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JKSSB FAA 2022 Previous Year Questions

Practice authentic exam questions with answers and explanations

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2022
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Computer 10 questions

2022 Prelims Computer
Which virus attaches itself directly to an .exe or a .com file and enters the device while its execution?
A Macro Virus
B Boot Sector Virus
C Direct Action Virus
D Overwrite Virus
Correct Answer: Option C
A Direct Action Virus (also known as a non-resident virus) works by attaching its code to executable files, typically those with .exe or .com extensions. When the infected file is executed, the virus "wakes up," searches for other files in the directory or path to infect, and then finishes its task.

Unlike "Resident" viruses, it does not remain active in the computer's memory after the host program stops running.
2022 Prelims Computer
Through which tab can you change Page Orientation in Microsoft Word?
A Insert
B Page Layout
C References
D Review
Correct Answer: Option B
In most modern versions of Microsoft Word, you can change the page orientation (switching between Portrait and Landscape) by following these steps:

Click on the Layout tab (labeled Page Layout in older versions like Word 2007/2010).

In the Page Setup group, click the Orientation button.

Select either Portrait or Landscape.

Quick Reference of Other Tabs:
Insert: Used for adding tables, pictures, shapes, and page numbers.

References: Used for creating a Table of Contents, footnotes, and citations.

Review: Used for spell check, tracking changes, and adding comments.
2022 Prelims Computer
Which among the following is a Flash memory device?
A Hard Disk Drive (HDD)
B Random Access Memory (RAM)
C USB drive
D Blu-Ray disc
Correct Answer: Option C
A USB drive (also known as a thumb drive or flash drive) uses Flash memory, which is a type of non-volatile storage. This means it keeps your data even when the power is turned off, unlike RAM. It works by using electronic circuits to trap electrons, allowing for fast reading and writing without any moving parts.Why the others are different:Hard Disk Drive (HDD): This is a magnetic storage device. It uses spinning platters and a moving read/write head (similar to a record player) to store data.Random Access Memory (RAM): This is volatile memory. It is very fast, but it loses all stored data the moment the computer is powered down.Blu-Ray disc: This is an optical storage device. It uses a blue laser to read and write data from microscopic pits on the surface of the disc.
2022 Prelims Computer
Preet wants to convert the scanned image of handwritten text into digital text. Which input device should she use?
A Optical Character Reader
B Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
C Digital camera
D Keyboard
Correct Answer: Option A
While the "scanned image" itself is created by a scanner, OCR is the specific technology (often integrated into hardware/software input systems) used to recognize the shapes of handwritten or printed characters and convert them into editable, digital text.

Quick Breakdown of the Options:
Optical Character Reader (OCR): Specifically designed to "read" text from images and translate it into a format you can edit in a word processor.

Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR): Used almost exclusively by banks to read those unique numbers at the bottom of checks printed with magnetic ink.

Digital Camera: This captures the image, but it doesn't "understand" the text within it—it just sees a grid of colored pixels.

Keyboard: This is for manual data entry. Preet could use it to re-type the text, but it wouldn't be "converting" the scanned image automatically.
2022 Prelims Computer
What is a computer input device that has a flat surface and usually comes with a stylus?
A Mouse
B Digitizer
C Light Pen
D Joystick
Correct Answer: Option B
A digitizer (also commonly known as a graphics tablet or drawing tablet) consists of a flat, pressure-sensitive surface where a user draws or writes using a specialized pen called a stylus. It converts the analog strokes into digital data that appears on a computer screen.

Why the other options are different:
Mouse: A point-and-click device used on a flat surface, but it does not use a stylus.

Light Pen: While it uses a pen-like device, it is used by pointing directly at the computer’s CRT monitor rather than on a separate flat tablet surface.

Joystick: A lever that moves in multiple directions to control a pointer or character, primarily used in gaming or aviation simulations.
2022 Prelims Computer
Which storage device is used for storing Basic Input/Output System (BIOS)?
A Random Access Memory (RAM)
B Read Only Memory (ROM)
C Hard Disk Drive (HDD)
D Solid State Drive (SSD)
Correct Answer: Option B
The Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is the fundamental software that initializes your computer's hardware during the booting process. Because this software must be available as soon as the computer is turned on—before the operating system or hard drives are even active—it is stored on a non-volatile chip on the motherboard.Why ROM?Unlike RAM, which is "volatile" and loses its data when power is cut, ROM retains its information indefinitely. In modern computers, this is typically a specific type of ROM called EEPROM (Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory) or Flash Memory, which allows the BIOS to be updated or "flashed" while remaining permanent during normal use.Why the other options are incorrect:RAM: This is temporary workspace. If the BIOS were stored here, the computer would "forget" how to start up every time you turned it off.HDD/SSD: These are secondary storage devices. The computer actually needs the BIOS instructions first just to know how to communicate with and boot from these drives.

2022 Prelims Computer
The speed of the hard disk is measured in terms of __________.
A Revolution Per Minute
B Megabytes Per Second
C Clock Speed
D Pixel fill rate
Correct Answer: Option A
For traditional Hard Disk Drives (HDDs), the speed is determined by how fast the internal magnetic platters rotate. The faster the disks spin, the more quickly the read/write head can access data stored on various parts of the disk.

Understanding RPM in HDDs
Most consumer-grade hard drives operate at specific standard speeds. A higher RPM typically leads to lower "latency" (the time it takes for the data to move under the read head):

5,400 RPM: Common in older laptops; energy-efficient but slower.

7,200 RPM: Standard for modern desktop computers and high-performance laptops.

10,000 to 15,000 RPM: Specialized drives used in enterprise servers for high-speed data access.

Why the Other Options are Different
B) Megabytes Per Second (MB/s): This measures Data Transfer Rate (the actual speed at which data moves from the drive to the computer), not the physical speed of the disk itself. While RPM affects MB/s, it is not the unit of the disk's rotational speed.

C) Clock Speed: This is measured in Hertz (GHz or MHz) and refers to the speed of the CPU (Central Processing Unit) or the system bus, not storage drives.

D) Pixel Fill Rate: This is a performance metric for Graphics Cards (GPUs), referring to how many pixels the card can render and write to video memory per second.
2022 Prelims Computer
Which printer prints characters and images without direct physical contact between the paper and the printing machinery?
A Impact Printer
B Non-Impact Printer
C Character Printer
D Line printer
Correct Answer: Option B
As the name suggests, non-impact printers do not hit or strike a ribbon against the paper. Instead, they use technologies such as lasers, heat, or sprayable ink to create characters and images. This lack of physical "impact" makes them significantly quieter and faster than older printing technologies.

Why Non-Impact?
Non-impact printers are the standard in modern offices and homes. Because they don't rely on mechanical pressure, they can produce high-quality color graphics and high-resolution text.

Common Examples:

Laser Printers: Use a laser beam and dry powdered ink (toner) to "paint" an electrostatic image onto a drum, which is then transferred to paper.

Inkjet Printers: Spray tiny, precise droplets of liquid ink through nozzles onto the paper.

Analysis of the Other Options
A) Impact Printer: These work like a typewriter. They have a mechanical head that physically strikes an ink-soaked ribbon against the paper to leave a mark. Examples include Dot Matrix and Daisy Wheel printers.

C) Character Printer: This refers to the speed or unit of printing (printing one character at a time) rather than the mechanism. A character printer can be an impact printer (like a Daisy Wheel).

D) Line Printer: These are high-speed impact printers that print one entire line of text at a time. They are often used in large data centers for heavy-duty text printing.
2022 Prelims Computer
Aman wants to record a task that he needs to perform repeatedly. Which feature of MS Excel can be utilized for it?
A Excel Formulas
B Excel Macros
C Excel Functions
D Excel Templates
Correct Answer: Option B
A Macro is an action or a set of actions that you can run as many times as you want. When you create a macro, you are essentially recording your mouse clicks and keystrokes. This is the most efficient way to automate repetitive, manual tasks in MS Excel. How Macros Work Excel records your steps in a programming language called VBA (Visual Basic for Applications). Once recorded, you can "play" the macro back to perform the exact same steps instantly. Record: You turn on the "Record Macro" feature. Perform: You do the task (e.g., formatting a table, bolding headers, or calculating a specific subtotal).Stop: You stop the recording. Run: Next time you have new data, you simply run the macro, and Excel completes the work in seconds.
 Why the Other Options are Different 
A) Excel Formulas: These are used for specific calculations (e.g., =A1+B1). While they can be complex, they don't "record" a sequence of different UI actions like formatting or moving data between sheets.
C) Excel Functions: These are built-in "presets" used within formulas (e.g., SUM, VLOOKUP, IF). They return a value based on input but do not automate multi-step workflows.
D) Excel Templates: These are pre-designed files (like a Budget or Invoice tracker) that provide a layout and structure. While they save time on setup, they don't automate the process of data entry or repetitive formatting.
2022 Prelims Computer
What type of network is the Internet?
A LAN
B MAN
C WAN
D DAN
Correct Answer: Option C
The Internet is the ultimate example of a Wide Area Network (WAN). While a LAN connects devices in a single room or building, a WAN connects smaller networks across cities, countries, and even continents.Why the Internet is a WANA WAN is a telecommunications network that extends over a large geographical distance. The Internet is technically a "network of networks" that uses the TCP/IP protocol suite to link billions of devices worldwide through fiber-optic cables, satellite links, and radio waves.
Analysis of the Options
A) LAN (Local Area Network): This is a network confined to a small area like a home, office, or school. Your home Wi-Fi is a LAN.B) MAN (Metropolitan Area Network): This covers a larger area than a LAN but a smaller area than a WAN—typically a single city or a large university campus. Cable TV networks are a common example .
C) WAN (Wide Area Network): As established, this spans long distances. It often uses leased telecommunication lines to bridge the gap between different LANs.
D) DAN (Desk Area Network): This is a less common technical term referring to a network centered around an individual's desk, connecting a computer to its peripherals. (Note: Sometimes "PAN" or Personal Area Network is used for Bluetooth-style connections).

General Science 10 questions

2022 Prelims General Science
Which of the following is NOT a decomposer?
A Fungi
B Insects
C Hyenas
D Earthworms
Correct Answer: Option C
While hyenas are often associated with cleaning up carcasses, they are technically scavengers, not decomposers. In an ecosystem, these two roles are distinct based on how they consume organic matter and what they leave behind.

Why Hyenas are NOT Decomposers
Hyenas are detritivores/scavengers. They consume large chunks of dead animals (carrion). They have powerful jaws to crush bones, but they still digest food internally through a digestive system.

Decomposers, on the other hand, are typically microorganisms that break down organic matter externally by secreting enzymes. They turn complex organic compounds back into simple inorganic nutrients (like nitrogen and phosphorus) that return to the soil.

Analysis of the Options
A) Fungi: These are "classic" decomposers. They grow on dead wood or leaf litter, secreting enzymes to break down lignin and cellulose, absorbing the nutrients directly.

B) Insects: Many insects, such as dung beetles or the larvae of certain flies (maggots), act as primary decomposers by breaking down waste and dead tissue into smaller fragments.

D) Earthworms: These are often called "nature's plows." They consume soil and organic debris, breaking it down into nutrient-rich "castings" that significantly improve soil fertility.
2022 Prelims General Science
Select the plant that obtains all or part of its nutrition from another plant (the host) without contributing to the benefit of the host and, in some cases, causing extreme damage to the host.
A Saprophytic
B Parasitic
C Symbiotic
D Autotrophic
Correct Answer: Option B
A parasitic plant is one that derives some or all of its nutritional requirements from another living plant. It uses specialized organs called haustoria to penetrate the host's tissues—either the xylem (for water) or the phloem (for food).

Why the others are different
The classification of plants based on their mode of nutrition is a common topic in biology. Here is how the other options function:

A) Saprophytic: These organisms (mostly fungi and some bacteria) feed on dead and decaying organic matter. They do not harm living hosts because they function as decomposers.

C) Symbiotic: This is a "win-win" relationship. Both the host and the guest benefit from each other. A classic example is Lichen (a partnership between algae and fungi) or Rhizobium bacteria in root nodules of leguminous plants.

D) Autotrophic: These are "self-feeders." They produce their own food through photosynthesis using sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide. Most green plants fall into this category.

Common Examples of Parasitic Plants
Parasitic plants are often categorized by how much they depend on the host:

Total Parasites (Holoparasites): They lack chlorophyll and cannot photosynthesize at all. They are completely dependent on the host for food and water.

Example: Cuscuta (Dodder or Amarbel).

Partial Parasites (Hemiparasites): They have green leaves and can photosynthesize, but they rely on the host for water and mineral nutrients.
2022 Prelims General Science
Which of the following diseases is caused by water contamination?
A Diarrhea
B Marasmus
C Elephantiasis
D Malaria
Correct Answer: Option A
Diarrhea is a leading waterborne disease caused by consuming water contaminated with pathogens such as bacteria (E. coli, Vibrio cholerae), viruses (Rotavirus), or parasites. It is a primary symptom of several infections including Cholera, Typhoid, and Dysentery.

Analysis of the Other Options
B) Marasmus: This is a nutritional deficiency disease. It is a severe form of Protein-Energy Malnutrition (PEM) that typically affects infants and very young children, leading to severe weight loss and muscle wasting.

C) Elephantiasis (Lymphatic Filariasis): This is caused by filarial worms transmitted to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes (primarily Culex). It leads to the swelling of limbs and the lymphatic system.

D) Malaria: This is a vector-borne disease. It is caused by the Plasmodium parasite and is transmitted by the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito. While mosquitoes breed in stagnant water, the disease itself is not caused by drinking or touching the water.
2022 Prelims General Science
Among the following, which destroys the ozone layer the most?
A Chlorofluorocarbons
B Oxygen
C Nitrides
D Plastic
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of Other Options 
B) Oxygen: Oxygen is actually the building block of the ozone layer. Ozone is formed when  molecules are split by solar radiation and the resulting single oxygen atoms bond with other $O_2$ molecules. C) Nitrides: While nitrogen oxides ($NO_x$) can contribute to ozone depletion, "nitrides" generally refer to solid compounds of nitrogen with metals or semi-metals and do not play a primary role in stratospheric ozone thinning. 
D) Plastic: While plastic is a major environmental pollutant on land and in oceans, it does not directly rise into the stratosphere to interact with ozone molecules .
Key Facts for Preparation 
The Montreal Protocol (1987): An international treaty designed to phase out the production of substances like CFCs. it is considered one of the most successful environmental agreements in history. Ozone Layer Location: It is located in the Stratosphere (roughly 15–30 km above Earth).Measurement: Ozone concentration is measured in Dobson Units (DU).
2022 Prelims General Science
Which among the following is INCORRECT with respect to the properties of charcoal?
A It has lower calorific value than wood
B It exists is a solid amorphous state
C It is a low-density compound
D It acts as a good absorbent
Correct Answer: Option A
In reality, charcoal has a higher calorific value than wood. Calorific value refers to the amount of heat energy released during the complete combustion of a unit mass of fuel. Charcoal is produced through the pyrolysis (heating in the absence of oxygen) of wood, which removes water and volatile compounds, leaving behind a concentrated carbon residue that burns hotter and cleaner.

Analysis of the Options
A) Incorrect Statement: Wood generally has a calorific value of approximately 17–20 MJ/kg, whereas charcoal ranges between 28–33 MJ/kg. Therefore, charcoal is a much more efficient fuel.

B) Solid Amorphous State: Carbon in charcoal does not have a crystalline structure like diamond or graphite; it is an amorphous (non-crystalline) allotrope of carbon.

C) Low-density Compound: Charcoal is highly porous. Even though carbon itself is dense, the structural voids left behind after the removal of moisture and gases make charcoal light enough to float on water.

D) Good Absorbent: Due to its highly porous nature, charcoal (especially "activated" charcoal) has a massive surface area. This allows it to act as an excellent adsorbent, trapping gases, toxins, and impurities on its surface.
2022 Prelims General Science
Sam is suffering from Beri beri. What deficiency does he have?
A Vitamin A
B Vitamin B1
C Vitamin C
D Vitamin K
Correct Answer: Option B
Sam is suffering from a deficiency of Thiamine, which is the scientific name for Vitamin B1. This vitamin is crucial for energy metabolism; without it, the body cannot effectively turn food into fuel, which primarily affects the nervous and cardiovascular systems.

Understanding Beriberi
There are two main types of this condition:

Wet Beriberi: Affects the heart and circulatory system. In severe cases, it can cause heart failure.

Dry Beriberi: Damages the nerves and can lead to decreased muscle strength and eventually muscle paralysis.
2022 Prelims General Science
Which among the following is a reducing agent?
A Oxygen
B Magnesium oxide
C Zinc
D Chlorine
Correct Answer: Option C
Analysis of Other Options 
A) Oxygen: This is a classic oxidizing agent. It has a high affinity for electrons and typically gains them to form oxides.
B) Magnesium oxide : This is an ionic compound where Magnesium has already lost its electrons. Since it is already in an oxidized state , it does not typically act as a reducing agent. 
D) Chlorine: Chlorine is a halogen with high electronegativity. It strongly attracts electrons to complete its octet, making it a powerful oxidizing agent.
2022 Prelims General Science
Which is the only non-metal that reacts with air to form its oxide by burning?
A Arsenic
B Gas carbon
C Graphite
D White phosphorus
Correct Answer: Option D
Why the other options don't fit:
Arsenic (A): While a metalloid, it requires heating before it will burn in air to form arsenic trioxide.

Gas Carbon (B) and Graphite (C): These are forms of carbon. They are very stable at room temperature and require significant external heating (ignition) to burn in air to form carbon dioxide. They do not catch fire "by burning" upon simple exposure to air at standard conditions.
2022 Prelims General Science
A superbike starts from rest accelerates to a velocity of 10 m / s in a time of 10 s. What should be the acceleration of the superbike?
A 1m / s2
B 10m / s2
C 5m / s2
D 3.33m / s2
Correct Answer: Option A
To find the acceleration (a) of the superbike, we use the first equation of motion: v = u + at Alternatively, the formula for acceleration is: a = {v - u}\{t}
Given: Initial velocity (u): 0 { m/s} (since it starts from rest)Final velocity (v): 10 { m/s} Time (t): 10 { s}
2022 Prelims General Science
Find the heat energy produced in a resistance of 5 Ω when 2 A current flows through it for 5 seconds.
A 50 J
B 100 J
C 12.5 J
D 2 J
Correct Answer: Option B
To calculate the heat energy produced in a resistor, we use Joule’s Law of Heating, which states that the heat produced ($H$) is directly proportional to the square of the current, the resistance, and the time.

Economics 13 questions

2022 Prelims Economics
If the price of an article is above the equilibrium price, then there is ________.
A surplus in the market
B shortage in the market
C more demand than what can be supplied
D equilibrium in the market
Correct Answer: Option A
Why a Price Above Equilibrium Creates a Surplus When the price of an article is higher than the equilibrium level, two things happen simultaneously: Law of Supply: Producers are incentivized by the higher price to produce and supply more of the article. Law of Demand: Consumers are discouraged by the higher price and will demand fewer units of the article. As a result, the Quantity Supplied ($Q_s$) becomes greater than the Quantity Demanded ($Q_d$). This excess supply that remains unsold on the shelves is called a Surplus (also known as excess supply).
2022 Prelims Economics
In 1991, as a step of economic reform to help resolve the balance of payments crisis, what treatment was given to the value of the Indian rupee?
A It was devalued
B Its value was appreciated (increased)
C It faced rapid inflation
D Its value remained stable
Correct Answer: Option A
The Devaluation of 1991 

Devaluation is the deliberate downward adjustment of a country's currency value relative to another currency (usually the US Dollar).

The Action: On July 1 and July 3, 1991, the RBI devalued the Rupee by approximately 18-19% against major international currencies.

The Goal: 1. Boost Exports: A weaker Rupee made Indian goods cheaper for foreign buyers.
2. Discourage Imports: It made foreign goods more expensive for Indians, reducing the outflow of precious foreign exchange.
3. Capital Inflow: It encouraged Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) to send money back to India, as they would get more Rupees for their Dollars.
2022 Prelims Economics
To determine economic growth, the GDP is compared to the population, also known as___________.
A real gross product
B income
C total product
D per capita income
Correct Answer: Option D
Why Per Capita Income is Important
Standard of Living: It provides a rough estimate of the purchasing power available to the average citizen.

Global Comparisons: It allows organizations like the World Bank to classify countries as Low, Middle, or High-income economies.

Policy Planning: It helps governments identify if economic gains are being diluted by rapid population growth.
2022 Prelims Economics
As per the economic scholars, __________ was excluded from the definition of factor of production.
A land
B money
C capital
D labour
Correct Answer: Option B
Why Money is Excluded
Economic scholars distinguish between Financial Capital (money) and Physical Capital (machinery/tools).

Not a Productive Resource: Money does not directly produce a good or service. You cannot use a 100-rupee note to stitch a shirt or harvest a crop. It is merely a medium of exchange used to acquire the actual factors of production.

The "Capital" Distinction: In economics, the term "Capital" refers specifically to man-made goods used in the production process (like a tractor or a computer). Money is often called "Capital" in common language, but in formal economics, it is excluded because it is a claim on resources, not a resource itself.
2022 Prelims Economics
All companies sell identical products; market share does not influence price. This is a situation of ________________.
A perfect competition market
B monopoly
C oligopoly
D monopolistic competition
Correct Answer: Option A
Key Characteristics of Perfect Competition
The scenario you described highlights the two most critical features of this market structure:

Identical (Homogeneous) Products: Since every company sells the exact same product (e.g., agricultural commodities like wheat or milk), consumers have no reason to prefer one seller over another based on quality or features.

Price Takers: Because each firm is very small relative to the entire market, its individual market share does not influence the price. If a firm tries to raise its price even slightly, consumers will instantly switch to a competitor selling the identical product at the market price.
2022 Prelims Economics
Indifference curves are __________ to the origin, representing marginal substitution.
A Concave
B Convex
C Hyperbolic
D Parabolic
Correct Answer: Option B
Why Indifference Curves are Convex
The convexity of the indifference curve to the origin is a fundamental property caused by the Law of Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS).

Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS): This is the rate at which a consumer is willing to give up one good (e.g., Good Y) to obtain an extra unit of another good (e.g., Good X) while maintaining the same level of utility.

The Diminishing Effect: As a consumer gets more and more of Good X, their craving for it decreases, and they become less willing to sacrifice units of Good Y to get even more X.

Visual Representation: Because the MRS declines as we move down along the curve, the slope of the curve becomes flatter, creating a convex shape (bowed inward toward the origin).
2022 Prelims Economics
Among the given methods, which approach is used to measure national income by summing up the flow of factor incomes received by labor, capital, land and entrepreneurship?
A Domestic Product approach
B Expenditure approach
C National product approach
D Income approach
Correct Answer: Option D
The Four Factors of Production and Their Incomes
In this approach, the economy is viewed from the perspective of the earners. The total value of goods and services produced must be equal to the total income distributed to those who helped produce them.

Labor: Receives Wages and Salaries (Compensation of Employees).

Land: Receives Rent.

Capital: Receives Interest.

Entrepreneurship: Receives Profit
2022 Prelims Economics
Among the given options, ________ will reduce budget deficit.
A reduction in government expenditure
B increase in government expenditure
C decrease in exports
D increase in imports
Correct Answer: Option A
Why Reduction in Expenditure Works The basic formula for a Budget Deficit is: {Budget Deficit} = {Total Expenditure} - {Total Receipts (excluding borrowings)} Mechanism: By cutting down on Revenue Expenditure (like subsidies or administrative costs) or Capital Expenditure (like non-essential infrastructure projects), the "Total Expenditure" value decreases. If revenue remains constant, the deficit narrows. Fiscal Consolidation: This process of reducing the deficit through spending cuts or revenue hikes is known as fiscal consolidation.
2022 Prelims Economics
Which among the given techniques (analytical tool) is used to craft fiscal policy?
A microeconomics
B macroeconomics
C individual investment planning
D depreciation
Correct Answer: Option B
Why Macroeconomics is the Analytical Tool To craft an effective fiscal policy, policymakers must analyze variables that affect the entire nation. Macroeconomics provides the framework to understand these interdependencies: Aggregate Demand ($AD$): Fiscal policy aims to shift the $AD$ curve. For example, during a recession, the government increases spending to shift $AD$ to the right. The Multiplier Effect: Macroeconomic tools help calculate how much a single rupee of government spending will increase the total National Income ($GDP$).Output Gaps: Analysts use macroeconomic data to identify "inflationary" or "recessionary" gaps in the economy to decide whether to use Expansionary or Contractionary policy.
2022 Prelims Economics
Ricardo assumes the law of diminishing ________.
A actual returns
B marginal returns
C surplus returns
D total returns
Correct Answer: Option B
Understanding Ricardo’s Law
David Ricardo, a classical economist, applied the Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns primarily to agriculture.

The Principle: As more units of a variable factor (like labor or capital) are added to a fixed factor (like a specific plot of land), the additional output generated by each new unit will eventually decrease.

Why it Happens: Ricardo argued that since the supply of fertile land is fixed, as a population grows, farmers are forced to either:

Cultivate the same land more intensely (Intensive Margin).

Move to less fertile "marginal" land (Extensive Margin).

The Result: In both cases, the cost of producing an extra unit of grain increases because the marginal productivity of the inputs decreases.
2022 Prelims Economics
What is the meaning of incidence of tax?
A Effect of tax on demand & supply of product
B Escaping tax payment in a legal manner
C Who will bear the burden of tax
D Rate of tax charged
Correct Answer: Option C
In economics, the incidence of tax refers to the final resting place of a tax burden. It identifies the person or entity who actually ends up paying the tax out of their pocket, regardless of who the government technically collects it from.

Key Concepts of Tax Incidence
Impact vs. Incidence: The impact is on the person who pays the tax to the government (e.g., a shopkeeper paying sales tax), but the incidence is on the person who feels the financial pinch (e.g., the consumer who pays a higher price).

Shifting: Tax incidence often involves "shifting." For example, a government may impose a tax on a manufacturer, but the manufacturer "shifts" that burden to the consumer by raising the price of the goods.

Why the other options don't fit:
A) Effect on demand & supply: While taxes do affect demand and supply, this describes the "economic distortion" or "deadweight loss," not the definition of incidence itself.

B) Escaping tax payment: This is known as Tax Avoidance (legal) or Tax Evasion (illegal).

D) Rate of tax charged: This is simply the Tax Rate or tariff schedule.

2022 Prelims Economics
When audit is undertaken to check the financial controls & irregularities in the organization, it is which type of audit?
A system audit
B compliance audit
C internal audit
D statutory audit
Correct Answer: Option C
While there is some overlap between these categories, checking for both financial controls and irregularities (like fraud or waste) is the hallmark of an internal audit.

Why "Internal Audit" is the Best Fit
An internal audit is a continuous process conducted by an organization’s own staff or an external firm to evaluate the effectiveness of its risk management, control, and governance processes.

Financial Controls: It ensures the systems meant to protect assets and ensure accurate reporting are working.

Irregularities: It specifically looks for deviations from the norm, such as embezzlement, mismanagement, or inefficiency
2022 Prelims Economics
On which of the following income, direct tax is not applicable?
A household property
B agricultural income
C business income
D property tax
Correct Answer: Option B
In India, under Section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, agricultural income earned by an individual is exempt from central income tax.

Why Agricultural Income is Exempt
The primary reason for this exemption is constitutional. Under the Indian Constitution, the Central Government has the power to tax income other than agricultural income, while the power to tax agricultural income is vested in the State Governments.

While some states have the provision to tax it, most choose not to for socio-political and economic reasons. However, it is important to note that agricultural income is often included for "rate purposes"—meaning it can increase the tax slab rate applied to your other non-agricultural income (this is known as the "Partial Integration" of taxes).

Understanding the Other Options
A) Household Property: This is taxed under the head "Income from House Property." If you earn rent or own more than two self-occupied houses, you pay direct tax on it.

C) Business Income: Profits and gains from business or profession (PGBP) are a major component of direct taxation for individuals and corporations.

D) Property Tax: This is a bit of a "trick" option. Property tax is a local tax paid to municipal bodies, but it is not an income category. The question asks which income is exempt from direct tax.

Maths 3 questions

2022 Prelims Maths
What is the compound interest earned for a principal amount of ₹ 1,200 at a rate of interest of 10% for 2 years?
A ₹ 200
B ₹ 220
C ₹ 252
D ₹ 300
Correct Answer: Option C
To find the compound interest (CI), we first calculate the total amount ($A$) using the formula:$$A = P \left(1 + \frac{r}{100}\right)^n$$Given: * Principal ($P$) = ₹ 1,200Rate ($r$) = 10%Time ($n$) = 2 yearsCalculation: 1. Total Amount:$$A = 1200 \left(1 + \frac{10}{100}\right)^2 = 1200 \times (1.1)^2$$$$A = 1200 \times 1.21 = ₹ 1,452$$Compound Interest:$$CI = \text{Amount} - \text{Principal}$$$$CI = 1,452 - 1,200 = ₹ 252$$
2022 Prelims Maths
For what value of 'm', the simultaneous equations, 5a+7b = 2 and 15a + 21b = m, have zero solution?
A m ≠ 0
B m ≠ 4
C m ≠ 6
D m ≠ -6
Correct Answer: Option C
The two equations are:
5a + 7b = 2
15a + 21b = m
Notice that the second equation is exactly 3 times the first equation (coefficients: 5×3=15, 7×3=21).

If m = 3 × 2 = 6, the second equation is identical to the first (just multiplied by 3) → the system has infinitely many solutions.
If m ≠ 6, the two equations represent parallel lines (same slope but different intercepts) → the system has no solution (zero solutions).

Therefore, the equations have zero solution when m ≠ 6.
Correct answer: C) m ≠ 6
2022 Prelims Maths
Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most 2 heads ?
A 1/4
B 3/8
C 7/8
D 1/2
Correct Answer: Option C
Three unbiased (fair) coins are tossed → total number of equally likely outcomes = 2³ = 8.
All possible outcomes:
HHH, HHT, HTH, THH, HTT, THT, TTH, TTT
Number of heads in each:

HHH → 3 heads
HHT, HTH, THH → 2 heads
HTT, THT, TTH → 1 head
TTT → 0 heads

"At most 2 heads" means 0, 1, or 2 heads → everything except the one case of 3 heads (HHH).
So:

Favorable outcomes = 8 − 1 = 7
Probability = 7/8


Statistics 9 questions

2022 Prelims Statistics
Which of the following is not an example of published data?
A Public records
B Diaries
C Business documents
D Trade journals
Correct Answer: Option B
Understanding the ClassificationTo identify why "Diaries" is the odd one out, we need to look at the nature of the sources:Published Data: This refers to information that has been printed, digitized, and made available to the general public or specific professional circles.Public Records (A): Government gazettes, census reports, and vital statistics.Business Documents (C): Annual reports of public companies, balance sheets, and stock exchange listings.Trade Journals (D): Professional magazines and periodicals like The Economist or industry-specific technical papers.Unpublished Data (Personal Documents): This is data that is maintained for personal use or internal records and is not officially released to the public.Diaries (B): These are private records of personal experiences. While they can be used as a source for historical research, they are fundamentally personal and unpublished in their original form. Other examples include letters, memoirs, and internal office memos.
2022 Prelims Statistics
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Consumer's Price Index (CPI) number?
A Helpful in measuring the purchasing power of money
B Used as a measure of inflation
C Helpful in wage negotiations
D An important component in Fiscal Deficit
Correct Answer: Option D
The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a macroeconomic tool used to track changes in the price level of a basket of consumer goods and services purchased by households.

Why A, B, and C are characteristics: * Purchasing Power: CPI is the primary metric for calculating how much money's value has eroded due to inflation.

Inflation: It is the standard index used by central banks and governments to track the rate of inflation.

Wage Negotiations: CPI is frequently used to determine "Cost of Living Adjustments" (COLA) for employees, helping to adjust wages so they keep pace with rising prices.

Why D is NOT a characteristic:

Fiscal Deficit refers specifically to the difference between a government's total expenditure and its total revenue (excluding borrowings). While inflation (measured by CPI) can indirectly influence government spending, the CPI calculation itself is not a component used to derive the fiscal deficit figure.
2022 Prelims Statistics
In a frequency distribution, the median and mean is 12 and 13, find the mode.
A 10
B 20
C 30
D 40
Correct Answer: Option A
Calculation: 
For a moderately skewed frequency distribution, the empirical relationship between the mean, median, and mode is given by the formula: {Mode} = 3 x {Median} - 2 \times \text{Mean}$$Identify the values: 

Median = 12Mean = 13

Apply the formula: {Mode} = 3(12) - 2(13) {Mode} = 36 - 26{Mode} = 10
2022 Prelims Statistics
Which of the following is an example of primary data?
A A public opinion poll on who should be the next President.
B A critical analysis of Julius Caesar.
C A person's Instagram account
D Inflation data uploaded at RBI website
Correct Answer: Option A
Why A is the correct answer: 
Primary data is original, first-hand data collected by a researcher for a specific purpose or project. In the case of a public opinion poll, the researchers are actively gathering new information directly from respondents to address their specific research question. 
Why the other options are not Primary Data: 
B) A critical analysis of Julius Caesar: This is secondary data. The author of the analysis is interpreting existing historical records or literature rather than collecting new, first-hand evidence. 
C) A person's Instagram account: While this might contain personal photos, when used for research, it is generally treated as secondary data (or "naturally occurring data"). The content was not created specifically for the purpose of your study. 
D) Inflation data uploaded at RBI website: This is a classic example of secondary data. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has already collected, processed, and published this information for general use; researchers accessing this website are using data that already exists.
2022 Prelims Statistics
Ram and Shyam toss three unbiased coins simultaneously. Shyam wins if he gets at least two tails.
Find the probability that Shyam wins.

A 1/2
B 2/3
C 3/8
D 5/8
Correct Answer: Option A
Calculation: 
Total Outcomes: When tossing 3 coins, each coin has 2 possibilities (Head or Tail). The total number of outcomes is 2 times 2 times 2 = 8.The sample space is: {HHH, HHT, HTH, THH, HTT, THT, TTH, TTT}. 
Favorable Outcomes:  
Shyam wins if he gets at least two tails (meaning 2 tails or 3 tails).Outcomes with exactly two tails: {HTT, THT, TTH} (3 outcomes)Outcomes with exactly three tails: {TTT} (1 outcome)Total favorable outcomes = 3 + 1 = 4.Probability:{Probability} = {Number of favorable outcomes}}\{\text{Total outcomes}} = {4}{8} = {1}\{2}
2022 Prelims Statistics
In India, around 17,25,980 people will die from Dengue in 2022. The population of India in 2022 is 135,00,50,000. Find the mortality rate per thousand.
A 1.79
B 1.28
C 3.56
D 0.78
Correct Answer: Option B
To find the mortality rate per thousand, we use the following formula: {Mortality Rate} = {Number of deaths}}\{Total population}} \right) \times 1,000$$Identify the values: Number of deaths = $1,725,980$Total population = $1,350,050,000$Calculate the ratio:$$\frac{1,725,980}{1,350,050,000} \approx 0.001278456$$Convert to per thousand:$$0.001278456 \times 1,000 \approx 1.278456$$Rounding to two decimal places, we get 1.28.
2022 Prelims Statistics
The present population of a country in lakhs in the years 2025 is estimated to be 170 and the population in 2020 was 140. Then find the approximate growth rate from 2020 to 2025.
A 21%
B 57%
C 89%
D 12%
Correct Answer: Option A
Identify the values: 
Population in 2020 (Old Value) = 140 lakhs Population in 2025 (New Value) = 170 lakhs Calculate the increase:$170 - 140 = 30$ lakhsDivide by the original value:$\{30}\{140} approx 0.2143
Convert to percentage:0.2143 x 100  approx 21.43% 
 Rounding to the nearest whole number, we get 21%.
2022 Prelims Statistics
Find the median of the following data:
21, 33, 45, 51, 12, 5, 8, 23, 17, 37, 15, 36

A 21
B 23
C 22
D 17
Correct Answer: Option C
Calculation Steps: 
Arrange the data in ascending order:5, 8, 12, 15, 17, 21, 23, 33, 36, 37, 45, 51Determine the count ($n$):There are 12 numbers in the dataset ($n = 12$).Find the middle position(s):Since $n$ is an even number, the median is the average of the two middle terms (the 6th and 7th terms).6th term = 217th term = 23Calculate the average: {21 + 23}\{2} = {44}\{2} = 22
2022 Prelims Statistics
If for any two attributes A and B, (AB) < (A). (B) / N, then the attributes are:
A Independent
B Negatively associated
C Positively associated
D Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: Option B
In the theory of attributes, the relationship between two attributes A and B within a population of size N is determined by comparing the observed joint frequency (AB) with the expected frequency assuming independence, which is calculated as  
N
(A)×(B)
 .

Negatively associated: (AB)< 
N
(A)×(B)
 
This indicates that the attributes appear together less frequently than would be expected if they were independent.

Positively associated: (AB)> 
N
(A)×(B)
 
This indicates that the attributes appear together more frequently than would be expected by chance.

Independent: (AB)= 
N
(A)×(B)
 
This indicates that the occurrence of one attribute has no effect on the occurrence of the other.

English 11 questions

2022 Prelims English
Which of the following is not a type of questionnaire?
A Structured-Undisguised Questionnaire
B Unstructured-Undisguised Questionnaire
C Unstructured-Disguised Questionnaire
D Normal-Disguised Questionnaire
Correct Answer: Option D
In research methodology, the classification of questionnaires is based on two main criteria:

Structure: How formal and predetermined the questions are.

Disguise: Whether the true purpose of the research is revealed to the respondent.

Why this is the correct choice:
The standard academic classification includes four specific combinations:

Structured-Undisguised: The most common type; questions are fixed and the purpose is clear.

Structured-Disguised: Questions are fixed, but the purpose is hidden to prevent bias.

Unstructured-Undisguised: Open-ended questions where the purpose is explained.

Unstructured-Disguised: Open-ended questions where the purpose is hidden (often used in depth-psychology or projective tests).

"Normal-Disguised" is not a standard category in marketing or social research terminology.
2022 Prelims English
Fill the blanks with the correct words.
It is not ______ to _______ nasty e-mails to your subordinate.

A write, right
B right, right
C right, write
D write, write
Correct Answer: Option C
Why this is the correct choice:
"Right" (Adjective): In the first blank, we need an adjective to describe the action (the behavior). "Right" here means correct, proper, or ethical.

"Write" (Verb): In the second blank, we need a verb to describe the action being performed. "Write" here refers to the act of composing or sending the e-mail.

Why the other options don't fit:
A) write, right: This is the reverse of the correct order. You cannot say "It is not write to right..." because "write" is a verb and "right" is an adjective; they do not function in that grammatical order here.

B) right, right: While both are spelled the same, using them twice would mean "It is not correct to correct...", which makes the sentence logically nonsensical.

D) write, write: This would mean "It is not write to write...", which is grammatically incorrect.
2022 Prelims English
Choose an appropriate synonym for the underlined word-
The food given in the hospital was insipid, but hygienic.
A tasty
B delicious
C tasteless
D spicy
Correct Answer: Option C
Why "tasteless" is the correct choice:
Definition: The word "insipid" means lacking flavor, vigor, or interest. In the context of food, it directly means that the food is bland or tasteless.

Contrast: The use of the conjunction "but" in the sentence ("...insipid, but hygienic") creates a contrast. Since "hygienic" is a positive quality, "insipid" is used here to describe a negative quality—the lack of flavor.

Why the other options don't fit:
A) tasty: This is an antonym of insipid.

B) delicious: This is also an antonym of insipid, describing food with a high quality of flavor.

D) spicy: This describes a specific type of flavor (heat from peppers or spices), which does not match the definition of "lacking flavor" (insipid).


2022 Prelims English
Fill in the blanks with the correct option.
She was very courageous to learn to _______ski at fifty.

A a
B No Article
C an
D the
Correct Answer: Option B
The sentence should read: "She was very courageous to learn to ski at fifty."

Why "No Article" is the correct choice:
Verb Usage: In this sentence, "ski" is used as a verb (the action of sliding on snow). When used as a verb, we do not place an article before it.

Activity vs. Noun: We use articles like "the" before sports or activities only when we are referring to them as specific nouns (e.g., "The skiing at this resort is excellent"). In your sentence, however, "ski" is part of the infinitive phrase "to ski," which describes the action she learned.

Why the other options don't fit:
A) a: An article cannot be placed before an infinitive verb (e.g., "to a ski" is grammatically incorrect).

C) an: Similar to "a," this article is used before nouns starting with a vowel sound. It is not used before a verb.

D) the: Using "the" here ("to the ski") would turn the action into a noun, suggesting she learned to use a specific piece of equipment (the ski), rather than learning the activity of skiing itself.
2022 Prelims English
Choose the right modal to fill in the blank:
He has promised that he ________ not harm you.

A might
B may
C could
D shall
Correct Answer: Option D
The complete sentence is: "He has promised that he shall not harm you."

Why "shall" is the correct choice:
Expression of Determination/Promise: In English grammar, when a person makes a firm promise or a statement of intent, "shall" (or sometimes "will") is used. While "will" is very common, "shall" is often used in formal English to express a commitment or a firm intention, especially when linked to an earlier promise.

The "Promise" context: Since the sentence explicitly states "He has promised," it signifies a strong commitment to a future action, making "shall" or "will" the most appropriate modal verbs to express that intent.

Why the other options don't fit:
A) might: This expresses low probability or uncertainty (e.g., "He might come, but I'm not sure"). A promise, by definition, is a certainty of intent, not a possibility.

B) may: This is often used for permission or general possibility. While it can express a wish, it is too weak for a firm promise.

C) could: This is the past tense of "can" or expresses a theoretical possibility/ability. It does not carry the weight of a firm, future-oriented commitment.
2022 Prelims English
Choose the option which will CORRECTLY fill the blank/s.
It very often ________here in April

A rains
B rained
C is raining
D had rained
Correct Answer: Option A
Why "rains" is the correct choice:
Habitual Action: The phrase "very often" indicates that this is a recurring, habitual, or routine event. When describing a regular habit or a general truth, we use the Simple Present Tense.

Subject-Verb Agreement: Since "it" is a singular third-person pronoun, the verb "rain" must take the "-s" ending, making it "rains."

Why the other options don't fit:
B) rained: This is the Simple Past Tense. It would only be used if we were talking about a specific instance in the past (e.g., "It rained here last April").

C) is raining: This is the Present Continuous Tense. It is used for an action happening right now at this exact moment (e.g., "Look out the window, it is raining here right now").

D) had rained: This is the Past Perfect Tense. It is used to describe an action that was completed before another action in the past; it doesn't fit a habitual statement
2022 Prelims English
Select the right preposition for the blank:
His infatuation ________ the girl led him astray.

A for
B about
C in
D from
Correct Answer: Option A
The sentence should read: "His infatuation for the girl led him astray."

Why "for" is the correct choice:
Collocation: In English grammar, the noun infatuation is almost always followed by the preposition "for" (e.g., "an infatuation for someone/something").

Meaning: It indicates a strong, often short-lived, feeling of intense passion or admiration directed toward a specific object or person.

Why the other options don't fit:
B) about: While we are "passionate about" something, we do not say "infatuation about."

C) in: This preposition does not typically collocate with "infatuation."

D) from: This suggests separation or origin, which does not fit the context of a feeling directed toward a person.
2022 Prelims English
Identify the sentence written in the passive voice.
A Much to his surprise, he was chosen as the lead actor by the director.
B The director chose him as the lead actor.
C It was surprising that the director chose him as the lead actor.
D The drama teacher chose him as the lead actor
Correct Answer: Option A
In this sentence, the subject (he) is the receiver of the action, not the doer. The action ("was chosen") is performed by the agent (the director), which is introduced by the word "by." This is the hallmark of the passive voice.

Why the other options are Active Voice:
B) The director chose him as the lead actor: The subject (the director) is performing the action (chose). This is in the active voice.

C) It was surprising that the director chose him as the lead actor: This is a complex sentence, but the clause "the director chose him" remains in the active voice because the director is still the one performing the action.

D) The drama teacher chose him as the lead actor: Similar to option B, the subject (the drama teacher) is performing the action (chose).
2022 Prelims English
Select the right sentence -
He said to him, "Please wait here till I return".

A He requested him to wait there till he returned
B He told him please wait here till I return
C He said him wait till I return here
D He ordered him to wait till he returned
Correct Answer: Option A
This is an example of converting Direct Speech into Indirect Speech (or Reported Speech). Here is why A is the correct transformation:

Reporting Verb: Since the original sentence uses "Please," it indicates a request. Therefore, "said to" is changed to "requested."

"Please": In indirect speech, the word "please" is removed because the reporting verb "requested" already conveys that tone.

Time and Place Markers: Rules for reported speech require that "here" changes to "there" and "I" (the speaker) changes to "he" (to maintain the third-person perspective).

Tense Shift: Because the reporting verb ("said") is in the past tense, the verb in the quotation ("return") must shift back to the past tense ("returned").

Why the other options are incorrect:

B) He told him please wait here till I return: This retains the direct speech structure ("please," "here," "I") within an indirect statement, which is grammatically incorrect.

C) He said him wait till I return here: This sentence is missing the necessary preposition "to" (it should be "said to him") and fails to apply the required tense shifts.

D) He ordered him to wait till he returned: While "ordered" is a past-tense verb, "ordered" is too harsh for a sentence that begins with "Please." "Requested" is the accurate choice.
2022 Prelims English
Read the following sentences to make a meaningful paragraph:
(a) This belongs to the rhizome group of plants and are actually the underground tubers of the plant.
(b) Haldi, also known as turmeric all over the world, is a very healthy food.
(c) In India, haldi is widely used in the preparation of most diets due to its immense medical value to humans.
(d) The traditional Indian therapeutic systems use this herb extensively for preparing a variety of medicines.

A abcd
B bdac
C cdab
D bacd
Correct Answer: Option D
To form a meaningful paragraph, the sentences should follow a logical flow that introduces the subject, explains its nature, and then describes its use in society and medicine:

(b) Haldi, also known as turmeric all over the world, is a very healthy food. (Introduces the topic)

(a) This belongs to the rhizome group of plants and are actually the underground tubers of the plant. (Provides biological context about the subject mentioned in the first sentence)

(c) In India, haldi is widely used in the preparation of most diets due to its immense medical value to humans. (Discusses its common use in the country)

(d) The traditional Indian therapeutic systems use this herb extensively for preparing a variety of medicines. (Concludes by connecting the diet to broader therapeutic/medical applications)
2022 Prelims English
Four alternatives are given for idioms/phrases.
Choose the one that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.
A wet blanket:

A A man who is always drunk
B A wife who is cold to her husband
C To wear black and white clothes
D A person who ends enjoyable activity
Correct Answer: Option A
A "wet blanket" refers to someone who ruins other people's fun or discourages enthusiasm. The imagery comes from the literal act of throwing a wet blanket over a fire to extinguish it, effectively killing the "heat" or excitement of the situation.

Why the other options don't fit:
A) A man who is always drunk: This is usually referred to as a "drunkard," "sot," or "boozer," not a wet blanket.

B) A wife who is cold to her husband: There is no specific idiom using "wet blanket" to describe a spouse; this would typically be described as "emotionally distant" or "cold."

C) To wear black and white clothes: This has no connection to the idiomatic meaning; it is a literal interpretation of the words, which is common in "distractor" options for idioms.

Accounting 21 questions

2022 Prelims Accounting
_________ refers to anything that has an economic value attached to it.
A Asset
B Liability
C Expense
D Profit
Correct Answer: Option A
In accounting and finance, an asset is a resource controlled by an individual or a corporation that has economic value and is expected to provide a future benefit. Assets are essentially what a business owns.

Why an Asset fits:
Economic Value: Assets can be converted into cash or used to generate revenue.

Future Benefit: Whether it is a machine used to make products or a patent that prevents competitors from copying an idea, the value lies in what it brings to the entity over time.

Why the other options don't fit:
B) Liability: This refers to what a company owes to outside parties (loans, accounts payable). It represents a future obligation or sacrifice of economic value rather than the value itself.

C) Expense: This is the cost of operations (rent, salaries) that a company incurs to generate revenue. Unlike an asset, which provides long-term value, an expense is usually "consumed" within a single accounting period.

D) Profit: This is the financial gain realized when revenue exceeds expenses. It is a result of business activity, not the underlying resource itself
2022 Prelims Accounting
When a company raises money from public for the first time it is known as ________________.
A private placement
B initial public offer
C further public offer
D green shoe option
Correct Answer: Option B
An IPO is the process by which a private company becomes a public company by offering its shares to the general public for the first time. This allows the company to raise significant capital for expansion, while the founders and early investors can transition their private shares into public ones.

Why the other options don't fit:
A) Private placement: This is the opposite of a public offer. The company sells shares to a small, select group of private investors (like insurance companies or pension funds) rather than the general public.

C) Further public offer (FPO): This happens when a company that is already listed on the stock exchange issues additional shares to the public to raise more money.

D) Green shoe option: This is a specific clause in an underwriting agreement that allows the underwriters to sell more shares than originally planned if there is high demand. It’s a tool for price stability, not the name of the offering itself.
2022 Prelims Accounting
If there is a positive balance in debit side of Profit & loss account, then what does it indicate?
A gross profit
B net profit
C gross loss
D net loss
Correct Answer: Option D
In the Profit & Loss (P&L) Account, the debit side is the "expense and loss" side, while the credit side is the "income and gain" side. If the total of the debit side is greater than the total of the credit side, it means your expenses have exceeded your income, resulting in a Net Loss.

How it works:
Debit Side: Records all indirect expenses (rent, salaries, electricity, depreciation, etc.).

Credit Side: Records Gross Profit (transferred from the Trading Account) and other indirect incomes (interest received, rent received, etc.).

The Result: To balance the account, the difference is added to the "lighter" side. If the debit side is heavier, the balancing figure is written on the credit side as "By Net Loss" and then transferred to the Capital Account (reducing the owner's equity).

Why the other options don't fit:
A) Gross profit: This is found in the Trading Account, not the P&L account. It occurs when Sales exceed the Cost of Goods Sold.

B) Net profit: This occurs when the Credit side (income) of the P&L account is greater than the Debit side (expenses).

C) Gross loss: Like Gross Profit, this is a result of the Trading Account, occurring when the cost of production is higher than the sales revenue.
2022 Prelims Accounting
What is the main goal of financial management?
A minimize risk of business
B maximize sales
C minimize loss
D maximize shareholder's wealth
Correct Answer: Option D
In modern corporate finance, the primary goal of financial management is to increase the market value of the company’s shares. By maximizing shareholder wealth, the firm ensures that it is operating efficiently and making decisions that benefit the owners of the business in the long term.

Why Wealth Maximization is the Main Goal:
Market Value: It takes into account the timing of returns and the risk involved, reflecting the true "net present value" of the company.

Sustainability: Unlike simply maximizing profits (which can be done by cutting essential costs), wealth maximization focuses on long-term growth and stock price appreciation.

Efficiency: When a company focuses on shareholder wealth, it generally results in better products and services, as a high-performing company attracts more investment.

Why the other options don't fit:
A) Minimize risk: While managing risk is crucial, a business that only seeks to minimize risk would never take the necessary chances (like R&D or expansion) required to grow.

B) Maximize sales: High sales do not always mean high success. If the cost of making those sales is higher than the revenue, the company will go bankrupt despite having "maximized sales."

C) Minimize loss: This is a defensive strategy. While important during a crisis, the ultimate goal of a business is to create positive value, not just avoid negative results.
2022 Prelims Accounting
Expense incurred to start a business is a:
A fictious asset
B fixed asset
C current asset
D liability
Correct Answer: Option A
Expenses incurred to start a business (such as legal fees, registration charges, and promoter expenses) are known as Preliminary Expenses. Because these are large costs that benefit the company for many years, they aren't written off all at once. Instead, they are treated as "assets" on the balance sheet temporarily, even though they have no physical form or scrap value.

Why it is a Fictitious Asset:
No Real Value: Unlike a building (Fixed Asset) or cash (Current Asset), you cannot sell "preliminary expenses" to a third party. They have no market value.

Accounting Treatment: They are technically "losses" or "expenses" that haven't been charged to the Profit & Loss account yet. They are gradually written off over a period of 3 to 5 years.

Why the other options don't fit:
B) Fixed asset: These are physical items like machinery, land, or vehicles used to produce income. Preliminary expenses are not physical objects.

C) Current asset: These are assets expected to be converted into cash within one year (like inventory or accounts receivable).

D) Liability: A liability is an amount the business owes to outsiders (like a bank loan). Startup expenses are money already spent by the business.
2022 Prelims Accounting
Trial alance helps to check the accuracy of the:
A balance sheet
B ledger
C journals
D cash flow statement
Correct Answer: Option B
A Trial Balance is a statement that lists the closing balances of all ledger accounts at a particular date. Since every debit entry must have a corresponding credit entry (Double-Entry System), the total of the debit balances must equal the total of the credit balances.

Why it checks the Ledger:
Mathematical Accuracy: If the two columns of the Trial Balance don't match, it is a clear sign that an error was made during the posting process from the Journal to the Ledger or while calculating the final balances of the Ledger accounts.

A Preliminary Step: It acts as a bridge between the Ledger and the final Financial Statements. You cannot reliably build a Balance Sheet or an Income Statement if your Ledger accounts are not balanced.

Why the other options don't fit:
A) Balance sheet: The Trial Balance is actually used to prepare the Balance Sheet, but it doesn't check its accuracy; rather, the Balance Sheet's accuracy depends on the Trial Balance.

C) Journals: While the Trial Balance can catch some errors made in the Journal, it is specifically designed to verify that the Ledger is balanced. It won't catch "Errors of Omission" (forgetting to record a transaction entirely in the Journal).

D) Cash flow statement: This is a specialized financial statement prepared much later in the cycle to track the movement of cash, not to check general bookkeeping accuracy.
2022 Prelims Accounting
Ledger account is prepared with the help of ______.
A Transactions
B Vouchers
C Journals
D Pass book
Correct Answer: Option C
While all the options are related to the accounting process, the Journal is the specific "Book of Original Entry" from which entries are "posted" into the Ledger.

The Accounting Cycle Flow
Think of it as a relay race where the information is passed from one stage to the next:

Vouchers: The raw evidence (receipts/bills).

Journals: Where the vouchers are first recorded chronologically.

Ledger: Where the journal entries are sorted and classified into specific accounts (Cash, Salary, Sales, etc.).

Why the other options don't fit:
A) Transactions: These are the actual events (buying/selling). You don't "prepare" a ledger directly from a mental event; you need a written record first.

B) Vouchers: Vouchers help you prepare the Journal. While they are the ultimate source, the standard accounting procedure is to move from Journal to Ledger.

D) Pass book: This is a copy of your account in the records of a bank. It is used to reconcile your cash book but isn't the primary source for building your company's general ledger.
2022 Prelims Accounting
 ______ is a documentary evidence of a transaction done.


A Journal
B Index
C Voucher
D Ledger
Correct Answer: Option C
In accounting, a voucher is the primary internal document used to support an entry in the accounting books. It acts as "proof" that a transaction actually occurred, providing details like the date, amount, nature of the transaction, and the signatures of authorizing officers.

Why a Voucher is the best fit:
Evidence: It is the "source document" or the starting point of the accounting cycle. Examples include cash memos, invoices, receipts, and pay-in slips.

Audit Trail: Auditors rely on vouchers to verify that the numbers recorded in the books are backed by real-world events.

Why the other options don't fit:
A) Journal: This is the "Book of Original Entry" where transactions are first recorded in chronological order. The journal records the evidence found in the voucher; it isn't the evidence itself.

B) Index: In accounting, an index is simply a list (like a Table of Contents) used to quickly locate accounts within a large ledger.

D) Ledger: This is the "Principal Book" of accounts where transactions are categorized into specific accounts (like Cash, Rent, or Sales). It is a summary, not the raw evidence.
2022 Prelims Accounting
In case of an overcharge which of the following documents is issued?
A Debit note
B Credit note
C Bank note
D Ledger note
Correct Answer: Option B
When a customer is overcharged (meaning they were billed for more than they should have been), the seller issues a Credit Note. This document effectively reduces the amount the customer owes or provides them with a "credit" for future purchases.
Why a Credit Note is used: Correcting Errors: If the invoice price was too high or the quantity listed was greater than what was delivered. Returns: If a customer returns goods, a credit note "undoes" the previous charge .Discounts: If a post-sale discount is granted that wasn't included in the original invoice.
Why the other options don't fit:
A) Debit note: This is the opposite. It is issued when a customer is undercharged or when a buyer returns goods to a supplier and wants to show they owe less.

C) Bank note: This is simply legal tender (paper money/currency).

D) Ledger note: This is not a standard commercial document; a "ledger" is a book of accounts where transactions are recorded, but it isn't "issued" to customers.
2022 Prelims Accounting
Decreasing value in tangible assets due to the normal wear and tear is known as ________________.
A expense
B amortization
C reserve
D depreciation
Correct Answer: Option D
In accounting, depreciation is the systematic process of allocating the cost of a tangible asset over its useful life. It reflects how much of an asset's value has been "used up" due to physical wear and tear, age, or obsolescence.

Why the other options don't fit:
A) Expense: While depreciation is recorded as an expense, "expense" is a broad category for all costs of doing business (like rent or utilities), not a specific term for asset wear and tear.

B) Amortization: This is the equivalent of depreciation but for intangible assets (like patents, trademarks, or copyrights) rather than physical ones.

C) Reserve: A reserve is an amount of profit set aside for a specific purpose (like future investments or unexpected costs), not a measure of asset decline.
2022 Prelims Accounting
Copyright is a/an ______.
A Asset
B Liability
C Expense
D Profit
Correct Answer: Option A
Why is it an Asset?

An asset is any resource owned by a business that has value and can produce future financial benefits. Copyrights qualify because:

Ownership: The business has the legal right to the creative work.

Future Income: It can generate revenue through sales, licensing, or royalties.

Duration: It usually provides value for many years, making it a Non-Current (Fixed) Asset.

Why the other options are incorrect:
B) Liability: A liability is something you owe to others (like a loan). A copyright is something you own.

C) Expense: While the cost of acquiring a copyright is "amortized" (spread out) as an expense over its useful life, the copyright itself is an asset.

D) Profit: Profit is the surplus remaining after deducting expenses from revenue. A copyright helps generate profit, but it isn't profit itself.
2022 Prelims Accounting
If the asset of business is Rs 2,00,000 and equity is Rs 50,000 then what will be the liability?
A 2,50,000
B 2,00,000
C 1,50,000
D 2,20,000
Correct Answer: Option C
This problem is solved using the fundamental Accounting Equation, which must always stay in balance for every business.The Calculation:The basic formula is:
{Assets} = {Liabilities} + {Equity}
To find the liability, we rearrange the formula:{Liabilities} = {Assets} - {Equity}
Given :Assets: Rs\ 2,00,000 Equity:  Rs\ 50,000 {Liabilities} = 2,00,000 - 50,000 =  {Rs\ 1,50,000} 
This means that out of the Rs\ 2,00,000 worth of assets owned by the business, Rs 50,000  was contributed by the owners (Equity) and the remaining Rs 1,50,000 was financed through external debts (Liabilities).
2022 Prelims Accounting
How frequently is the Trial balance prepared?
A quarterly
B during the year
C end of month
D end of financial year
Correct Answer: Option D
While a business can technically prepare a Trial Balance at any time to check for mathematical accuracy, its primary and formal preparation occurs at the end of the financial year as a necessary step before drafting the Final Accounts (Profit & Loss Account and Balance Sheet).

Why the End of the Financial Year?
The Trial Balance serves as a bridge between the Ledger and the Financial Statements. Its main purposes at year-end are:

Verification: To ensure that the total of all Debit balances equals the total of all Credit balances.

Summarization: To provide a condensed list of all ledger balances in one place.

Preparation: To facilitate the adjustment entries (like closing stock, depreciation, and outstanding expenses) required to close the books for the year.

Can it be prepared more often?
Option B & C: Many large companies prepare a Trial Balance monthly or quarterly as part of their internal "closing" process to catch errors early. However, these are internal checks rather than the mandatory statutory requirement.

Real-time Accounting: In modern computerized accounting (like Tally or SAP), the Trial Balance is updated instantly with every entry, though the formal "Final" version is still associated with the year-end.
2022 Prelims Accounting
Which of the following is correct?
A equity = asset + liability
B liability = asset + equity
C asset = liability + equity
D equity = liability
Correct Answer: Option C
This is known as the Accounting Equation (or the Balance Sheet Equation). it is the fundamental framework upon which the entire double-entry bookkeeping system is built.

Understanding the Equation
The equation represents the relationship between what a business owns, what it owes to others, and what it owes to its owners.

Assets: Everything the company owns that has value (e.g., Cash, Inventory, Buildings, Machinery).

Liabilities: The company's legal debts or obligations to external parties (e.g., Bank Loans, Accounts Payable, Taxes).

Equity (Owner's Equity): The remaining value of the business belonging to the owners after all liabilities are paid off. It is often called "Net Worth."

2022 Prelims Accounting
Loss due to fire in factory is recorded in the ______________.
A balance sheet
B insurance account
C profit and loss statement
D factory account
Correct Answer: Option C
How the Transaction is Recorded
When a fire occurs, the accounting treatment usually follows two or three steps depending on whether the stock was insured:

Credit the Trading Account: The value of the goods lost is credited to the Trading Account (as "Loss by Fire") because those goods are no longer available for sale.

Debit the Profit & Loss (P&L) Statement: The actual loss amount is debited to the P&L statement as an expense/loss.

Insurance Claim (If applicable): If the insurance company admits a claim, only the net loss (Total Loss minus Insurance Claim) is debited to the P&L statement. The claim amount itself is shown as an asset in the Balance Sheet until it is paid.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Balance Sheet: The Balance Sheet shows the financial position (Assets and Liabilities) at a point in time. While a pending insurance claim might appear here, the loss itself must be closed out in the P&L statement.

B) Insurance Account: This is a temporary account used to track the claim process, but it is not the final "home" for recording the loss.

D) Factory Account: Usually, "Factory Account" refers to Manufacturing or Trading accounts. While the credit entry happens here to adjust inventory, the final "recording" of the loss impact is in the P&L.
2022 Prelims Accounting
In absence of any Profit-sharing ratio how is the profit divided?
A equally amongst all partners
B on the basis of capital
C on the basis of experience
D as the court may decide
Correct Answer: Option A
In the world of accounting and law, if a partnership firm does not have a formal Partnership Deed, or if the deed is silent regarding how profits and losses should be split, the provisions of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 (specifically Section 13) apply .
Key Rules in the Absence of a Partnership Deed:When there is no written agreement, the following rules must be followed regardless of how much work or money each partner contributes:Profit and Loss Sharing: Profits and losses are shared equally, even if one partner invested $Rs\ 10,00,000$ and another invested only $Rs\ 1,000$.Interest on Capital: No interest is allowed on the capital contributed by partners.Salary/Remuneration: No partner is entitled to any salary, commission, or remuneration for taking part in the business, regardless of their experience (Option C).Interest on Loans: If a partner provides a loan to the firm (beyond their capital), they are entitled to interest at a fixed rate of 6% per annum.Why the other options are incorrect:B) On the basis of capital: This only happens if specifically agreed upon in a written deed. Without a deed, capital contribution is irrelevant to the profit split.C) On the basis of experience: Experience might help a partner negotiate a better deal in a contract, but the law does not recognize "effort" or "seniority" as a default basis for money distribution.D) As the court may decide: Courts generally only intervene to enforce the "equal sharing" rule defined by the Act; they do not arbitrarily decide new ratios.
2022 Prelims Accounting
Unpresented cheque is also commonly known as _______________.
A bounced cheque
B credited cheque
C uncollected cheque
D outstanding cheque
Correct Answer: Option D
Why is it called an Outstanding Cheque?
In accounting terms, "outstanding" means something that is still pending or has not yet been settled.

From your perspective: You have already subtracted the amount from your Cash Book because you've handed the cheque over.

From the bank's perspective: They don't know the cheque exists until the recipient goes to the bank to deposit or cash it. Therefore, the money is still in your account according to the Bank Statement.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Bounced Cheque: This is a cheque that the bank refuses to pay, usually due to insufficient funds (officially called "Dishonoured").

B) Credited Cheque: This refers to a cheque that has already been processed and the money added to an account.

C) Uncollected Cheque: This is the opposite of an unpresented cheque. It is a cheque you received and deposited, but the bank has not yet collected the funds from the other person's bank.
2022 Prelims Accounting
In bank statement, cash deposited is shown as _____.
A debit
B credit
C expense
D profit
Correct Answer: Option B
Why is it a Credit?
This is often confusing because, in your own accounting books, cash is an asset, and increasing it would be a Debit. However, a bank statement is prepared from the bank's perspective:

The Bank's Liability: When you deposit money, the bank now owes that money back to you. In accounting, an increase in a liability is a Credit.

Your Perspective vs. Bank's Perspective:

In your Ledger: You Debit the Bank account (Asset increases).

In the Bank's Ledger: They Credit your account (Liability to you increases).

Understanding the Options
A) Debit: In a bank statement, a debit represents a withdrawal or a deduction (like an ATM withdrawal or a bank fee).

C) Expense: While a withdrawal might be for an expense, the entry itself is a transaction type, not the expense category.

D) Profit: Depositing your own money is not a profit; it is simply moving an asset (Cash) into another form (Bank Balance).
2022 Prelims Accounting
In ledger book which accounts are maintained?
A only nominal
B only real
C real, personal and nominal
D real and nominal
Correct Answer: Option C
The Three Types of Accounts
In the traditional classification of accounting, accounts are divided into three categories:

Personal Accounts: These relate to individuals, firms, companies, or institutions (e.g., Debtors, Creditors, Bank Account).

Real Accounts: These relate to assets or properties owned by the business, which can be touched (tangible) or felt (intangible) (e.g., Cash, Machinery, Building, Goodwill).

Nominal Accounts: These relate to expenses, losses, incomes, and gains (e.g., Salary, Rent, Commission Received, Interest Paid).

Why all three are in the Ledger:
While the Journal records transactions chronologically, the Ledger classifies them.

If you only kept Nominal accounts, you wouldn't know how much cash you have (Real).

If you only kept Real accounts, you wouldn't know who owes you money (Personal).
2022 Prelims Accounting
If the opening capital is Rs 80,000 and closing capital is Rs 1,00,000 then what is the amount of profit or loss?
A profit 1,00,000
B loss 1,00,000
C profit 20,000
D loss 20,000
Correct Answer: Option C
In accounting, the simplest way to determine the profit or loss for a period (assuming no additional capital was introduced and no drawings were made by the owner) is by calculating the change in capital.
The Calculation:
The formula used is:{Profit/Loss} = {Closing Capital} - {Opening Capital}
Given:
Opening Capital: Rs80,000 Closing Capital:  Rs 1,00,000{Profit} = 1,00,000 - 80,000 = {Rs 20,000}
Since the closing capital is higher than the opening capital, it indicates that the business has earned a profit. If the closing capital were lower, it would have been a loss.
2022 Prelims Accounting
In double entry book keeping system:
A same transaction is recorded in two people's account.
B two books are kept and entries are made in both.
C recording a transaction and giving it debit & credit entry.
D recording the transaction two times
Correct Answer: Option C
Why Option C is Correct
The "double" in double-entry doesn't mean recording the same thing twice for the sake of it; it refers to the duality of the transaction. For every Debit (Dr.), there must be a corresponding Credit (Cr.) of an equal amount.

Example: If a business buys a laptop for $1,000 in cash:

The Office Equipment account is debited (Assets increase).

The Cash account is credited (Assets decrease).

Why the other options are incorrect:
A: Recording in "two people's accounts" is incorrect because a transaction might involve an internal account (like Depreciation or Rent) rather than another person.

B: It doesn't mean keeping "two separate books." All entries are typically kept in one General Ledger.

D: "Recording two times" is misleading. It’s one recording process that affects two sides (Debit and Credit) of the ledger.

Macroeconomics 4 questions

2022 Prelims Macroeconomics
P and Q are two partners sharing profit and losses in 3:2 ratio. They admit Y as a new partner with 1/5th share.
What will be the new profit-sharing ratio?
A 12:4:7
B 12:8:5
C 12:5:8
D 8:5:12
Correct Answer: Option B
Why the other options don't fit:A) 12:4:7: This would imply Q lost half his proportional share while Y took a larger portion.C) 12:5:8: This swaps the ratios of Q and Y.D) 8:5:12: This suggests the new partner Y has the largest share, which is incorrect as Y was only admitted for {1}\{5}20%.
2022 Prelims Macroeconomics
What is the main objective of audit?
A To detect errors and fraud
B To express true and fair opinion on financial statements
C To give message to the shareholders
D To pay tax to the government
Correct Answer: Option B
While many people think the primary job of an auditor is to "catch the bad guys" (detecting fraud), that is actually considered a secondary objective. The main (primary) objective is to provide an independent professional opinion on whether the financial statements present a "true and fair view" of the company's financial position.Why the other options don't fit:A) To detect errors and fraud: This is a subsidiary (secondary) objective. An auditor designs the audit to have a reasonable chance of finding material misstatements, but they are not "bloodhounds" specifically hunting for fraud unless they find suspicious evidence.C) To give message to the shareholders: While the audit report is addressed to shareholders, the "message" isn't the objective; the validation of the accounts is.D) To pay tax to the government: This is the responsibility of the company’s management and tax accountants, not the independent auditor.
2022 Prelims Macroeconomics
The term social accounting was first introduced by __________.
A Abraham Lincoln
B J. R. Hicks
C Adam Smith
D William Scott
Correct Answer: Option B
The term Social Accounting (also known as National Accounting) was first introduced by the British economist Sir John Richard Hicks in 1942. He used it to describe a method of measuring a country's economic activity by treating the entire nation like a single business entity with its own set of "accounts."

Why the other options don't fit:
A) Abraham Lincoln: While a monumental historical figure, he was the 16th President of the United States and not an economic theorist.

C) Adam Smith: Known as the "Father of Economics," he wrote The Wealth of Nations in 1776, long before the modern framework of social accounting was developed.

D) William Scott: Though there are several notable people by this name (including historians and business professors), none are credited with the origin of this specific term.
2022 Prelims Macroeconomics
Classifications under social accounting include:
A assets, liabilities, debt position
B households, governments, enterprise
C income, product, expenditure
D public sector, private sector and joint sector
Correct Answer: Option B
The Three Main Sectors in Social Accounting:
Households: This sector provides factors of production (like labor and land) and consumes the goods and services produced by other sectors.

Governments: This sector collects taxes and provides public services (like defense and infrastructure). It acts as both a consumer and a producer.

Enterprises (Business Sector): These are the firms that produce goods and services for sale in the market.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Assets, liabilities, debt position: These are classifications used in Micro-accounting (for a single business) or a Balance Sheet, not social accounting.

C) Income, product, expenditure: These are the three methods used to measure National Income, not the sectors themselves.

D) Public, private, and joint sector: These are classifications of industries based on ownership, often used in the context of an industrial policy rather than social accounting frameworks.

Indian Economy 1 questions

2022 Prelims Indian Economy
GST was implemented on
A 1st July 2019
B 1st July 2017
C 1st July 2018
D 1st July 2020
Correct Answer: Option B
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) was launched at midnight on July 1, 2017, in a historic ceremony at the Central Hall of Parliament. It replaced a complex web of indirect taxes like Excise Duty, VAT, and Service Tax with a "One Nation, One Tax" system.

Key Facts About GST Implementation:
Constitutional Amendment: It was introduced via the 101st Amendment Act, 2016.

The "Father" of GST in India: While the concept was proposed much earlier, the implementation is largely attributed to the efforts of the then-Finance Minister, Arun Jaitley.

Structure: GST is a destination-based tax on the consumption of goods and services. It is divided into:

CGST: Collected by the Central Government on intra-state sales.

SGST: Collected by State Governments on intra-state sales.

IGST: Collected by the Center on inter-state sales and imports.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A, C, and D: These dates are incorrect as the tax was already functional by then. July 1st is now officially celebrated annually as GST Day in India to commemorate the 2017 launch.

Economy 2 questions

2022 Prelims Economy
PFMS was earlier known as:
A compliance plan scheme monitoring system
B central plan scheme monitoring system
C fund planning monetary system
D state plan scheme monitoring system
Correct Answer: Option B
The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) was rebranded from its original name, CPSMS, in 2013 to reflect its expanded scope of tracking and managing all government expenditures, rather than just specific "plan" schemes.

Understanding PFMS
PFMS is a web-based software application developed and implemented by the Controller General of Accounts (CGA), Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.

Original Purpose (CPSMS): It started in 2009 as a pilot in four states (Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab, and Mizoram) to track funds released under the Central Plan Schemes of the Government of India.

Current Role (PFMS): It now serves as a robust platform for:

Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT): Ensuring subsidies and payments go directly to the bank accounts of beneficiaries.

Real-time Monitoring: Tracking the utilization of funds by various implementing agencies.

Transparency: Reducing "float" in the system (money sitting idle in bank accounts) and preventing leakages.
2022 Prelims Economy
In October 2021, Government of India signed a share purchase agreement with Tata Sons for sale of which of the following airlines for Rs 18,000 crores?
A IndiGo
B SpiceJet
C Go First
D Air India
Correct Answer: Option D
Key Financial Details
The deal was valued at ₹18,000 crores, structured as follows:

Cash Payment: Tata Sons paid ₹2,700 crores in cash to the government.

Debt Assumption: The group took over ₹15,300 crores of the airline's accumulated debt.

Included Assets: The sale included 100% stake in Air India, 100% stake in its low-cost subsidiary Air India Express, and a 50% stake in the ground-handling joint venture AISATS.

Historical Significance
This was a historic "homecoming" for the airline. Air India was originally founded by J.R.D. Tata as Tata Airlines in 1932 before being nationalized by the Indian government in 1953. After nearly 69 years, the airline returned to the Tata Group's control on January 27, 2022, when the handover process was officially completed.

Why the other options are incorrect:
IndiGo: Operated by InterGlobe Aviation, it is a private airline and was never owned by the government.

SpiceJet: A private low-cost carrier; interestingly, its promoter Ajay Singh led a rival consortium that bid ₹15,100 crores for Air India but lost to the Tatas.

Go First: Owned by the Wadia Group, it remained a private entity until it filed for bankruptcy in 2023.

Geography 13 questions

2022 Prelims Geography
Which among the following options is a major tributary of the Bhagirathi river?
A Bhilangna river
B Pindar river
C Dhauliganga
D Bishenganga
Correct Answer: Option A
The Bhilangna is the most significant tributary of the Bhagirathi. The two rivers meet at Old Tehri, which is now the site of the Tehri Dam, one of the tallest dams in the world.

Understanding the Bhagirathi River System
The Bhagirathi is one of the two main headstreams of the Ganges (Ganga). It originates from the Gaumukh glacier and flows until it meets the Alaknanda River at Devprayag to officially form the Ganga.
2022 Prelims Geography
As per Census 2011, what is the literacy rate of India?
A 67.02 %
B 70.10 %
C 74.04 %
D 81.03 %
Correct Answer: Option C
According to the 2011 Census of India, the country’s literacy rate saw a significant jump from the 64.84% recorded in 2001. While the overall figure is 74.04%, there is a notable gap when you break the data down by gender and state.Key Literacy Statistics (2011)To give you a fuller picture of the 2011 data, here are the specific breakdowns:Male Literacy: 82.14%Female Literacy: 65.46%Highest Literacy State: Kerala (94.00%)Lowest Literacy State: Bihar (61.80%)Trends Over TimeThe 2011 Census was the 15th official census of India. The following table shows the steady progress made in national literacy since independence
2022 Prelims Geography
Which of the following countries lies to the south of India?
A Pakistan
B Maldives
C Myanmar
D Bangladesh
Correct Answer: Option B
While all the countries listed share some form of proximity to India, their geographical orientations vary significantly:

Maldives: Located to the south-southwest of India in the Indian Ocean. It is an archipelagic nation situated south of India's Lakshadweep Islands.

Pakistan: Located to the northwest of India.

Myanmar: Located to the east of India, sharing a border with several northeastern states.

Bangladesh: Located to the east, almost entirely surrounded by Indian territory on three sides.
2022 Prelims Geography
The Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) is the premier container handling port in India, accounting for around 50% of the total containerized cargo volume, across the major ports of India. It is located in:
A Navi Mumbai
B Kochi
C Visakhapatnam
D Chennai
Correct Answer: Option A
Key Highlights of JNPT
Strategic Location: It is situated on the Arabian Sea and is well-connected to the dedicated freight corridors, making it the gateway for India's international trade.

Volume: As mentioned in your question, it handles nearly 50% of the containerized cargo among India's 12 major ports.

Automation: It is India's first 100% landlord major port, meaning the port authority acts as a regulatory body while terminal operations are carried out by private players.

Why the other options are incorrect:
B) Kochi: Home to the Cochin Port, which is famous for the International Container Transshipment Terminal (ICTT) at Vallarpadam, but it does not match JNPT's volume.

C) Visakhapatnam: A major port on the East Coast (Andhra Pradesh), primarily known for handling iron ore, coal, and oil.

D) Chennai: The Chennai Port is the second largest container port in India, but it is located on the Bay of Bengal and handles significantly less volume than JNPT.
2022 Prelims Geography
The origin of which of the following lakes in Jammu and Kashmir is associated with the Mahabharata?
A Dal lake
B Surinsar lake
C Nagin lake
D Wullar lake
Correct Answer: Option B
The Legend of Surinsar and Mansar:
According to local tradition and mythological texts:

The Archer: The origin is attributed to Arjuna, the legendary hero of the Mahabharata.

The Arrow: It is believed that Arjuna shot an arrow into the earth at Mansar to create a water source. The arrow pierced the earth and emerged at a distance, creating a second lake—Surinsar.

The Name: The name "Surinsar" is derived from Surung-sar (Surung meaning tunnel and Sar meaning lake), signifying the underground connection between the two water bodies.

Religious Significance: To this day, the twin lakes are considered holy. Devotees often perform circumambulation (Parikrama) around Mansar, and it is common to see various ancient temples, such as the shrine of Sheshnag, on its banks.
2022 Prelims Geography
Which of the following soils is suitable for saffron cultivation in Jammu and Kashmir region?
A Gruti soil
B Karewa soil
C Nambal soil
D Tand soil
Correct Answer: Option B
What are Karewas?
Origin: Geologically, Karewas are "lacustrine deposits." Millions of years ago, the Kashmir Valley was a massive lake. Due to tectonic shifts, the lake drained out through the Baramulla gorge, leaving behind thick deposits of clay, sand, and silt. These elevated plateaus are what we call Karewas.

Composition: The soil is characterized by a mix of fine silt, clay, and boulders. It has excellent drainage properties and specific mineral content that the saffron corm (Crocus sativus) needs to flourish.

Primary Location: While found across the valley, the most famous Karewa for saffron is in Pampore, often called the "Saffron Bowl of Kashmir."


Other Crops: Besides saffron, Karewas are also ideal for growing almonds, walnuts, and apples.
2022 Prelims Geography
Which country shares boundary with Pakistan in the West?
A Iran
B India
C Iraq
D China
Correct Answer: Option A
Breakdown of Pakistan's Borders:
Pakistan is strategically located at the crossroads of South Asia, Central Asia, and the Middle East.

West: Iran.

East: India (The International Border, the LoC, and the Sir Creek).

North-East: China (Bordering the Gilgit-Baltistan region).

North and North-West: Afghanistan (The border is known as the Durand Line).

South: The Arabian Sea (Coastline).

Why the other options are incorrect:
India (B): Shares the border to the East.

Iraq (C): Does not share a border with Pakistan. It is separated from Pakistan by Iran.

China (D): Shares a border to the North-East.
2022 Prelims Geography
Which among the following lakes is located in Jammu and Kashmir?
A Sambhar lake
B Lonar lake
C Agara Lake
D Wular lake
Correct Answer: Option D
Key Facts about Wular Lake:
Origin: It is a tectonic lake, formed as a result of tectonic activity in the earth's crust.

Feeder River: The Jhelum River flows into and out of the lake, acting as its primary source of water and silt.

Size and Depth: Its size varies significantly by season, but it can span up to 189 square kilometers. It acts as a natural flood reservoir for the Jhelum River.

Ramsar Site: Because of its immense biodiversity, it was designated as a Wetland of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention in 1990.

Economics: The lake is a major source of fish (particularly Schizothorax species) and water chestnuts (Singhara), providing a livelihood for thousands of local villagers
2022 Prelims Geography
Read the following statements and choose the CORRECT option.

Statement I: Wheat and Barley are grown as rabi crops in India.
Statement II: Rabi crops are sown in the beginning of the monsoon season and harvested between October and December.

A Statement I: FALSE, Statement II: TRUE
B Statement I: TRUE, Statement II: FALSE
C Statement I: FALSE, Statement II: FALSE
D Statement I: TRUE, Statement II: TRUE
Correct Answer: Option B
Statement I is True: Wheat and Barley are indeed classic examples of Rabi crops in India.

Statement II is False: Rabi crops are not sown at the beginning of the monsoon. They are sown in winter (October to December) and harvested in spring/summer (April to June). The description in Statement II actually refers to Kharif crops (though Kharif is harvested starting in September/October).
2022 Prelims Geography
As per census 2011, with regards to sex ratio, the number of females per 1000 males in India was:
A 890
B 1140
C 990
D 940
Correct Answer: Option D
According to the official data from the Census of India 2011, the sex ratio in the country was recorded as 943 females per 1000 males. In most competitive exams, this is rounded to 940 or listed specifically as 943.
2022 Prelims Geography
The Vale of Kashmir (Kashmir valley) is the sole producer of which product (in India)?
A Sapphire
B Walnut
C Saffron
D Peach
Correct Answer: Option C
Why Saffron is Unique to the Vale:
Soil (Karewas): Saffron requires a very specific type of soil called Karewa (lacustrine deposits). These are flat-topped emotional plateaus found primarily in the Kashmir Valley.

Ideal Climate: It thrives at an altitude of approximately 1,600 to 1,800 meters, requiring cool winds and specific photoperiods (sunlight hours) found in the valley.

Pampore: Known as the "Saffron Bowl of Kashmir," the Pampore highland is the primary hub for this spice.

GI Tag: Kashmir Saffron received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in 2020, which protects its identity in the global market and confirms its superior quality (higher crocin content) compared to Iranian or Spanish varieties.

Clarification on Other Options:

Sapphire (A): While J&K is famous for the world-renowned "Blue Sapphire," it is found in the Paddar Valley of Kishtwar, not the Vale of Kashmir.

Walnut (B): J&K produces over 90% of India's walnuts, but they are also grown in smaller quantities in Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.

Peach (D): Peaches are grown in several Himalayan states, including Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.
2022 Prelims Geography
Which among the following is the largest wetland sanctuary in the state of Gujarat and one of the biggest in India?
A Kaziranga national park
B Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary
C Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary
D Uppalapadu Bird Sanctuary
Correct Answer: Option B
Why the other options are incorrect:
Kaziranga National Park: Located in Assam; famous for the One-horned Rhinoceros.

Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary: Located in Haryana (Gurgaon).

Uppalapadu Bird Sanctuary: Located in Andhra Pradesh (Guntur).
2022 Prelims Geography
Which is the only active volcanic island in India?
A Minicoy Island
B Amindivi Island
C Barren Island
D Laccadive Island
Correct Answer: Option C
It stands as the only confirmed active volcano not just in India, but in all of South Asia.
The Subject of Barren Island
Barren Island is a fascinating geological landmark located in the Andaman Sea. Here is a breakdown of its significance:
Geographic Location: It is part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, situated about 135 km northeast of Port Blair.
Geological Context: It lies along a volcanic arc that stretches from Sumatra to Myanmar. It was formed due to the subduction of the Indian Plate beneath the Burmese Plate.
Volcanic Type: It is a stratovolcano (a conical volcano built up by many layers of hardened lava and ash).
Eruption History: After lying dormant for nearly 150 years, it erupted in 1787. In recent decades, it has become active again, with significant activity recorded in 1991, 1994–95, and as recently as 2017–2018.
Environment: True to its name, the island is mostly uninhabited by humans and has very little vegetation. Interestingly, it is known for a small population of hardy feral goats that survive there by drinking brackish water.

History 4 questions

2022 Prelims History
Who among the following Mughal emperors carved Kashmir out as a separate subah (imperial top-level province) in his dynasty with the power seated at Srinagar?
A Akbar
B Shah Jahan
C Jehangir
D Aurangzeb
Correct Answer: Option B
Historical Context
Akbar: He conquered Kashmir in 1586, but at that time, it was integrated as a sarkar (district) under the Kabul Subah.

Shah Jahan: Recognizing the region's importance and unique geography, he elevated its status. By carving it out as a separate province with Srinagar as its seat of power, he allowed for more direct imperial administration.

Jehangir: He is perhaps the most famous lover of Kashmir ("If there is a heaven on earth, it's here"), but his contributions were primarily in the form of aesthetics and gardens (like Shalimar Bagh) rather than administrative restructuring.
The Mughal Subah System
The subahs were the primary administrative units of the Mughal Empire, functioning much like modern-day states. Each was governed by a Subahdar (governor) appointed directly by the Emperor.


2022 Prelims History
Which among the following was the residential palace of Raja Amar Singh, located in Jammu?
A Bahu Fort
B Amar Mahal
C Akhnoor Fort
D Gol Ghar
Correct Answer: Option B
About Amar Mahal

The Amar Mahal Palace was built in the late 19th century (completed in 1891) for Raja Amar Singh, a Dogra king. It is one of the most iconic landmarks in Jammu, known for its unique architecture and historical significance.

Key Features of the Palace
Architecture: It was designed by a French architect in the style of a French château, featuring slanted roofs, tall windows, and ornate brickwork. This makes it stand out significantly from the traditional Indian fort styles found nearby.

The Golden Throne: The palace houses a famous golden throne made of 120 kg of pure gold.

Museum: Today, the palace has been converted into the Amar Mahal Museum and Library, which hosts a rich collection of Pahari miniature paintings and rare books.

Location: It is situated on a hillock overlooking the Tawi River, offering a panoramic view of the Jammu city and the Shivalik ranges.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A) Bahu Fort: This is an ancient fort (and home to the Bawe Wali Mata temple) across the Tawi River. While it was a military stronghold, it wasn't the primary residential palace of Raja Amar Singh.

C) Akhnoor Fort: Located about 28 km from Jammu on the banks of the Chenab River, this fort is an archaeological site dating back to the Moghul and Dogra periods, but it wasn't the personal residence of Raja Amar Singh.

D) Gol Ghar: This was a part of the Mubarak Mandi Palace complex (the main royal seat of the Dogra dynasty). While historically significant, "Amar Mahal" is the specific palace built for and named after Raja Amar Singh.
2022 Prelims History
In 2021, the Jammu and Kashmir Government filed an application to seek GI tag for which of the following species of mushrooms?
A Telia Sattar
B Gucchi
C Boda
D Matij
Correct Answer: Option B
The GI Tag Application
In 2021, the Jammu and Kashmir government filed a Geographical Indication (GI) tag application for the Gucchi mushroom (scientifically known as Morchella esculenta), specifically those harvested from the high-altitude forests of the Doda district.

Why Gucchi is Significant
These mushrooms are among the most expensive and sought-after fungi in the world. Here is why they are so highly valued:

Wild Growth: Unlike common button mushrooms, Gucchi cannot be cultivated commercially. They grow wild in the Himalayan foothills after the snow melts and are often triggered by the nitrogen released during spring thunderstorms.

Economic Value: Often referred to as "Black Gold," they can cost anywhere from ₹20,000 to ₹30,000 per kilogram.

Nutritional Profile: They are prized for being rich in protein, antioxidants, and minerals, as well as for their unique earthy flavor and spongy texture.

Local Livelihood: The collection process is arduous and provides a critical source of seasonal income for forest-dwelling communities in the region.

Understanding the Other Options
While the other names might sound local, they do not carry the same international commercial weight as Gucchi:

Boda: Typically refers to a variety of wild truffle/earth ball found in parts of Central India (like Chhattisgarh), rather than J&K.

Telia Sattar/Matij: These are not recognized commercial species associated with GI tag filings in the region.
2022 Prelims History
Gulab Singh was eventually made the Raja of Jammu through which the following Treaties dated: 16-3-1846?
A Treaty of Delhi
B Treaty of Lahore
C Treaty of Amritsar
D Treaty of Srinagar
Correct Answer: Option C
While the Treaty of Lahore (March 9, 1846) ended the First Anglo-Sikh War and forced the Sikh Empire to cede territories to the British, it was the Treaty of Amritsar, signed just one week later on March 16, 1846, that specifically settled the status of Jammu and Kashmir.

Key Details of the Treaty
The Transaction: Through this treaty, the British government transferred the hilly regions between the Ravi and Indus rivers (including Kashmir) to Gulab Singh.

The Price: Gulab Singh paid the British government 7.5 million Nanakshahee Rupees (75 lakhs) for the territory.

The Outcome: This agreement effectively established the Princely State of Jammu and Kashmir, with Gulab Singh becoming its first Maharaja under British suzerainty.

J&K 6 questions

2022 Prelims J&K
Which of the following is the traditional dress of the Kashmiri people?
A Bandhgal
B Achkan
C Rignai
D Pheran
Correct Answer: Option D
The Pheran is the iconic, traditional outfit worn by both men and women in the Kashmir Valley. It is designed to be loose and long, typically reaching below the knees, which makes it perfect for layering over warm clothes or even tucking a Kangri (a portable wicker-bound fire pot) underneath for warmth during the harsh Himalayan winters.

A Quick Breakdown of the Options:
Pheran (Kashmir): Traditionally made of wool or jamewar, often featuring intricate Aari or Tilla embroidery around the neck and cuffs.

Bandhgala: Also known as a "Jodhpur suit," this is a formal evening suit with a closed collar, originating from Rajasthan.

Achkan: A knee-length jacket-like garment similar to a Sherwani, popular across North India and parts of Pakistan.
Rignai: This is the traditional wrap-around dress worn by the indigenous Tripuri women of Tripura.
2022 Prelims J&K
The Leh Palace was the royal residence of the which of the following dynasties that ruled Jammu and Kashmir?
A Rinpunga dynasty
B Tsangpa dynasty
C Yarlung dynasty
D Namgyal dynasty
Correct Answer: Option D
Key Historical Facts
Architecture: The palace is a classic example of Tibetan medieval architecture. It is nine storeys high; the upper floors were historically reserved for the royal family, while the lower floors housed stables and storerooms.

Inspiration: It is often compared to the Potala Palace in Lhasa, Tibet, which was constructed around the same time.

Current Status: Today, the palace is maintained by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) and serves as a major tourist attraction offering panoramic views of Leh and the surrounding Ladakh mountain range.
2022 Prelims J&K
Which of the following statements is FALSE with reference to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act of 2019?
A Ladakh has been formulated into a separate Union territory without a Legislative Assembly
B Jammu and Kashmir has become a Union Territory with a Legislative Assembly
C Governor of existing State of Jammu and Kashmir to be common Lieutenant Governor
D There will be no reservation for Scheduled Tribe and Scheduled Caste in Jammu and Kashmir
Correct Answer: Option D
Caste in Jammu and Kashmir.

Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) in the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir were explicitly provided for, based on their population ratio.

Fact Check of the Options
A) True: Ladakh was indeed made a Union Territory without a Legislative Assembly.

B) True: Jammu and Kashmir was reconstituted as a Union Territory with a Legislative Assembly (similar to the model of Puducherry).

C) True: The Act provided that the Governor of the existing State (Satya Pal Malik at the time) would become the Lieutenant Governor for both UTs for a transitional period.

D) False: Sections 14 and 15 of the Act specifically deal with the reservation of seats. In fact, one of the primary arguments for the Act was to extend the Indian Constitutional provisions of reservation to the region, which previously did not apply in the same way under Article 370.
2022 Prelims J&K
Which of the following forts of Jammu and Kashmir is also known as the Koh-e-Maran?
A Chitkan Fort
B Akhnoor Fort
C Hari Parbat Fort
D Bahu Fort
Correct Answer: Option C
Located in Srinagar, the Hari Parbat Fort sits atop a hill that carries the same name, though it is also popularly known as Koh-e-Maran.

The site is culturally and historically significant for several reasons:

The Fort: The current structure was built in the 18th century by Atta Mohammed Khan, an Afghan governor, though the walls surrounding the hill were built earlier by the Mughal Emperor Akbar.

Religious Harmony: The hill is a symbol of secularism, hosting the Sharika Devi Temple (Hindu), the Makhdoom Sahib Shrine (Muslim), and the Gurdwara Chatti Patshahi (Sikh) all in close proximity.

The Legend: The name "Koh-e-Maran" (Mountain of Serpents) or the legend of "Hari Parbat" refers to a myth where the goddess Sharika took the form of a bird (Hari) to crush a demon hiding in the pebble-turned-mountain.
2022 Prelims J&K
Which among the following destinations is the base camp of the Amarnath Yatra?
A Sonmarg
B Gulmarg
C Pampore
D Sanasar
Correct Answer: Option A
Why the other options are incorrect:
Gulmarg: Known as the "Meadow of Flowers," it is a premier skiing and tourist destination located in the Baramulla district, far from the Amarnath route.

Pampore: Located near Srinagar, it is world-famous for Saffron cultivation but does not serve as a trekking base for the Yatra.

Sanasar: A hill station and paragliding hub in the Ramban/Udhampur area of the Jammu division, nowhere near the pilgrimage trail.

Did You Know?
The Baltal base camp (near Sonmarg) is popular for pilgrims who want to finish the journey quickly, as it is only about 14 km from the holy cave. However, because the terrain is very rugged, many older pilgrims still prefer the Pahalgam route.
2022 Prelims J&K
During which season are walnuts harvested in Jammu and Kashmir?
A Winter
B Summer
C Autumn
D Monsoon
Correct Answer: Option C
Walnut harvesting in Jammu and Kashmir typically begins in late August and reaches its peak in September and October, which marks the autumn season in the valley.

Current Affairs 1 questions

2022 Prelims Current Affairs Art & Culture
In 2021, under the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, a pilot project was launched to revive which of the following crafts of Jammu and Kashmir?
A Calico Painting
B Basohli
C Phool Kari
D Namda
Correct Answer: Option D
Key Details of the Project
The initiative was designed to boost the local economy and preserve a dying art form that had seen a significant decline in exports and skilled artisans.

The Craft: Namda is a traditional Kashmiri rug made by felting wool rather than weaving it.

The Process: It involves layering sheep wool, sprinkling it with water, and then pressing it with a tool called a pinjra (manual roller) to create a felted base. This base is then frequently adorned with intricate Aari embroidery.

The Goal: To train over 2,000 artisans across several clusters in Kashmir, enhancing their skills and connecting them to global markets.

Modern India 1 questions

2022 Prelims Modern India
When did the Indigo revolt in Bengal, a peasant movement, start?
A 1837
B 1859
C 1871
D 1889
Correct Answer: Option B
Key Highlights of the Revolt
Leaders: The movement was led by two brothers, Bishnucharan Biswas and Digambar Biswas.

The Cause: Planters forced peasants to sign fraudulent contracts and grow indigo instead of food crops (like rice). The "advances" (Dadun) given to farmers trapped them in a cycle of debt.

Methods of Protest: Unlike many other revolts, this was remarkably well-organized. Peasants refused to sow indigo, boycotted the planters, and physically resisted the "Lathiyals" (armed men) hired by the planters.

Intellectual Support: This was one of the first movements where the Bengali intelligentsia supported the peasants. Harish Chandra Mukherjee’s The Hindu Patriot and Dinabandhu Mitra’s play Nil Darpan (1860) played a massive role in exposing the atrocities to the world.

Outcome: The British government was forced to appoint the Indigo Commission in 1860, which declared the system exploitative and stated that "the planter was at fault."

Polity 2 questions

2022 Prelims Polity
Operation Sadbhavana is an unique humane initiative undertaken in Jammu and Kashmir to help people affected by terrorism and is launched by the:
A Indian Army
B Central Government of India
C Home Department, Government of Jammu & Kashmir
D District Development Councils
Correct Answer: Option A
Operation Sadbhavana (meaning "Operation Goodwill") is a flagship social welfare initiative of the Indian Army, specifically launched in the late 1990s to bridge the gap between the armed forces and the local population.
2022 Prelims Polity
The bill for the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 was introduced in Rajya Sabha by:
A Amit Shah
B G. Kishan Reddy
C Rajnath Singh
D Ravi Shankar Prasad
Correct Answer: Option A
On August 5, 2019, the Minister of Home Affairs, Amit Shah, introduced the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Bill, 2019 in the Rajya Sabha. The bill was passed by the Rajya Sabha the same day and by the Lok Sabha the following day.

Art & Culture 1 questions

2022 Prelims Art & Culture
In which of the following states of India is the Dree festival celebrated?
A Manipur
B Assam
C Arunachal Pradesh
D Nagaland
Correct Answer: Option C
The Dree festival is a core topic within the study of Indian Folk Culture and Tribal Traditions. Understanding its components is essential for competitive exams focusing on North East Indian heritage:
The Tribe: It is celebrated specifically by the Apatani people.
Purpose: It is an agricultural rite performed to ensure a bumper harvest. Prayers are offered to four main deities—Tammu, Metii, Danyi, and Harniang—to protect crops from pests and famine.
Key Date: It is celebrated annually on July 5th.
Cultural Highlights: * Daminda: A traditional folk song/dance performed during the festivities.
Distribution of 'Cucumber': A unique tradition where cucumbers are distributed to guests as a symbol of a successful harvest.
Rice Beer: Like many North Eastern festivals, locally brewed rice beer plays a central role in the hospitality.

Ancient History 1 questions

2022 Prelims Ancient History
The Subar Dhar Mela takes place in which of the following locations of Jammu and Kashmir?
A Bhaderwah
B Kishtwar
C Srinagar
D Doda
Correct Answer: Option A
The Subject of Subar Dhar Mela
The mela is a vibrant blend of spirituality and ancient tradition. Here are the core details regarding its subject and significance:

Deity: The festival is dedicated to Lord Subar Nag (the Serpent God). It is a major event for the devotees of the "Nag" cult, which has deep roots in the Chenab Valley.

Cultural Highlights: The most iconic feature of the fair is the Kud Dance. Men in traditional attire perform this rhythmic folk dance to the tunes of local instruments like the Dhons and Flute.

Symbolism: It marks the end of the harsh winter and the beginning of the agricultural season. Farmers gather to pray for a good harvest and the well-being of their livestock.

Location: It is held at the high-altitude meadow of Subar Dhar, which offers a panoramic view of the surrounding Himalayan peaks.

About JKSSB 2022 Previous Year Questions

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