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JKSSB FAA 2024 Previous Year Questions

Practice authentic exam questions with answers and explanations

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10
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2024
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Accountancy 22 questions

2024 Prelims Accountancy
Goodwill of a firm of X and Y is valued at Rs. 30,000. It is appearing in the books at Rs. 12,000. Z is admitted for 1/4 share. What amount he is supposed to bring for goodwill?
A 3,000
B 4,500
C 7,500
D 10,500
Correct Answer: Option C
Key Accounting Concepts
Premium for Goodwill: This is the amount paid by the incoming partner to the sacrificing (old) partners for acquiring a share in the future profits of the firm.

Existing Goodwill: The Rs. 12,000 appearing in the books is "Purchased Goodwill." According to Accounting Standard 26 (AS-26), this is typically written off among the old partners in their old profit-sharing ratio before the new partner joins.

Valued Goodwill: The Rs. 30,000 represents the current market reputation of the firm, which is the base for calculating the new partner's entry cost.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Amount payable at the time of closure or opting out of National Pension Scheme referred to in section 80CCD shall be exempt to the extent of total amount payable.
A 30%
B 100%
C 40%
D 25%
Correct Answer: Option B
There has been a significant evolution in the tax treatment of the National Pension Scheme (NPS) under Section 10(12A) of the Income Tax Act:

The 100% Exemption: Currently, when a subscriber reaches the age of 60 or matures the account, they are allowed to withdraw up to 60% of the total accumulated corpus as a lump sum, which is entirely tax-free (100% exempt).

The Annuity Component: The remaining 40% must be utilized for purchasing an annuity (regular pension). This 40% portion is also exempt from tax at the time of conversion/purchase.

Total Result: Since 60% (lump sum) is exempt and 40% (used for annuity) is exempt at the time of closure, the entire amount payable at the time of closure is effectively exempt from tax at that stage. (Note: The subsequent pension received from the annuity will be taxable as per the individual's income slab).

Why other options are incorrect:

A) 30%: This is not a standard exemption limit for NPS closure.

C) 40%: This was the previous exemption limit for the lump-sum withdrawal before it was increased to 60% to make NPS more competitive with EPF.

D) 25%: This refers to the limit for partial withdrawals (under specific conditions like education or marriage) allowed under Section 10(12B), not the final closure.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Which of the following is/are included in definition of "Goods" as defined under section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017-
A Money
B Actionable claim
C Securities
D Bonds
Correct Answer: Option B
According to Section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017, "goods" means every kind of movable property other than money and securities but includes actionable claims, growing crops, grass, and things attached to or forming part of the land which are agreed to be severed before supply or under a contract of supply.

Actionable Claim: These are specifically included in the definition of goods. However, it is important to note that under Schedule III, only actionable claims like lottery, betting, and gambling are treated as a supply of goods.

Money and Securities (A, C, & D): These are specifically excluded from the definition of both "goods" and "services." Since Bonds are a type of security, they are also excluded.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Income which accrue or arise outside India & also received outside India is taxable in case of.
A Resident and Ordinary Resident
B Resident but not Ordinary Resident
C Non Resident
D Resident and Ordinary Resident and Resident but not Ordinary Resident
Correct Answer: Option A
Under the Income Tax Act (Section 5), the taxability of income in India depends on the "Residential Status" of the individual.

Resident and Ordinarily Resident (ROR): This category has the broadest tax liability. They are taxed on their global income. This includes income earned in India, income earned abroad but received in India, and income that accrues, arises, and is received outside India.

Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident (RNOR): They are generally taxed only on income received or accrued in India. Foreign income is taxable for them only if it is derived from a business controlled in or a profession set up in India.

Non-Resident (NR): They are taxed only on income that is received, accrued, or arises (or is deemed to) within India. Income earned and received outside India is completely exempt for them.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Finance Bill becomes the Finance Act when it is passed by.
A Lok Sabha
B Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
C Both House of Parliament and signed by President.
D Both House of Parliament and signed by Prime Minister.
Correct Answer: Option C
In the Indian legislative process, a "Bill" is a draft proposal that only becomes "Law" (an Act) after following a specific constitutional procedure:

Introduction and Passing: The Finance Bill is a Money Bill (under Article 110). It is introduced in the Lok Sabha. Once passed there, it is sent to the Rajya Sabha, which has limited powers regarding Money Bills (it must return the bill within 14 days).

Parliamentary Approval: It must be passed (or deemed passed) by both Houses of Parliament.

Presidential Assent: Under Article 111 of the Constitution, a Bill does not become an Act until it receives the formal assent (signature) of the President of India. Once the President signs it, it is published in the Official Gazette as the Finance Act.

Why other options are incorrect:

A) & B): Passing the Houses is a necessary step, but the process is incomplete without the President's signature.

D) Prime Minister: The Prime Minister is the head of the government, but the constitutional authority to sign Bills into Acts rests solely with the President (the Head of State).
2024 Prelims Accountancy
What does financial leverage measure?
A No change with EBIT and EPS
B The sensibility of EBIT with % change with respect to output
C The sensibility of EPS w.r.t% change in the EBIT level
D % variation in the level of production
Correct Answer: Option C
Financial Leverage measures the relationship between a company's Earnings Before Interest and Taxes (EBIT) and its Earnings Per Share (EPS). It specifically evaluates how sensitive the earnings available to shareholders are to fluctuations in operating income.

Fixed Financial Costs: It exists when a company uses "fixed-cost" sources of funds, such as debt (which requires interest payments) or preference shares (which require fixed dividends).

The Magnification Effect: Because interest is a fixed cost, a small percentage change in EBIT results in a disproportionately larger percentage change in EPS. This is known as the "trading on equity" effect.

Why other options are incorrect:

A) No change with EBIT and EPS: This is incorrect because leverage by definition implies a relationship and change between these two variables.

B) The sensibility of EBIT with % change with respect to output: This describes Operating Leverage, which measures how sales/output volume affects operating income (EBIT).

D) % variation in the level of production: This refers to production efficiency or capacity utilization, not financial risk or leverage.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Which of the following entities generally prepare their books of accounts under single entry system?
A Joint stock companies
B Sole traders
C Government organisations
D Not-for-profit organisations
Correct Answer: Option B
The Single Entry System (often referred to as "Accounts from Incomplete Records") is an unscientific and informal method of bookkeeping where only one side of a transaction is recorded (usually just Cash and Personal accounts).

Sole Traders and Small Partnerships: These entities often use the single entry system because it is cost-effective, simple to maintain, and does not require specialized accounting knowledge. Since their scale of operation is small, they may not need the complexity of a full double-entry system.

Joint Stock Companies (A): Are legally required by the Companies Act to maintain books under the Double Entry System to ensure transparency for shareholders.

Government Organizations (C): Follow strict accounting standards and accrual/cash-based double-entry systems for public accountability.

Not-for-profit Organizations (D): Usually maintain a Receipt and Payment Account, Income and Expenditure Account, and a Balance Sheet, which are based on double-entry principles to track fund usage.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Which of the following entities generally prepare their books of accounts under single entry system?
A Joint stock companies
B Sole traders
C Government organisations
D Not-for-profit organisations
Correct Answer: Option B
The Single Entry System (often referred to as "Accounts from Incomplete Records") is an unscientific and informal method of bookkeeping where only one side of a transaction is recorded (usually just Cash and Personal accounts).

Sole Traders and Small Partnerships: These entities often use the single entry system because it is cost-effective, simple to maintain, and does not require specialized accounting knowledge. Since their scale of operation is small, they may not need the complexity of a full double-entry system.

Joint Stock Companies (A): Are legally required by the Companies Act to maintain books under the Double Entry System to ensure transparency for shareholders.

Government Organizations (C): Follow strict accounting standards and accrual/cash-based double-entry systems for public accountability.

Not-for-profit Organizations (D): Usually maintain a Receipt and Payment Account, Income and Expenditure Account, and a Balance Sheet, which are based on double-entry principles to track fund usage.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Which of the following entities generally prepare their books of accounts under single entry system?
A Joint stock companies
B Sole traders
C Government organisations
D Not-for-profit organisations
Correct Answer: Option B
The Single Entry System (often referred to as "Accounts from Incomplete Records") is an unscientific and informal method of bookkeeping where only one side of a transaction is recorded (usually just Cash and Personal accounts).

Sole Traders and Small Partnerships: These entities often use the single entry system because it is cost-effective, simple to maintain, and does not require specialized accounting knowledge. Since their scale of operation is small, they may not need the complexity of a full double-entry system.

Joint Stock Companies (A): Are legally required by the Companies Act to maintain books under the Double Entry System to ensure transparency for shareholders.

Government Organizations (C): Follow strict accounting standards and accrual/cash-based double-entry systems for public accountability.

Not-for-profit Organizations (D): Usually maintain a Receipt and Payment Account, Income and Expenditure Account, and a Balance Sheet, which are based on double-entry principles to track fund usage.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Trial balance helps to check the accuracy of the:
A Balance sheet
B Ledger
C Journals
D Cash flow statement
Correct Answer: Option B
A Trial Balance is a statement prepared with the debit and credit balances of all ledger accounts to test their arithmetical accuracy.

If the total of the debit column equals the total of the credit column, it suggests that the posting from the journals to the ledger accounts has been done correctly in terms of numbers.

It serves as the bridge between the bookkeeping phase (recording and classifying) and the preparation of final financial statements.

Note: While it checks arithmetical accuracy, it does not detect all errors, such as errors of principle or complete omission.

Why other options are incorrect:

A) Balance sheet: The Trial Balance is actually used as a source to prepare the Balance Sheet, not to check its accuracy.

C) Journals: Journals are the books of original entry. Accuracy here is checked during the process of posting to the ledger, but the Trial Balance specifically summarizes the ledger results.

D) Cash flow statement: This is a financial statement prepared much later in the accounting cycle to show the inflows and outflows of cash; it is not verified by a Trial Balance.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
A bank pass book is a copy of
A The cash column of a customer's cash book
B The bank column of a customer's cash book
C The customer account in the bank's ledger
D The debtor's account in the bank's ledger
Correct Answer: Option C
A Bank Passbook (or Bank Statement) is a periodic record provided by a bank to its customers. It is essentially a copy of the customer's account as it appears in the bank's own books (ledger).

From the customer's perspective, the bank is an entity where they keep money. They record these transactions in the Bank Column of their Cash Book.

From the bank's perspective, the customer is an entity that has deposited money (a liability for the bank) or borrowed money. The bank records this in its own ledger.

Reciprocal Relationship: A debit entry in the customer's Cash Book (representing a deposit) will appear as a credit entry in the Bank's Passbook, and vice-versa.

Why other options are incorrect:

A) The cash column of a customer's cash book: This records actual physical cash on hand, not transactions with the bank.

B) The bank column of a customer's cash book: This is the record maintained by the customer. The passbook is a copy of the record maintained by the bank.

D) The debtor's account in the bank's ledger: While a customer with an overdraft is a debtor to the bank, a passbook is issued to all customers (including those with credit balances/deposits), so "customer account" is the more accurate general term.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
What type of cheques is that which is issued by a firm but not yet presented to the bank?
A Uncredited cheques
B Outstanding cheques
C Uncollected cheques
D Bounced cheques
Correct Answer: Option B
An outstanding cheque is one that a company has written and recorded in its own books (reducing its internal cash balance) but which the recipient has not yet deposited or "presented" to the bank for payment.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
What is "Deposit in transit" in bank reconciliation?
A Added to Bank Balance
B Subtracted From Bank Balance
C Subtracted From the Cash Book Balance
D Added to Cashbook Balance
Correct Answer: Option A
In a bank reconciliation statement (BRS), a "Deposit in Transit" (also known as an unpresented deposit or outstanding deposit) refers to cash or checks that a company has recorded in its own books but which have not yet appeared on the bank statement.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
In bank statement, cash deposited is shown as
A debit
B credit
C expense
D profit
Correct Answer: Option B
In the context of a bank statement, when you deposit cash, it is recorded as a Credit entry.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Which of the following business documents is a proof of payment for a business transaction?
A Receipt
B Invoice
C Debit note
D None of the above
Correct Answer: Option A
Why a Receipt is Proof of PaymentIn the lifecycle of a business transaction, different documents serve different purposes. A Receipt is specifically issued by the seller to the buyer after the payment has been received. It serves as the final evidence that the financial obligation has been settled.Receipt: Confirms that "money has been changed hands." It includes the date, amount, and the method of payment (cash, check, or card).Invoice (Option B): This is a request for payment. It shows the amount owed for goods or services provided, but it is not proof that the payment was actually made.Debit Note (Option C): This is a document sent by a buyer to a seller (or vice versa) to inform them that their account is being debited. It is usually used for returning goods or correcting overcharges, not as a final proof of payment.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Which of the following procedures should an accountant follow while preparing a voucher?
A Verify the date, amount, signature and transaction details on the supporting documents
B Confirm if an authorised signatory has approved the supporting documents
C Select the type of voucher that will be used for the transaction
D All of the above
Correct Answer: Option D
The Voucher Preparation Process
A Voucher is an internal document used by a company's accounts department to collect and summarize the supporting documents needed to approve a financial transaction. Preparing it correctly is a critical "internal control" to prevent fraud and errors.Procedure 
(A): The accountant must act as a first line of defense. Verifying the date (to ensure it belongs to the current period), the amount (to match the invoice), and the nature of the transaction ensures the entry is valid.
Procedure  (B): No payment or entry should be made without authorization. The accountant must check for the signature of a department head or manager to ensure the expense was actually sanctioned by the business.
Procedure (C): Accounting systems use different types of vouchers for different purposes (e.g., Cash Vouchers, Bank Vouchers, Journal Vouchers). Selecting the right one ensures the transaction is classified correctly in the ledger.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Which concept suggests the exclusion of human Resource in balance sheet?
A Account Concept
B Money Measurement Concept
C Going Concern Concept
D Cost Concept
Correct Answer: Option B
Why the Money Measurement Concept Excludes Human Resources

The Money Measurement Concept states that only those transactions and events that can be expressed in monetary terms should be recorded in the books of accounts.

The Limitation: Even though a highly skilled workforce (Human Resources) is the most valuable asset of a company, there is no universally accepted objective method to assign a specific financial value to a human being's skills, morale, or loyalty.

The Result: Because "intelligence" or "teamwork" cannot be accurately quantified in Rupees or Dollars, they are excluded from the Balance Sheet, despite their immense contribution to the business.

Breakdown of Other Concepts
A) Accounting Entity Concept: Treats the business and its owner as two separate legal entities.

C) Going Concern Concept: Assumes the business will continue to operate for the foreseeable future and has no intention of liquidating.

D) Cost Concept: States that assets should be recorded at their original purchase price (historical cost) rather than their current market value.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Which of the following is correct?
A equity asset + liability
B liability asset + equity
C asset liability + equity
D equity liability
Correct Answer: Option C
The Accounting Equation

This is the most fundamental formula in accounting. it states that everything a company owns (Assets) must be paid for by either borrowing money (Liabilities) or by using the owner's own money (Equity).

Assets: Resources owned by the business (Cash, Inventory, Buildings).

Liabilities: Obligations or debts owed to outsiders (Bank loans, Unpaid bills to suppliers).

Equity: The owner’s "residual" claim on the assets after all liabilities are paid (Capital, Retained earnings).

Mathematical Variations:

Assets - Liabilities = Equity (How much the owner actually "owns" free and clear).

Assets - Equity = Liabilities (How much of the assets are financed by debt).
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Book Keeping is regarded as the step of accounting.
A Fourth
B Secondary
C Third
D First
Correct Answer: Option D
Why Bookkeeping is the First Step

Bookkeeping is the foundation of the entire accounting process. It involves the routine task of identifying, measuring, and recording financial transactions in chronological order.

Without the data provided by bookkeeping, the further stages of accounting—such as summarizing and interpreting—cannot happen. Think of it as the "data entry" phase that feeds the "analysis" phase.

The standard sequence is:

Bookkeeping: Identifying, recording (Journal), and classifying (Ledger).

Accounting: Summarizing (Trial Balance), Preparing Financial Statements (Profit & Loss, Balance Sheet), and Analysis.

Auditing: Verifying the accuracy of those records.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Suppliers personal a/c are seen in the
A Sales Ledger
B Nominal ledger
C Purchases Ledger
D General Ledger
Correct Answer: Option C
Understanding Ledger Categorization
In accounting, ledgers are organized based on the type of accounts they contain to make record-keeping more efficient.

Purchases Ledger: This contains the individual personal accounts of all suppliers (creditors) from whom the business buys goods or services on credit. It tracks how much is owed to each specific vendor.

Sales Ledger: This is the opposite of the purchases ledger; it contains the individual personal accounts of customers (debtors) who buy from the business on credit.

Nominal Ledger: This contains "impersonal" accounts, specifically Income, Expenses, Assets, and Liabilities (e.g., Rent A/c, Salary A/c, Machinery A/c).

General Ledger: This is the master ledger that contains all accounts, or in a modular system, it contains the "Control Accounts" which summarize the totals from the Sales and Purchases ledgers.
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Calculate the prime cost from the following information:

Direct material purchased: Rs. 1, 00,000
Direct material consumed: Rs. 90,000
Direct labour: Rs. 60,000
Direct expenses: Rs. 20,000
Manufacturing overheads: Rs. 30,000
A Rs. 1,80,000
B Rs. 2,00,000
C Rs. 1,70,000
D Rs. 2,10,000
Correct Answer: Option C
Prime Cost is the sum of all direct costs involved in manufacturing a product. 
It specifically excludes indirect costs (overheads).The formula is: {Prime Cost} = {Direct Material Consumed} + {Direct Labour} + \text{Direct Expenses}

Step-by-Step Breakdown:
Direct Material Consumed: Rs. 90,000 (Note: We use the amount consumed, not the amount purchased, as only what was used in production adds to the cost of the goods made).Direct Labour : Rs. 60,000Direct Expenses: Rs. 20,000
Total: 90,000 + 60,000 + 20,000 =Rs. 1,70,000
Why other figures were excluded: 
Direct Material Purchased (Rs. 1,00,000): This is a red herring. We only account for the Rs. 90,000 actually used; the remaining Rs. 10,000 stays in "Closing Stock."Manufacturing Overheads (Rs. 30,000): These are indirect costs. If we added these to the Prime Cost, we would get the Works Cost (or Factory Cost), which would be Rs. 2,00,000 (Option B).
2024 Prelims Accountancy
Fixed cost is a cost:
A Which changes in total in proportion to changes in output
B Which is partly fixed and partly variable in relation to output
C Which do not change in total during a given period despise changes in output
D Which remains same for each unit of output
Correct Answer: Option C
Understanding Fixed Costs 
Fixed costs are expenses that remain constant regardless of how much a company produces or sells. Even if the business produces zero units, these costs must still be paid. 
Total Fixed Cost (TFC): Stays the same in total ($1,000$ in rent is $1,000$ whether you make $1$ shirt or $100$ shirts).Fixed Cost Per Unit: This actually decreases as production increases, because the same total cost is spread over more units (this is a key part of "economies of scale").
Why the other options are incorrect:
A: This describes Variable Costs (e.g., raw materials).
B: This describes Semi-variable or Mixed Costs (e.g., a utility bill with a fixed base charge plus a usage fee).
D: This is incorrect because as you produce more, the fixed cost "per unit" actually goes down.

Economy 2 questions

2024 Prelims Economy
GST is a consumption of goods and service tax based on.
A Development
B Dividend
C Duration
D Destination
Correct Answer: Option D
GST (Goods and Services Tax) is a destination-based tax (also known as a consumption tax). This means the tax is collected by the state where the goods or services are finally consumed, rather than the state where they were manufactured or produced.

Revenue Distribution: Under this principle, if goods are manufactured in State A but sold and consumed in State B, the tax revenue (SGST portion) goes to State B.

Contrast with Origin-based Tax: Before GST, many taxes were origin-based, meaning the producing state kept the tax revenue. GST shifted this to ensure the consuming state benefits from the tax collection.

Why other options are incorrect:

A) Development: While GST contributes to national development, it is not "based on" development as a tax mechanism.

B) Dividend: A dividend is a distribution of profits by a corporation to its shareholders; it has no structural relation to how GST is levied.

C) Duration: Taxes are not categorized based on "duration" in the context of their fundamental consumption nature.
2024 Prelims Economy
The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) Was earlier known as
A Central Plan Schemes Monitoring System (CPSMS)
B Controller General of Accounts (CGA)
C Central Sector Scheme of Planning Commission
D Core Banking System (CBS)
Correct Answer: Option A
The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) was initially started by the Planning Commission in 2008-09 as a pilot project in four states (Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab, and Mizoram) before being expanded into the robust, real-time monitoring system used across India today.

Accounting 5 questions

2024 Prelims Accounting
When audit is undertaken to check the financial controls and irregularities in the organization, it is which type of audit?
A System audit
B Compliance audit
C Internal audit
D Statutory audit
Correct Answer: Option C
An Internal Audit is conducted by an organization's own staff or an appointed internal body to evaluate the effectiveness of its risk management, financial controls, and governance. Its primary goal is to identify irregularities, prevent fraud, and ensure that the internal systems are robust enough to protect the organization's assets.

Here is why the other options are different:

System Audit: Focuses specifically on the infrastructure and processes of an information technology system.

Compliance Audit: Checks if the organization is following specific external laws, regulations, or set policies.

Statutory Audit: A legally mandated review of a company's financial records, usually conducted by an external party to provide an independent opinion for public/government record.
2024 Prelims Accounting
The method of transferring items from a journal into their respective ledger accounts or journals is known as.
A Balancing
B Arithmetic
C Entry
D Posting
Correct Answer: Option D
In the accounting cycle, Posting is the process of taking the debits and credits recorded in the Journal (the book of original entry) and transferring them to their specific accounts in the Ledger (the book of final entry).
2024 Prelims Accounting
M and N are two partners sharing profit and losses in 3:2 ratio. They admit P as a new partner with 1/5th share. What will be the new profit-sharing ratio?
A 12:4:7
B 12:8:5
C 12:5:8
D 8:5:12
Correct Answer: Option B
In partnership accounting, when a new partner is admitted for a specific share and the old partners' sacrifice is not explicitly mentioned, we assume they continue to share the remaining profit in their original ratio.
2024 Prelims Accounting
What happens when interest on drawings is charged to partner?
A Credited to partner's current a/c
B Not shown in current account
C Debited to partner's capital a/c
D None of the above
Correct Answer: Option C
In partnership accounting, Interest on Drawings is an amount charged by the firm to a partner for withdrawing cash or goods for personal use. From the firm's perspective, it is an income, but for the partner, it is an expense or a reduction in their stake in the business.
2024 Prelims Accounting
Statement of financial position produced from incomplete accounting record is commonly known as
A Balance sheet
B Statement of affairs
C Statement of financial operations
D Cash flow statement
Correct Answer: Option B
When a business does not maintain a complete set of double-entry books (often referred to as Single Entry System), it is impossible to prepare a standard Balance Sheet. Instead, a "Statement of Affairs" is prepared to estimate the financial position.

History 4 questions

2024 Prelims History
Consider the following pairs:

a Founder of Dogra Dynasty
b. Dar-Ul-Alam
C. Mian Deedo
d. Treaty of Lahore
4. Gulab Singh
1. Maharaja Ranjit Dev
2. Rebellion Group Head
3. Gujarat

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
A a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
B a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
C a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
D a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
Correct Answer: Option D
Key Historical Context
Gulab Singh: He was a prominent general under Maharaja Ranjit Singh and was later recognized as the Maharaja of Jammu and Kashmir following the Treaty of Amritsar (1846).

Maharaja Ranjit Dev: He ruled Jammu in the 18th century. His reign is often called the "Golden Age" of Jammu because he turned the city into a sanctuary for refugees from all faiths, earning it the title Dar-ul-Aman (Abode of Peace/Safety)—often referred to in texts as Dar-Ul-Alam in this specific exam context.

Mian Deedo: A celebrated warrior who fought against the expansion of the Sikh Empire into the Jammu hills during the early 19th century. He is a symbol of regional resistance and valor.

Treaty of Lahore: Signed on March 9, 1846, between the British and the Sikhs. It followed the defeat of the Sikhs in the First Anglo-Sikh War. (Note: The Battle of Gujrat was a decisive battle in the Second Anglo-Sikh War, but in the context of many regional history exams, these two are often paired to test knowledge of the Anglo-Sikh conflict locations).
2024 Prelims History
Who is popularly known as the "Grand Old Man of India"?
A Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B Gopal Krishna Gokhale
C Dadabhai Naoroji
D Mahatma Gandhi
Correct Answer: Option B
About Dadabhai Naoroji

Dadabhai Naoroji was a towering figure in the Indian independence movement and a pioneer in Indian economics. He is celebrated for several "firsts" and major intellectual contributions:

Economic Critique: He authored the seminal work Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, where he formulated the "Drain of Wealth" theory. He argued that Britain was systematically siphoning off India's resources, leading to widespread poverty.

Political Leadership: He was one of the founding members of the Indian National Congress (INC) and served as its President three times (1886, 1893, and 1906).

International Presence: In 1892, he became the first Indian to be elected to the British House of Commons, representing the Liberal Party for Central Finsbury.

The Demand for Swaraj: It was under his presidency in the 1906 Calcutta session that the Congress first formally adopted the goal of "Swaraj" (Self-rule).
2024 Prelims History
Consider the following statements:

a Ajanta caves were tagged as the UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 1983.
b. Currently, these caves are taken care of by the Archaeological Survey of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
C. The caves are believed to be made in Gupta period and Vakataka, period.
A Only a
B a and c
C a and b
D All of the above
Correct Answer: Option D
Breakdown of the Statements
Statement (a): Ajanta Caves were indeed among the first sites in India to be inscribed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 1983 (along with the Ellora Caves, Agra Fort, and the Taj Mahal).

Statement (b): As a monument of national importance, the site is protected and managed by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), which handles its conservation and structural maintenance.

Statement (c): The construction of the Ajanta Caves occurred in two distinct phases. The early phase (2nd century BCE) is associated with the Satavahana period, while the second, more prolific phase (5th to 6th century CE) occurred during the Vakataka and Gupta periods, particularly under the patronage of the Vakataka king Harishena.
2024 Prelims History
The first legislature of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir was called the
A Praja Sabha
B Rajya Sabha
C Vidhan Sabha
D Maha Sabha
Correct Answer: Option A
Established by Maharaja Hari Singh, the Praja Sabha marked a significant shift toward representative governance in the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir.

Historical Context
Formation: The Praja Sabha was established in 1934 following the recommendations of the Glancy Commission, which was set up to look into the grievances of the people after the 1931 uprising.

Composition: It originally consisted of 75 members, out of which 33 were elected, 30 were nominated, and 12 were ex-officio members.

Powers: While it was the first attempt at a legislative body, its powers were limited; the Maharaja retained absolute veto power over all legislation.

Evolution: The Praja Sabha held its first session in Srinagar in October 1934. It served as the legislative foundation of the state until the constitutional changes following the 1947 accession.

Geography 10 questions

2024 Prelims Geography
Consider the following pairs:
Dam
State
a Sardar Sarovar Dam
1. Uttarakhand
b. Bhavani Sagar Dam
2. Maharashtra
c. Koyna Dam
3. Gujarat
4. Tamil Nadu
d. Tehri Dam

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

A a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
B a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
C a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
D a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
Correct Answer: Option C
Key Facts About These Dams

Sardar Sarovar Dam: One of the largest dams in the world, it is the centerpiece of the Narmada Valley Project and provides water and electricity to four states: Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan.

Bhavani Sagar Dam: Located in the Erode district, it is one of the world's largest earthen dams.

Koyna Dam: Often called the "Life Line of Maharashtra," it is a rubble-concrete dam constructed on the Koyna River, which is a tributary of the Krishna River.

Tehri Dam: This is the highest dam in India (and one of the highest in the world), standing at approximately 260.5 meters.
2024 Prelims Geography
Consider the following pairs:

Lake
a Hussian Sagar
b. Pulicate Lake
с. Dal Lake
d. Loktak Lake

State
1. Manipur
2. Jammu and Kashmir
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Telangana

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
A a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
B a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
C a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
D a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
Correct Answer: Option D
Quick Facts about these Lakes  
Hussain Sagar: A heart-shaped lake in Hyderabad, built by Ibrahim Quli Qutb Shah in 1563. It separates the twin cities of Hyderabad and Secunderabad.
Pulicat Lake: The second-largest brackish water lagoon in India (after Chilika Lake). While mostly in Andhra Pradesh, a small portion extends into Tamil Nadu.
Dal Lake: Known as the "Jewel in the crown of Kashmir," it is integral to tourism and recreation in Srinagar and is famous for its Shikaras and houseboats. 
Loktak Lake: The largest freshwater lake in Northeast India, famous for the Phumdis (heterogeneous mass of vegetation, soil, and organic matter) and the world's only floating national park, Keibul Lamjao.
2024 Prelims Geography
In which tourist places Kolahoi glacier is located?
A Gulmarg
B Sonamarg
C Pahalgam
D Mansabal
Correct Answer: Option B
About the Kolahoi Glacier
The Kolahoi Glacier is a hanging glacier located in the northwestern Himalayan Range. It is often referred to as the "Goddess of Light" by the local population due to its majestic appearance.

Location: It is situated approximately 26 kilometers north of Pahalgam and 16 kilometers south of Sonamarg. However, it is most commonly accessed via the trekking route starting from Aru Valley, which is a famous sub-resort of Pahalgam.

Significance: It is the source of the Lidder River, which flows through the Lidder Valley and is a major tributary of the Jhelum.

Current Status: Like many Himalayan glaciers, Kolahoi has seen significant recession over the last few decades, making it a focal point for environmental studies in the region.
2024 Prelims Geography
The population growth rate means
A Difference between the growth of male and female
B Difference between the population of urban and rural areas
C No. of births per thousand persons
D Difference between birth rate and death rate
Correct Answer: Option D
Understanding Population Growth Rate
The population growth rate is the rate at which the number of individuals in a population increases in a given time period, expressed as a fraction of the initial population.

In its simplest form (natural increase), it is calculated by subtracting the death rate from the birth rate. However, in a real-world geographic context, it also accounts for people moving in and out of an area.

Here is a breakdown of why the other options don't fit:

A & B: These describe "composition" or "distribution" (sex ratio and urbanization), not growth.

C: This is the definition of the Birth Rate specifically, not the overall growth rate.
2024 Prelims Geography
Consider the following statements:

a. Rabi crops are sowed between October and November.
b. Rabi crops require a lot of water.
c. Rabi crops need warm weather for growth.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A Only a
B a and b
C Only c
D None of the above
Correct Answer: Option A
Here is the evaluation of each statement based on agricultural science:

Statement (a) is correct: Rabi crops are known as "winter crops." They are typically sown at the beginning of winter, between October and November, after the monsoon rains have subsided.

Statement (b) is incorrect: Unlike Kharif crops (like paddy), Rabi crops do not require a lot of water. They grow well with moderate irrigation and the occasional winter rain (Western Disturbances).

Statement (c) is incorrect: Rabi crops require a cool climate for their growth and germination. They only need a warm/sunny climate at the time of ripening and harvesting (usually in the spring).
2024 Prelims Geography
Consider the following pairs:
a. Kaziranga National Park        1. Gujarat
b. Jim Corbett National Park      2. Rajasthan
c. Ranthambore National Park     3. Uttarakhand
d. Gir National Park                       4. Assam

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
A a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
B a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
C a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
D a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
Correct Answer: Option C
a. Kaziranga National Park → 4. Assam
b. Jim Corbett National Park → 3. Uttarakhand
c. Ranthambore National Park → 2. Rajasthan
d. Gir National Park → 1. Gujarat
2024 Prelims Geography
Which of the following is NOT a tributary of Jhelum River?
A Vishaw
B Sind Nallah
C Verinag
D Roumushi
Correct Answer: Option C
Analysis of the Options 
A) Vishaw: This is a major left-bank tributary of the Jhelum. It originates from the Kousarnag Lake and joins the Jhelum near Sangam in Anantnag.
B) Sind Nallah: This is the largest tributary of the Jhelum. It originates from the Machoi Glacier near Amarnath and joins the Jhelum at Shadipora in Ganderbal.
D) Romushi: This is another significant left-bank tributary that originates from the Pir Panjal range and joins the Jhelum in the Pulwama district. Why Verinag is different Verinag is a powerful spring located at the foot of the Pir Panjal range in the Anantnag district. It is traditionally considered the main source from which the Jhelum river emerges. A tributary, by definition, is a smaller stream or river that flows into a larger "parent" river. Verinag is the beginning of the parent river itself.
2024 Prelims Geography
Arrange the following in chronological order:
a Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
b. Dandi March
c. Lucknow Pact
d. Quit India Movement

A a, b, c, d
B c, a, b, d
C c, b, d, a
D a, d, b, c
Correct Answer: Option B
Chronological Timeline
Lucknow Pact (1916): An agreement reached between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League to pressure the British government for a more liberal approach to India. It was also significant for the reunion of the moderate and extremist factions of the Congress.

Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (April 13, 1919): A tragic turning point in the freedom struggle where British troops, under the command of Colonel Reginald Dyer, fired on a peaceful gathering in Amritsar, Punjab.

Dandi March (March–April 1930): Also known as the Salt Satyagraha, this was a 24-day march led by Mahatma Gandhi to protest the British salt monopoly. It marked the start of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Quit India Movement (August 1942): Launched at the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee, Gandhi gave the famous call of "Do or Die," demanding an immediate end to British rule in India.
2024 Prelims Geography
Which hill is the Vaishno Devi Mandir located on?
A Katra
B Aru
C Patnitop
D Trikuta
Correct Answer: Option D
The holy shrine of Mata Vaishno Devi is located on the Trikuta Mountains (specifically the Trikuta Hill) in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.

Key Geographical Details
The Mountain: The name "Trikuta" translates to "three-peaked mountain," referring to its distinct physical shape. The shrine itself is situated at an altitude of approximately 1,585 meters (5,200 feet) above sea level.

Katra: This is not a hill, but the base town located at the foot of the Trikuta Mountains. It serves as the jumping-off point for the 13-kilometer trek to the Bhawan (shrine).

The Cave: The temple is located within a natural cave where the Goddess is worshipped in the form of three natural rock formations known as Pindies, representing Maha Kali, Maha Lakshmi, and Maha Saraswati.

Distinguishing the Other Options
Aru: A scenic valley and tourist spot located in the Anantnag district, near Pahalgam.

Patnitop: A famous hill station located on a plateau in the Shivalik belt of the Himalayas, known for its meadows and pine forests.
2024 Prelims Geography
Consider the following statements.

a. There is infinite storage of fossil fuel inside the earth
b. Sun can be taken as an inexhaustible source of energy
c. Waste from a nuclear power plant can be easily disposed off

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?
A a and b
B b and c
C a and c
D All of the above
Correct Answer: Option C
Analysis of the Statements
Statement (a) is INCORRECT: Fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, and natural gas) are exhaustible natural resources. They take millions of years to form from dead organic matter under high pressure and temperature. Since our rate of consumption far exceeds the rate of formation, the storage is very much finite, not infinite.

Statement (b) is CORRECT: The Sun is considered an inexhaustible or renewable source of energy. It has been radiating a massive amount of energy for billions of years and is expected to continue doing so for billions more. For human civilizations, it is a constant and limitless supply.

Statement (c) is INCORRECT: Nuclear waste is extremely difficult to dispose of safely. It remains radioactive for thousands of years and can cause severe environmental and health hazards. Currently, disposal involves complex processes like deep geological repositories (burying it deep underground in stable rock formations), which is neither "easy" nor without risk.

Summary Table

Current Affairs 3 questions

2024 Prelims Current Affairs
Consider the following statements:

a. Rabi crops are sowed between October and November.
b. Rabi crops require a lot of water.
c. Rabi crops need warm weather for growth.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A Only a
B a and b
C Only c
D None of the above
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of Statements
Statement a (Correct): Rabi crops are indeed sown at the beginning of winter, typically between October and November, after the monsoon rains have subsided.

Statement b (Incorrect): Unlike Kharif crops (like paddy), Rabi crops generally require less water and are often grown using irrigation or residual soil moisture.

Statement c (Incorrect): Rabi crops require a cool climate for growth and a warm climate for the germination of seeds and harvesting.

Key Facts about Rabi Crops
Sowing Season: October – December.

Harvesting Season: April – June.

Major Crops: Wheat, Barley, Peas, Gram, and Mustard.

Climatic Requirement: They need a cold growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening.
2024 Prelims Current Affairs
Arrange the following events in chronological order:

a G20 Summit in India
b. ICC World Cup Final 2023
c. Launch of Chandrayaan 3
d. COP28 climate summit in Dubai
A c, a, b, d
B a, c, b, d
C a, c, d, b
D c, b, d, a
Correct Answer: Option A
Key Takeaways for Preparation

Chandrayaan-3: Made India the first country to land near the lunar south pole.

G20 2023: Noted for the permanent inclusion of the African Union as a member.

COP28: Significant for the agreement to "transition away" from fossil fuels in energy systems.
2024 Prelims Current Affairs
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
a G20 Summit in India
b. ICC World Cup Final 2023
c. Launch of Chandrayaan 3
d. COP28 climate summit in Dubai

A c, a, b, d
B a, c, b, d
C a, c, d, b
D c, b, d, a
Correct Answer: Option A
To determine the chronological order, we look at the specific dates these major events occurred in 2023:

Launch of Chandrayaan-3 (c): July 14, 2023. India's successful lunar mission began its journey in mid-July.

G20 Summit in India (a): September 9–10, 2023. The high-profile gathering of world leaders took place in New Delhi in early September.

ICC World Cup Final (b): November 19, 2023. The cricket tournament concluded with the final match between India and Australia in late November.

COP28 Climate Summit in Dubai (d): November 30 – December 12, 2023. This global climate conference began at the very end of November.

J&K 5 questions

2024 Prelims J&K
Arrange the following states in an order from north to south:
a Himachal Pradesh
b. Tamil Nadu
c. Telangana
d. Madhya Pradesh
A a, b, c, d
B a, d, c, b
C c, a, b, d
D a, d, b, c
Correct Answer: Option D
To arrange these Indian states from North to South, we look at their latitudinal positions on the map:

Himachal Pradesh (a): Located in the extreme north, nestled in the Himalayas.

Madhya Pradesh (d): Known as the "Heart of India," it occupies the central region.

Telangana (c): Situated in the southern-central peninsula, south of Madhya Pradesh.

Tamil Nadu (b): Located at the southernmost tip of the Indian mainland.
2024 Prelims J&K
What is the official language of Jammu and Kashmir?
A Hindi
B Kashmiri
C Urdu
D English
Correct Answer: Option C
his is a slightly tricky question because the answer has expanded in recent years. Historically, the answer would have been C) Urdu. However, under current laws, all four options listed (A, B, C, and D) are now official languages.

If you are taking an exam where you must choose only one, Urdu is often still cited as the primary traditional official language, but the most accurate contemporary answer is that there are now five.

The Jammu and Kashmir Official Languages Act, 2020
In September 2020, the Parliament of India passed a landmark bill that significantly changed the linguistic landscape of the Union Territory. Before this, only Urdu and English held official status. Now, the official languages include:

Kashmiri

Dogri

Urdu

Hindi

English

Historical Context
1889: Maharaja Pratap Singh replaced Persian with Urdu as the court language of the princely state.

Post-1947: Urdu remained the sole official language of the State of Jammu and Kashmir for decades, with English used for administrative and legislative purposes.

2020: The new Act was introduced to include the languages spoken by the majority of the population (Kashmiri and Dogri) and Hindi in the official list to ensure better representation and "spirit of equality."
2024 Prelims J&K
Which pass connects Jammu and Kashmir with Ladakh?
A Nathu La Pass
B Zoji La Pass
C Rohtang Pass
D Shipki La Pass
Correct Answer: Option B
The Zoji La Pass is a vital high-altitude mountain pass in the Himalayas that serves as the only direct road link between the Kashmir Valley and the Ladakh region.

Key Geographical Details
Location: It is situated at an elevation of approximately 3,528 meters (11,575 feet) on National Highway 1 (NH 1). It connects Srinagar to Leh via Dras and Kargil.

Significance: It is often called the "Mountain Pass of Blizzards." Due to heavy snowfall, it traditionally remains closed for several months during winter, cutting off Ladakh from the rest of the country by road.

The Zoji La Tunnel: To provide all-weather connectivity, the government is currently constructing a 14.2 km long tunnel under the pass, which will be the longest bi-directional tunnel in Asia once completed.

Analysis of Other Options
A) Nathu La Pass: Located in Sikkim, it connects India with the Tibet Autonomous Region of China.

C) Rohtang Pass: Located in Himachal Pradesh, it connects the Kullu Valley with the Lahaul and Spiti Valleys.

D) Shipki La Pass: Located in Himachal Pradesh (Kinnaur district), it serves as a border post between India and Tibet.
2024 Prelims J&K
Which of the places in known as the "Gateway to the Kashmir valley"?
A Jammu
B Leh
C Ladakh
D None of the above
Correct Answer: Option A
In a geographic and historical context, Jammu is often referred to as the "Gateway to the Kashmir Valley" because it serves as the primary entry point for travelers and goods moving from the plains of northern India into the mountainous regions of the Valley.

Why Jammu is the Gateway
Strategic Connectivity: Historically, the main road link (now NH44) connecting the rest of India to Srinagar passes through Jammu. Whether by rail or road, Jammu is the last major stop in the plains before the ascent into the Pir Panjal range.

The Banihal Pass/Tunnel: While Jammu is the gateway city, the Banihal Pass (and subsequently the Jawahar Tunnel and the newer Qazigund-Banihal Tunnel) acts as the physical "doorway" that one must pass through to enter the Valley from the Jammu division.

Economic Hub: Jammu acts as the transit point for almost all essential supplies, including fuel and food grains, that are transported into the Kashmir Valley.

Analysis of the Other Options
B) Leh: This is the main town of the Ladakh region. It is separated from the Kashmir Valley by the high-altitude Zoji La Pass. While it connects to Kashmir, it is considered a destination at the "other end" rather than a gateway.

C) Ladakh: This is a separate Union Territory characterized by a cold desert plateau. It is geographically distinct and accessed from the Valley via the Zoji La.
2024 Prelims J&K
Consider the following statements.

1. Kud dance is performed to honour the gods 'Lok Devtas' as a thanks giving ritual.
2. It is practiced on festive occasions like Eid and Ramzan days are going.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:
A Only 1
B Only 2
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option A
The Kud dance is a deeply rooted cultural tradition of the Jammu region, but it is specific to the religious and social customs of the hilly areas.

Analysis of the Statements
Statement 1 is CORRECT: The Kud dance is a ritualistic folk dance performed primarily in the hilly districts of Jammu (such as Udhampur, Reasi, and Ramban). It is performed as a thanksgiving ritual to the Gram Devtas (village deities) or Lok Devtas for protecting livestock, crops, and the health of the community.

Statement 2 is INCORRECT: While it is performed on festive occasions, it is not associated with Eid or Ramzan. Instead, it is typically performed during the rainy season (after the Kharif crops are harvested) or during local festivals like Mela or weddings. The performers wear traditional local attire, and the dance is characterized by its slow, rhythmic movements to the sound of the Flute, Drum (Dhol), and Narsingha.

Polity 1 questions

2024 Prelims Polity
As per J & K reorganisation Act, 2019, UT created without legislator is:
A Jammu
B Jammu and Kashmir
C Kargil
D Ladakh
Correct Answer: Option D
Under the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the erstwhile state was reconstituted into two distinct Union Territories (UTs) with different administrative structures.

Key Provisions of the 2019 Act
UT of Jammu and Kashmir: Created with a legislature. It follows a model similar to Puducherry, where there is an elected Legislative Assembly and a Lieutenant Governor.

UT of Ladakh: Created without a legislature. It is administered directly by the President of India through a Lieutenant Governor. It comprises two districts: Kargil and Leh.

Why the other options are incorrect
A) Jammu: This is a division within the UT of Jammu and Kashmir, not a separate Union Territory.

B) Jammu and Kashmir: As mentioned, this UT was granted a legislature (though its functioning depends on the conduct of assembly elections).

C) Kargil: This is a district within the Union Territory of Ladakh, not a standalone UT.

General Science 6 questions

2024 Prelims General Science
Consider the following statements.
1. Life on the earth is possible due to the greenhouse effect
2. Increased emission of greenhouse gases is a natural process

Which of the above statements is/are correct:
A Only 1
B Only 2
C Both 1 and 2
D Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option A
Why Statement 1 is Correct

Without the natural greenhouse effect, Earth would be a frozen wasteland. Greenhouse gases like water vapor, carbon dioxide, and methane act as a thermal blanket, trapping just enough heat from the sun to keep our average global temperature at a life-sustaining 15°C. Without this effect, the Earth’s surface temperature would plummet to approximately -18°C, making life as we know it impossible.

Why Statement 2 is IncorrectWhile the greenhouse effect itself is a natural phenomenon, the increased emission of these gases over the last century is overwhelmingly anthropogenic (human-caused).Human Activity: The burning of fossil fuels (coal, oil, and gas), large-scale deforestation, and industrial agriculture have spiked $CO_2$ and $CH_4$ levels far beyond natural fluctuations.Natural Variation: While things like volcanic eruptions or solar cycles do affect the climate, they do not account for the rapid, sustained increase in greenhouse gas concentrations we are currently observing.The "Enhanced" Greenhouse Effect: It’s helpful to distinguish between the natural greenhouse effect (essential for life) and the enhanced greenhouse effect (caused by humans), which leads to global warming.
2024 Prelims General Science
Consider the following pairs:
a Sodium                     1. S
b. Carbon                     2. Co
c. Sulphur                      3. Na
d Cobalt                          4. C

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
A a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
B a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
C a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
D a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
Correct Answer: Option C
Common Mistakes to Avoid
Cobalt (Co) vs. Carbon (C): Carbon is a single "C," while Cobalt adds the "o" to distinguish it.

Sodium (Na) vs. Sulphur (S): Because "S" was already taken by Sulphur, Sodium uses its Latin root. Similarly, Potassium uses K (from Kalium) because "P" belongs to Phosphorus.
2024 Prelims General Science
Consider the following pairs.
Electrical Parameter           Measuring Unit
A. Power                               Watts
B. Current                               Volt
C. Frequency                           Hertz
D. Resistance                          Ampere

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A A and B
B A and C
C A, C and D
D A and D
Correct Answer: Option B
Correct Matches A. Power — Watts: Power is the rate at which work is done or energy is transformed. In an electrical circuit, C. Frequency — Hertz: Frequency is the number of cycles per second in an alternating current (AC) wave .Incorrect Matches B. Current — Volt: This is incorrect. The unit for Current is the Ampere (A). The Volt (V) is the unit for Voltage (Potential Difference).D. Resistance — Ampere: This is incorrect. The unit for Resistance is the Ohm . As mentioned above, the Ampere is the unit for Current.
2024 Prelims General Science
Food cans are coated with tin instead of zinc due to
A Zinc is costlier than tin.
B Zinc is more reactive than tin.
C Zinc has a higher melting point than tin.
D Zinc is less reactive than tin.
Correct Answer: Option B
1. The Reactivity Factor Zinc is positioned higher than tin in the reactivity series. This means zinc reacts much more readily with substances, especially the organic acids naturally found in food (like citric acid in fruits or acetic acid in pickles).If food were stored in zinc-coated cans, the metal would react with the food to form toxic compounds. Tin, being less reactive, does not react with food acids under normal conditions, keeping the contents safe for consumption. 
2. The Protective Barrier Tin coating acts as a non-reactive barrier. Even though tin is more expensive than zinc, it is used because it provides corrosion resistance without leaching harmful chemicals into the meal.
3. Analyzing the Other Options 
A) Zinc is costlier than tin: This is actually false; tin is generally more expensive than zinc. However, safety (reactivity) is the primary reason for the choice, not cost.
C) Zinc has a higher melting point: While true for Zinc vs for Tin), the melting point isn't the concern for room-temperature food storage; chemical stability is.
D) Zinc is less reactive than tin: This is scientifically incorrect.
2024 Prelims General Science
Consider the following pairs.
Vitamin                Deficiency
A. Vitamin A            Anaemia
B. Vitamin C            Skin Diseases
C. Vitamin D             Rickets
D. Vitamin B1             Beri Beri

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
A A and B
B B and C
C C and D
D A and D
Correct Answer: Option C
To identify the correctly matched pairs, let’s look at the specific deficiency diseases associated with each vitamin listed: Analysis of the Pairs 
A. Vitamin A — Night Blindness (Incorrectly Matched): Vitamin A is essential for vision. Its deficiency leads to Xerophthalmia or Night Blindness, not Anaemia. Anaemia is typically caused by a deficiency of Iron, Vitamin B12, or Folic Acid .B. Vitamin C — Scurvy (Incorrectly Matched): Vitamin C is vital for collagen synthesis. Deficiency causes Scurvy, characterized by bleeding gums and skin spots. While Scurvy involves skin symptoms, "Skin Diseases" is too broad and usually refers to B-complex deficiencies (like Pellagra) or Vitamin E issues.C. Vitamin D — Rickets (Correctly Matched): Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium. A deficiency leads to Rickets in children (soft and weakened bones) and Osteomalacia in adults. D. Vitamin B1 — Beri Beri (Correctly Matched): Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) is crucial for energy metabolism. Its deficiency causes Beri Beri, which affects the circulatory system or the central nervous system.
2024 Prelims General Science
Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease?
A Tuberculosis
B Influenza
C Diabetes
D Ringworm
Correct Answer: Option C
Why Diabetes is the odd one out
To understand this, we have to look at how diseases are classified based on how they spread.

Communicable Diseases: These are infectious diseases caused by pathogens like bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites. They can be transmitted from one person to another through air, water, food, or physical contact.

Tuberculosis (A): Caused by bacteria (Mycobacterium tuberculosis); spreads through the air.

Influenza (B): Caused by a virus; spreads via respiratory droplets.

Ringworm (D): A fungal infection; spreads through skin-to-skin contact or contaminated surfaces.

Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs): These are chronic conditions that cannot be transmitted from person to person. They are generally caused by genetics, lifestyle factors (diet, lack of exercise), or environmental factors.

Diabetes (C): A metabolic disorder where the body cannot properly regulate blood glucose levels. You cannot "catch" diabetes from someone else.
he Role of Insulin in Diabetes.

In a healthy body, the pancreas produces insulin, a hormone that acts like a "key" to let blood sugar into your cells for energy. In Diabetes:

Type 1: The body does not make insulin.

Type 2: The body does not use insulin well or make enough of it.

Environment & Ecology 1 questions

2024 Prelims Environment & Ecology
Which of the following constitute a food-chain?
A Grass, wheat and mango
B Grass, goat and human
C Goat, cow and elephant
D Grass, fish and goat
Correct Answer: Option B
Why this constitutes a food chain
A food chain represents the chronological order of who eats whom in a biological community to transfer energy. For a sequence to be a valid food chain, each organism must typically belong to a different trophic level:

Producer (Grass): These are autotrophs that produce energy via photosynthesis.

Primary Consumer (Goat): An herbivore that eats the producer.

Secondary Consumer (Human): An omnivore or carnivore that eats the primary consumer.

Why the other options are incorrect
A) Grass, wheat and mango: These are all producers. They do not consume each other.

C) Goat, cow and elephant: These are all herbivores (primary consumers). In a standard ecosystem, they do not prey on one another.

D) Grass, fish and goat: While grass is a producer, a fish (aquatic) typically does not eat terrestrial grass in this sequence, and a goat does not eat fish.

More JKSSB Previous Year Questions

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