Government (G2G) channels or specific Treaties/Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) involving the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), rather than a broad mandate to coordinate directly with private international agencies.
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Consider the following statement regarding RoDTEP Scheme:

1. RoDTEP is a WTO-compliant scheme, that replaced the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS).
2. This scheme reimburses currently un-refunded Central, State, and Local taxes and duties.

The correct statement/s is/are:

A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both 1 & 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option C
Here is the detailed evaluation of the RoDTEP (Remission of Duties and Taxes on Exported Products) scheme:

Statement 1 is Correct: RoDTEP was launched specifically to replace the MEIS (Merchandise Exports from India Scheme). The MEIS was challenged by the USA at the World Trade Organization (WTO) on the grounds that it was a prohibited export subsidy. RoDTEP is designed to be WTO-compliant because it does not provide a direct subsidy; instead, it simply ensures that taxes and duties are not exported, following the global principle that "taxes should not be exported."

Statement 2 is Correct: The primary mechanism of this scheme is to reimburse exporters for various embedded taxes and duties that were previously not refunded under other schemes (like GST or Drawback). This includes VAT on fuel used in transportation, Mandi tax, Coal Cess, and electricity duties.

Key Features of RoDTEP
Implementation: It is managed by the Department of Revenue (Ministry of Finance) and implemented via a digital end-to-end automation system.

Transferable Scrips: The refund is issued in the form of transferable duty credit scrips maintained in an electronic ledger with the Customs department. These scrips can be used to pay basic customs duty on imports or sold to other importers.

Inclusivity: It covers a vast range of sectors (over 8,000 items) to boost the competitiveness of Indian exports in the global market.
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Consider the following statement with regard to SemiCon India 2022 conference:

1. The theme of the Semicon India conference is 'Catalyzing India's Semiconductor Ecosystem'.
2. It was organized by India Semiconductor Mission.

The correct statement/s is/are:

A 1 only
B Neither 1 nor 2
C 2 only
D 1 and 2
Correct Answer: Option D
Here is the breakdown of the statements regarding the Semicon India 2022 conference: Statement 1 is Correct: The theme of the inaugural Semicon India 2022 conference was "Catalyzing India's Semiconductor Ecosystem." The event aimed to position India as a global hub for semiconductor design, manufacturing, and technology development 
.Note: Some early promotional materials also used the tagline "Design and Manufacture in India, for the World: Making India a Semiconductor Nation," but the official overarching theme for the 3-day conclave was "Catalyzing India's Semiconductor Ecosystem
"Statement 2 is Correct: The conference was organized by the India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) in partnership with industry and industry associations, under the aegis of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The ISM was established as a specialized and independent business division within the Digital India Corporation to drive India's strategies for developing a semiconductors and display ecosystem. 
Key Facts about Semicon India 2022Inauguration: It was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Bengaluru on April 29, 2022. Objective: To serve as a launchpad for the India Semiconductor Mission and to attract global investments from semiconductor giants like Micron, Intel, and Cadence. Follow-up: Since then, Semicon India has become an annual flagship event (e.g., Semicon India 2023 in Gandhinagar and 2024 in Greater Noida) to review progress and build partnerships.
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) International Relations Governance
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Global Compact for Migration' (GCM):

1. The Global Compact for Migration is the first-ever UN global agreement on a common approach to international migration in all its dimensions.
2. GCM is legally binding.
3. New York Declaration is associated with GCM.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A 1 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option B
Here is the evaluation of the statements regarding the Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM):

Statement 1 is Correct: The GCM is indeed the first-ever intergovernmentally negotiated agreement, prepared under the auspices of the United Nations, to cover all dimensions of international migration in a holistic and comprehensive manner.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The GCM is non-legally binding. It is a cooperative framework that recognizes that no state can address migration alone, but it explicitly upholds the sovereignty of states to determine their own national migration policies.

Statement 3 is Correct: The GCM has its origins in the New York Declaration for Refugees and Migrants, adopted unanimously by the UN General Assembly in September 2016. This declaration set the path for the creation of two global compacts: one for migration (GCM) and one for refugees (GCR).

Key Pillars of the GCM
The compact is framed around 23 objectives designed to better manage migration at local, national, regional, and global levels. These include:

Mitigating the adverse drivers that compel people to leave their country of origin.

Reducing the risks and vulnerabilities migrants face at different stages of migration.

Addressing the legitimate concerns of states and communities.

Creating conditions that allow all migrants to enrich our societies through their human, economic, and social capacities.
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Consider the following features of the recently enacted Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021:

1. Enhancing the upper gestation limit from 20 to 24 weeks for special categories of women.
2. The upper gestation limit is not to apply in cases of substantial foetal abnormalities diagnosed by the Medical Board.
3. The ground of failure of contraceptives has been extended to women and their partner.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A 1 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option D
All three statements accurately describe the key changes introduced by the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021. 

Here is the detailed breakdown: 

Statement 1 is Correct: The Act increased the upper gestation limit from 20 to 24 weeks for "special categories" of women. This includes survivors of sexual assault (rape or incest), minors, women with disabilities, and those whose marital status changed during pregnancy (widowhood or divorce).
Statement 2 is Correct: For cases involving substantial foetal abnormalities, the Act removed the upper gestation limit entirely. However, such terminations (post-24 weeks) must be authorized by a state-level Medical Board consisting of specialist doctors.
Statement 3 is Correct: In a significant move toward gender-neutrality and inclusion, the 1971 Act's "married woman and her husband" clause was replaced. The 2021 Amendment allows any woman and her partner (including unmarried women) to seek termination on the grounds of failure of a contraceptive method or device.
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Consider the following statements regarding 'e-RUPI':

1. e-RUPI is a voucher to facilitate cashless payment.
2. In some special circumstances, e-RUPI can be permitted for cash out or cash back on redemption.
3. The NPCI (National Payment Corporation of India) has boarded banks that will be the issuing authority for e-RUPI voucher.

Choose the correct statement/s:
A 1 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: Option D
Here is a detailed breakdown of the statements:

Statement 1 is Correct: e-RUPI is a cashless and contactless digital payment medium. It is delivered to the mobile phones of beneficiaries in the form of a QR code or SMS string, acting as an e-voucher for a specific purpose.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: e-RUPI is designed for a specific purpose and person. It does not permit cash-out or cash-back. The voucher is redeemed directly by the service provider (like a hospital or pharmacy) without the need for a bank account or digital wallet on the beneficiary's end.

Statement 3 is Correct: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) developed the e-RUPI platform on its UPI infrastructure. It has boarded several banks (both public and private) to act as the issuing entities for these vouchers.

Key Features of e-RUPI
Purpose-Specific: If a voucher is issued for a vaccination, it can only be redeemed at a vaccination center.

No Intermediaries: It ensures that the benefits reach the intended person directly, reducing leakages in welfare delivery.

Device Independent: Unlike UPI apps, the beneficiary does not need a smartphone or an internet connection to use the SMS string version, making it highly inclusive.
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Consider the following statements:

1. Oil Shale refers to hydrocarbons that are trapped in formations of shale rock.
2. Shale Oil is a rock that contains a compound called Kerogen, which is used to make oil.
3. Tight Oil is also known as Shale Oil.

The correct statement/s is/are:
A 1, 2 and 3
B 2 only
C 2 and 3
D 3 only
Correct Answer: Option D
Here is the detailed evaluation of the statements:

Statement 1 is Incorrect: This description actually refers to Shale Oil. Shale Oil consists of liquid hydrocarbons trapped within shale formations. Oil Shale, conversely, is the solid rock itself that contains organic matter.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The definitions are swapped. Oil Shale is the sedimentary rock containing Kerogen (a solid organic compound). When this rock is heated (a process called pyrolysis), the kerogen is converted into synthetic crude oil.

Statement 3 is Correct: In the energy industry, Tight Oil is often used interchangeably with Shale Oil. It refers to light crude oil trapped in "tight" (low-permeability) formations, including shale or tight sandstone, which requires hydraulic fracturing ("fracking") to extract.
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Consider the following statements:
1. It is a large pale water bird declared Threatened species by IUCN.

2. They live in lowland fresh water, brackish and marine wetlands.
3. Nematode Infestation is one of the major threats to this species.

The above statements refer to:
A Flamingo
B Painted Stork
C Spot-bellied Pelican
D Asian Openbill
Correct Answer: Option C
Here is the breakdown of why these statements identify this specific bird:

Statement 1: The Spot-billed Pelican (Pelecanus philippensis) is a large, pale water bird. While it was once listed as Vulnerable, it is currently categorized as Near Threatened on the IUCN Red List. Its population has faced significant declines due to habitat loss and human disturbance.

Statement 2: They are highly versatile in their habitat, frequenting lowland freshwater (rivers and lakes), brackish lagoons, and occasionally marine wetlands or mangroves. They are predominantly found in South and Southeast Asia.

Statement 3: Nematode Infestation (specifically Contracaecum) has been identified as a significant biological threat. In recent years, high mortality rates among these birds in places like Andhra Pradesh (specifically at the Telineelapuram Bird Sanctuary) have been linked to heavy nematode loads in their digestive tracts, often acquired through the fish they consume.

Why other options are incorrect:
Flamingos: While large and pale, they are generally listed as "Least Concern" (for Greater Flamingo) and are not as strongly associated with nematode-driven mass mortality events in the Indian context as the Pelican.

Painted Stork: They are "Near Threatened," but they are characterized by distinct black and pink markings, not just a "pale" appearance, and are not the primary species associated with the specific nematode threat mentioned.

Asian Openbill: These are common birds categorized as "Least Concern" and have a very distinct gap in their beak for eating snails, which is their defining feature.
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Consider the following statements regarding Domestic Systematically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) in India:

1. RBI nominates certain insurers as D-SIIs.
2. Currently LIC, GIC, New India Assurance Co. Ltd have been designated as D-SIIs in India.
3. D-SIIs are perceived as insurers that are 'too big or too important to fail' (TBTF).

The correct statement/s is/are:

A 3 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer: Option C
Here is a breakdown of why each statement is correct or incorrect:

Statement 1 is Incorrect: D-SIIs are designated by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), not the RBI. The RBI identifies Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs), while IRDAI handles the insurance sector.

Statement 2 is Correct: As of the latest designations, the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), General Insurance Corporation of India (GIC Re), and New India Assurance Co. Ltd. are the three entities identified as D-SIIs.

Statement 3 is Correct: D-SIIs refer to insurers of such size, market importance, and domestic/global inter-connectedness that their distress or failure would cause a significant disruption in the domestic financial system. They are colloquially referred to as "Too Big or Too Important To Fail" (TBTF).

Understanding D-SIIs (Economy/Finance)
The concept of D-SIIs is rooted in maintaining financial stability. Because these companies are so deeply integrated into the economy, they are subject to enhanced regulatory supervision.

Key Features of D-SIIs:

Higher Capital Requirements: Because they are "Too Big To Fail," these insurers may be required to maintain higher levels of solvency margins to cushion against potential shocks.

Systemic Risk Management: They are expected to have robust internal governance structures to manage risks that could otherwise trigger a domino effect in the financial markets.

Annual Identification: IRDAI reviews the list of D-SIIs on an annual basis, assessing insurers based on parameters like size, inter-connectedness, and lack of substitutability.
2022 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs
The comic book 'India's Women Unsung Heroes', released by the Ministry of Culture, depicted the stories of unsung women heroes
.
Which of the following is/are NOT correctly matched?

Names                State
i) Rani Abbakka      Karnataka
ii) Matangiri Hazra  Gujarat
iii) Velu Nachiyar    Tamil Nadu

A i and ii only
B ii only
C i and iii only
D iii only
Correct Answer: Option B
Based on the historical figures depicted in the Ministry of Culture's 'India's Women Unsung Heroes' collection, here is the breakdown of the matches:

i) Rani Abbakka (Karnataka): Correctly Matched. She was the Queen of Ullal who fought the Portuguese in the 16th century.

ii) Matangini Hazra (Gujarat): Incorrectly Matched. Matangini Hazra was a revolutionary from West Bengal. She was a key figure in the Quit India Movement and is famously known as Gandhi Buri.

iii) Velu Nachiyar (Tamil Nadu): Correctly Matched. She was the Queen of Sivaganga and the first Indian queen to wage war against the East India Company.

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