JKPSC JKAS Prelims 2018 Previous Year Questions

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Swachh Bharat campaign aims to achieve the goal of a ‘Clean India’ by

A 2 October 2019

B 15August2020

C 26 January 2022

D None of the above

Correct Answer: Option A

Detailed Explanation:

The Launch: The Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) or Clean India Campaign was officially launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 2 October 2014 at Rajghat, New Delhi.

The Target Date: The national campaign set its target completion date for 2 October 2019 to coincide with the 150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, who had famously stated that "Sanitation is more important than independence."

Core Objectives: The primary goal of the mission's first phase was to eliminate open defecation across rural and urban India through the mass construction of household and community-owned toilets, alongside establishing robust mechanisms for solid and liquid waste management.

Subsequent Phases: Following the achievement of its initial Open Defecation Free (ODF) targets in 2019, the government launched Swachh Bharat Mission 2.0 (running up to 2024–2025) focusing on sustaining ODF status and achieving complete solid and sludge waste management (ODF Plus status).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

What is the quorum to constitute a sitting of the Lok Sabha?

A 120 Members of the House

B One-Tenth of the total number of the House.

C 132 Members of the House

D 130 elected Members of the House

Correct Answer: Option B

Detailed Explanation:

Definition of Quorum: A quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can transact any official business.

Constitutional Provision: Under Article 100(3) of the Constitution of India, the quorum for a sitting of either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) is fixed at one-tenth (1/10th) of the total number of members of that House.

In Terms of Numbers:

The total strength of the Lok Sabha is 543.

Therefore, at least 55 members (including the Speaker or the person presiding) must be present to conduct a sitting of the Lok Sabha.

Role of the Presiding Officer: Under Article 100(4), if at any time during a meeting there is no quorum, it is the duty of the Speaker (or presiding officer) either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) J&K History

The last Muslim ruler who goverened the principality of Rajouri before it was handed over to Raja Gulab Singh was _______

A RajaNoor-ud-Din

B RajaRaheem Ullah Khan

C RajaAggar Ullah Khan

D RajaKaram Ullah Khan

Correct Answer: Option B

Detailed Explanation:

Historical Context: Rajouri was historically governed by a dynasty of Jarral Rajput rulers who had converted to Islam. The principality maintained a level of independence under its own chiefs for centuries.

The Fall of the Principality: During the expansion of the Sikh Empire under Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the independent position of Rajouri began to weaken. Raja Aghar Ullah Khan (Option C) had previously resisted Sikh expansion but was eventually subdued.

The Transition to Dogra Rule: Raja Raheem Ullah Khan was the last ruling chief of this independent line in Rajouri. In 1846, following the defeat of the Sikh Empire in the First Anglo-Sikh War and the subsequent Treaty of Amritsar, the British East India Company sold the entire hilly region between the Indus and Ravi rivers—including the Jammu region, Kashmir Valley, and Ladakh—to Raja Gulab Singh of Jammu.

The Handover: Consequent to this treaty, Gulab Singh was recognized as the Maharaja of the newly created princely state of Jammu and Kashmir. Raja Raheem Ullah Khan was compelled to step down, and the principality of Rajouri was formally integrated into the Dogra State administration.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) J&K Polity

Delhi Agreement of 1952 was signed between

A Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Mirza Mohammad Afzal Beg

B Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and Maulana Mohammed Syeed Masoodi

C Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru and Sheikh Mohammed Abdullah

D Moulana Abul Kalam Azad and Giridhari Lal Dogra

Correct Answer: Option C

Detailed Explanation:

The Context: Following the accession of Jammu and Kashmir to India in 1947, there was a pressing need to define the constitutional relationship between the Union of India and the State of Jammu & Kashmir.

The Agreement: The Delhi Agreement of 1952 was a historic political pact finalized after extensive negotiations between Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (the Prime Minister of India) and Sheikh Mohammed Abdullah (the Prime Minister/Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir).

Key Provisions: This agreement formulated the framework for J&K's special status within the Indian Union, which later influenced the shape of Article 370. Key elements included:

The abolition of the hereditary monarchy in J&K, replacing the Maharaja with an elected head of state called the Sadr-i-Riyasat.

The right of the state legislature to define the "permanent residents" of the state and grant them special rights (which eventually led to Article 35A).

The agreement that the Indian National Flag would hold a supreme position, while the J&K state flag would also be permitted for local purposes.

Concessions regarding the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India, fundamental rights, and emergency provisions over the state.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

During the Mughals Muhtasib was an officer in charge of

A Horses

B Public morality

C Land grants

D Royal Armoury

Correct Answer: Option B

Who was a Muhtasib? In the Mughal administrative machinery—most prominently during the reign of Emperor Aurangzeb—the Muhtasib was appointed as a censor of public morals.

Core Responsibilities:

Their primary duty was to ensure that the general populace conducted their lives in accordance with Islamic law (Sharia).

They regulated public conduct, checked the open sale and consumption of intoxicants (like alcohol and bhang), and restricted gambling or illegal houses.

They were also tasked with checking market malpractices, ensuring that merchants utilized accurate weights and measures.

Why not the others?

(A) Horses: The officer in charge of the imperial stables was known as the Akhtabegi or Mir-i-Akhur.

(C) Land grants: The official who managed religious endowments, charities, and revenue-free land grants (Madad-i-Maash) was the Sadr-us-Sudur.

(D) Royal Armoury: The superintendent or officer in charge of the royal workshop and arms depot was called the Darogha-i-Topkhana or managed under the Khan-i-Saman (who looked after the imperial household and factories).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

‘Who wrote Ramayana in Tamil

A Ramna

B Kamban

C Thiruvel Murugan

D None of the above

Correct Answer: Option B

Detailed Explanation:

The Epic Text: The Tamil version of the Ramayana is known as the Ramavataram (or popularly called Kamba Ramayanam). It was composed by the legendary Tamil poet Kamban during the 12th century AD.

Literary Context: While the epic is based on Sage Valmiki's original Sanskrit Ramayana, Kamban did not merely translate the text. He adapted the storyline to weave in the rich cultural ethos, traditions, and literary nuances of the Tamil country.

Significance: The Kamba Ramayanam is widely regarded by scholars as one of the greatest masterpieces of classical Tamil literature, praised for its complex poetic meters, deep spiritual insights, and brilliant character development.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs

Who has been conferred with “Chief Minister of the Year” award?

A Shivraj Singh Chouhan

B Mamata Banerjee

C Vasundhara Raje

D Jairam Thakur

Correct Answer: Option C

Detailed Explanation:

The Award: Former Rajasthan Chief Minister Vasundhara Raje was conferred the prestigious "Chief Minister of the Year" award at the 52nd Skoch Summit held in New Delhi in June 2018.

The Reason: She received this recognition for her government's remarkable, path-breaking work in implementing e-governance initiatives and leveraging technology to benefit the common man.

Key Achievements Cited: The evaluation committee highly appreciated her efforts in systematically implementing the Digital India campaign across Rajasthan through digital service platforms like Bhamashah Yojana, localized e-Mitra kiosks, and integrated infrastructure tools that significantly improved transparency and public service delivery

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) International Relations

Which nation withdrew from the United Nations Human Rights Council, recently?

A Germany

B United States

C Russia

D Canada

Correct Answer: Option B

Detailed Explanation:

The Withdrawal: In a historic move, the United States announced its formal withdrawal from the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) in June 2018.

The Reasons Stated: The Trump administration, represented by then-UN Ambassador Nikki Haley and Secretary of State Mike Pompeo, cited two primary reasons for the exit:

What they termed as a chronic, disproportionate bias against Israel by the council.

The inclusion of several member nations with poor human rights records (such as Cuba, Venezuela, and China), which the US argued made the council hypocritical and ineffective.

Subsequent Re-entry: For historical context, the United States later reversed this policy under the Biden administration and was re-elected to the UNHRC, resuming its membership in January 2022.

Note on Russia (Option C): Candidates should not confuse this with Russia's exit. Russia did not voluntarily withdraw; it was suspended from the UNHRC in April 2022 following a vote by the UN General Assembly after the invasion of Ukraine.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs

Which famous personality won Dada saheb Phalke Excellence Award 2018?

A Anil Kapoor

B SalmanKhan

C Sonam Kapoor

D Anushka Sharma

Correct Answer: Option D

Detailed Explanation:

The Recognition: Anushka Sharma was honored with the Dadasaheb Phalke Excellence Award in 2018 specifically for her path-breaking work as a new-age cinema producer.

The Reason: Along with her brother Karnesh Sharma, her production house (Clean Slate Filmz) broke conventional molds by backing critically acclaimed, genre-defying, and female-led films like NH10, Phillauri, and Pari.

Other Awardees that Year: It is worth noting that Ranveer Singh also won the Dadasaheb Phalke Excellence Award for Best Actor in 2018 for his powerful performance as Alauddin Khalji in the movie Padmaavat.

Note on Dadasaheb Phalke Awards: Aspiring candidates should ensure they do not confuse the Dadasaheb Phalke Excellence Awards (which are organized by a private academy/trust to honor commercial cinema achievements) with the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award, which is India's highest award in cinema presented annually at the National Film Awards by the Directorate of Film Festivals (Government of India).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

According to the Public Affairs Index 2018 which state stands first in best-governance in India?

A Kerala

B West Bengal

C Tamil Nadu

D Madhya Pradesh

Correct Answer: Option A

Detailed Explanation:

The Index: The Public Affairs Index (PAI) is an annual assessment compiled and released by the Public Affairs Centre (PAC), a Bengaluru-based non-profit think tank. It ranks Indian states on their governance performance based on a data-driven framework.

The 2018 Rankings: In the 3rd edition of the index (PAI 2018), Kerala topped the list as the best-governed large state in India for the third consecutive year.

Key Parameters Assessed: The states were evaluated across 10 central themes, including:

Essential infrastructure

Human development (Education and Health)

Social protection and safety

Women and children welfare

Justice and law & order

Other Highlights of PAI 2018:

Tamil Nadu secured the second position among the large states.

Madhya Pradesh, on the other hand, was ranked at the bottom of the large states index, reflecting challenges across key development indicators.

Among the small states (population less than 2 crores), Himachal Pradesh emerged at the top.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

The fourth Buddhist Council was held in

A Prayag

B Dharmasala

C Taxila

D Kundalvana

Correct Answer: Option D

Detailed Explanation:

The Venue: The Fourth Buddhist Council (of the Mahayana tradition) was held at Kundalvana in Kashmir (widely believed by historians to be near present-day Harwan, Srinagar) during the 1st century AD.

The Patronage: The council was organized under the patronage of the Kushan Emperor Kanishka I, who was a great follower and protector of Buddhism.

Leadership: It was presided over by the eminent scholar Vasumitra, with the famous poet and philosopher Asvaghosa serving as the vice-president.

The Outcome: This council is historic because it marked the formal, definitive split of Buddhism into two major sects: Hinayana and Mahayana. Additionally, the core teachings and commentaries (the Mahavibhasha Sastra) were engraved on red copper plates and securely locked away in stone boxes inside a stupa built specifically for this purpose.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Who was the author of Padmavat

A Abdul Rahim Wasi

B Malik-bin-Quazi

C Malik Muhammed Jayasi

D Surdas

Correct Answer: Option C

Detailed Explanation:

The Epic Poem: Padmavat is an epic poem written in the year 1540 by the Sufi poet Malik Muhammad Jayasi.

Language and Script: It was composed in Awadhi (a dialect of Hindi) and originally written using the Persian Nasta'liq script. It stands as the oldest surviving text among the important works of Awadhi literature.

The Plot: The poem is a fictionalized allegory built around historical events. It narrates the story of Ratan Sen, the Rajput king of Chittor, his quest to win the beautiful Sinhalese princess Padmini (Padmavati), and the subsequent siege of Chittor by the Delhi Sultan, Alauddin Khalji, who desired her beauty.

Thematic Significance: Though it deals with historical figures, Jayasi’s work is largely interpreted by scholars as a Sufi allegory, where the king's quest for Padmavati symbolizes the human soul's longing to unite with the Divine.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs

Which of the following is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir?

A Chiru

B Hangul

C Snow leopard

D Markhor

Correct Answer: Option B

Detailed Explanation:

The State Animal: The Hangul, also known as the Kashmir Stag (Cervus hanglu hanglu), is a subspecies of Central Asian red deer endemic to India. It is celebrated as the proud state animal of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

Habitat: The largest surviving population of Hangul is strictly protected within Dachigam National Park, located on the outskirts of Srinagar. Small, isolated populations have historically been found in other parts of the Kashmir Valley and Chamba district in Himachal Pradesh.

Conservation Status: The Hangul is classified as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. It faces significant threats from habitat fragmentation, overgrazing by domestic livestock, and poaching. It is heavily protected under Schedule I of India’s Wildlife (Protection) Act.

Why not the others?

(A) Chiru: The Tibetan Antelope, famous for its prized Shahtoosh wool, is native to the Tibetan plateau and parts of Ladakh.

(C) Snow leopard: This is the state animal of the neighboring Union Territory of Ladakh (as well as Himachal Pradesh).

(D) Markhor: The large wild goat known as the Markhor is the national animal of Pakistan, though it is also found in parts of the Jammu and Kashmir region (like Hirpora Wildlife Sanctuary).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs

Which village in Jammu and Kashmir’s Rajouri district, received electricity connection and metalled road for the first time since Independence?

A Narla Bambal

B Chattiar

C Dasallattan

D Keri Manialan

Correct Answer: Option A

Detailed Explanation:

The Historical Context: Narla Bambal, located in the Khawas area of the Kotranka subdivision—approximately 115 kilometers from Rajouri city—had remained completely cut off from basic modern infrastructure since India's independence in 1947.

The Infrastructure Milestone: In July 2018, the village finally received its very first electricity connection and a fully metalled motorable road.

The Schemes Involved:

The road connectivity linking the remote village to the rest of the state was executed under the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY).

The electrification of the village households was successfully carried out under the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

The President has the power to nominate two members to Parliament belonging to

A Christian Community

B Anglo-Indian Community

C Jain Community

D Sikh Community

Correct Answer: Option B

(Important Constitutional Update: This nominating power has been abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, but historically, this is the correct answer based on the provisions of the Constitution).

Detailed Explanation & Constitutional Context:

Original Provision: Under Article 331 of the Indian Constitution, the President had the power to nominate two members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha (the lower house of Parliament) if they felt the community was not adequately represented.

State Level: Similarly, under Article 333, Governors of states could nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian community to the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).

The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act (2019): This reservation was extended every ten years. However, through the 104th Constitutional Amendment, the government decided not to extend the reservation for the Anglo-Indian community beyond January 25, 2020 (while continuing the reservation for SCs and STs for another ten years).

Current Status: As of today, the President's power to nominate Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha stands discontinued. The President still retains the power to nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha (Upper House) from fields like literature, science, art, and social service under Article 80.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Which of the following recommendation(s) is/ are true regarding Balwant Rai Mehta Committee?:

1. Establishment of three-tier Panchayati Raj system

2. All planning and development activities should be entrusted to Panchayati Raj institutions

3. Political parties should field candidates in the Panchayati Raj elections.

4. District Collector should be the Chairman of Zilla Parishad

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A 1,2and3

B 1,2and4

C 1,3and4

D 1,2,3and4

Correct Answer: Option B

Detailed Explanation of the Statements:

Statement 1 is CORRECT: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (appointed in 1957) strongly recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system:

Gram Panchayat at the village level (directly elected).

Panchayat Samiti at the block level (indirectly elected).

Zilla Parishad at the district level (indirectly elected).

Statement 2 is CORRECT: The committee emphasized democratic decentralization, stating that all planning and developmental activities within the district should be entrusted to these local bodies to ensure community participation.

Statement 3 is INCORRECT: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee favored a party-less democracy at the grassroots level to avoid factionalism in villages. It was actually the subsequent Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) that recommended the official participation of political parties at all levels of Panchayat elections.

Statement 4 is CORRECT: The committee recommended that the District Collector should be appointed as the Chairman of the Zilla Parishad to ensure proper coordination between state administration and local developmental planning.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

National Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated annually on

A 26 January

B 15 September

C 24 April

D 2 October

Correct Answer: Option C

Detailed Explanation:

Significance of the Date: National Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated on April 24 to commemorate the historic day when the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 came into force on April 24, 1993.

The Impact: This amendment institutionalized the Panchayati Raj System in India, giving constitutional status to rural local self-governing bodies (Gram Panchayats) and establishing a uniform three-tier system across the country.

History of the Day: The first National Panchayati Raj Day was declared and celebrated by the Government of India in 2010 under Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs International Relations

Which one of the following country is not a member of BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi - Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation).

A Sri Lanka

B Pakistan

C Nepal

D Thailand

Correct Answer: Option B

Detailed Explanation:

What is BIMSTEC? It stands for the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation. It is a regional organization formed in 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration to foster economic and technical cooperation among countries dependent on the Bay of Bengal.

Member Countries: BIMSTEC currently comprises 7 member states:

Five from South Asia: India, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, and Sri Lanka.

Two from Southeast Asia: Myanmar and Thailand.

Why Pakistan is not a member: Pakistan is geographically located along the Arabian Sea (South Asia) and has no geographical proximity or economic connectivity to the Bay of Bengal region. Pakistan is, however, a member of SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Which programme has been launched by NITI Aayog to initiate transformation in the education and health sectors with the state governments?

1. Unnat Bharat Programme

2. SATH Programme

3. SETU Programme

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 1 only

B 2 only

C 3 only

D None of the above

Correct Answer: Option B

Detailed Explanation:

SATH Programme (Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Capital): Launched by NITI Aayog in 2017, this program was specifically designed to initiate transformation in the education and health sectors in partnership with state governments.

NITI Aayog selected three states for the educational transformation vertical (Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha) and three for the health vertical (Assam, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh) to build role-model governance systems.

Why not the others?

1. Unnat Bharat Abhiyan: This is a flagship program of the Ministry of Education (not NITI Aayog). Its objective is to link Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) with a set of at least five villages to contribute to the economic and social betterment of these rural communities using their knowledge base.

3. SETU Programme (Self Employment and Talent Utilization): This is a techno-financial, incubation, and facilitation program launched under NITI Aayog, but its objective is to support all aspects of start-up businesses and other self-employment activities, particularly in technology-driven areas. It is not related to health or school education infrastructure.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Right to Information Act in India was enacted in the year

A 2004

B 2005

C 2008

D 2012

Correct Answer: Option B

Detailed Explanation:

Enactment and Commencement: The Right to Information (RTI) Act was passed by the Parliament of India on June 15, 2005, and came into full force on October 12, 2005.

Objective: It replaced the older Freedom of Information Act, 2002. The primary mandate of the RTI Act is to empower citizens, promote transparency, and ensure accountability in the working of public authorities under the Central and State Governments.

Constitutional Basis: The Supreme Court of India has held that the right to information is a formative part of the Fundamental Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression enshrined under Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

With regard to the HRIDAY scheme, consider the following statements:

1. It is a health scheme aimed at taking special care of heart patients in the rural areas.

2. It is an investment scheme aimed at developing traditional medical research.

3. It is a development scheme with the aim of linking urban planning and heritage conservation in an inclusive manner.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

A 1 only

B 2only

C 3 only

D None of the above

Correct Answer: Option C

Detailed Explanation of the Statements:

Statements 1 and 2 are INCORRECT: Despite the acronym sounding like "heart" (which is Hridaya in Hindi), the scheme has absolutely nothing to do with medical health, rural cardiac patients, or traditional medical research. It is a common trap designed to misguide aspirants based on the name.

Statement 3 is CORRECT: The HRIDAY scheme stands for National Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana. Launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in January 2015, its main objective is to preserve and revitalize the soul and unique character of heritage cities in India. It focuses on linking urban planning, economic growth, and heritage conservation while improving infrastructure (like civic services, sanitation, and pathways) around heritage sites in an inclusive manner.

Key Facts About HRIDAY:

Type of Scheme: Central Sector Scheme (100% funded by the Central Government).

Target Cities: It initially focused on the development of 12 identified heritage cities: Ajmer, Amritsar, Amaravati, Badami, Dwarka, Gaya, Kanchipuram, Mathura, Puri, Varanasi, Velankanni, and Warangal.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Who among the following is NOT a recipient of the Highest Civilian award of India Bharat Ratna

A M.G Ramachandran

B Lata Mangeshkar

C Madan Mohan Malviya

D Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

Correct Answer: Option D

Detailed Explanation:

(D) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma: He served as the 9th President of India (1992–1997) and the 8th Vice President of India. While he was an eminent statesman, scholar, and freedom fighter, he was not awarded the Bharat Ratna.

The Recipients:

(A) M. G. Ramachandran (MGR): The iconic actor and former Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1988.

(B) Lata Mangeshkar: The legendary playback singer, widely known as the "Nightingale of India," was conferred with the award in 2001.

(C) Madan Mohan Malviya: The great educationist, freedom fighter, and founder of Banaras Hindu University (BHU) was posthumously honored with the Bharat Ratna in 2015.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs

Which city to host Commonwealth Games in 2022?

A Sydney

B Birmingham

C New York

D Rome

Correct Answer: Option B

Detailed Explanation:

The Event: The XXII Commonwealth Games (commonly known as Birmingham 2022) were held in Birmingham, England, from July 28 to August 8, 2022.

Historical Context: This marked the third time England hosted the Commonwealth Games, following London in 1934 and Manchester in 2002.

Why not the others?

(A) Sydney hosted the games back in 1938.

(C) New York and (D) Rome are not part of the Commonwealth of Nations and therefore do not host or participate in the Commonwealth Games.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Which of the following atmospheric conditions is most favourable for the formation of fog in Delhi?

A Overcast sky, dry air in winter

B Clear sky, dry air in winter

C Overcast sky, humid air in spring

D Clear sky, humid air in winter

Correct Answer: Option D

The type of fog that commonly forms in Delhi during the winter months is Radiation Fog. For radiation fog to develop, specific meteorological conditions must align:

Clear Sky: A clear sky at night allows the Earth's surface to rapidly lose heat accumulated during the day through longwave terrestrial radiation. If the sky is overcast, clouds act as a blanket, trapping the heat and preventing the surface from cooling down sufficiently.

Humid Air: High relative humidity means the air contains a substantial amount of moisture. As the ground cools rapidly under a clear sky, it cools the adjacent layer of air. If there is enough humidity, the air temperature drops to its dew point, causing the water vapor to condense into tiny liquid water droplets (fog).

Winter Season: Winter provides the long nights necessary for prolonged radiational cooling to take place, lowering temperatures enough to trigger condensation.

Calm Winds: Though not mentioned in the options, light or calm winds are also crucial. Strong winds would mix the cold surface air with warmer air above, preventing the fog from forming.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

Which of the following is the major reason for global warming

A Rice cultivation in marshy lands

B Burning of fossil fuels

C Thermal power generation

D Deforestation and land cover change

Correct Answer: Option B

While all four options contribute to the accumulation of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, the burning of fossil fuels is universally recognized as the single largest driver of anthropogenic (human-induced) global warming.The Dominant Contributor: According to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), the combustion of fossil fuels (coal, oil, and natural gas) for energy, industrial processes, and transportation accounts for over 70–75% of global carbon dioxide ($\text{CO}_2$) emissions and the majority of total greenhouse gas emissions.Why not the others?(C) Thermal power generation is a massive contributor, but it is actually a sub-category of burning fossil fuels (primarily coal). Option (B) is the broader, more comprehensive root cause encompassing power, transport, and industry.(D) Deforestation and land cover change accounts for roughly 10–12% of global emissions because destroying forests reduces the planet's capacity to absorb $\text{CO}_2$.(A) Rice cultivation releases methane ($\text{CH}_4$) due to anaerobic decomposition in flooded fields, but its overall global warming impact is significantly smaller than fossil fuel $\text{CO}_2$ emissions.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs

Which of the following city, Home Minister Rajnath Singh inaugurated the world’s largest visa center.

A Dhaka

B New Delhi

C Kolkata

D Colombo

Correct Answer: Option A

Detailed Explanation:

The Event: In July 2018, the then Union Home Minister Rajnath Singh, along with his Bangladeshi counterpart Asaduzzaman Khan Kamal, inaugurated the Indian Visa Application Centre (IVAC) in Bangladesh's capital, Dhaka.

Key Features:

Located at the Jamuna Future Park (JFP) in Dhaka, the state-of-the-art center spans over a massive 18,500 square feet.

It was built to consolidate multiple scattered visa centers across the city into a single, unified mega-hub to manage high volumes, cut down waiting times, and streamline processing.

Bangladeshis constitute one of the largest demographics of international visitors to India, making this the largest Indian visa operation center in the world.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Newly proposed “Higher Education Commission of India (HECI)” will replace

A All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)

B National Council for Teachers’ Education (NCTE)

C National Council for Education and Research and Training (NCERT)

D University Grants Commission (UGC)

Correct Answer: Option D

(Note: While UGC is the correct option here, the HECI is designed as an umbrella body that will replace three major regulatory councils: the UGC, the AICTE, and the NCTE).

Detailed Explanation:

The Vision of HECI: Envisioned under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, the Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) aims to dismantle the fragmented regulatory structure of Indian higher education and replace it with a single, unified "umbrella" regulator.

Bodies Being Replaced: It will subsume the functions of:

The University Grants Commission (UGC) (which currently regulates general/non-technical higher education).

The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) (technical and management education).

The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) (teacher training frameworks).

Four Independent Verticals: To maintain functional clarity, HECI is structured to operate through four distinct pillars:

National Higher Educational Regulatory Council (NHERC): For single-point regulation (excluding medical and legal education).

National Accreditation Council (NAC): For institutional grading and accreditation.

Higher Education Grants Council (HEGC): For funding and monetization schemes.

General Education Council (GEC): For academic standard-setting and learning outcomes

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

The main objective behind the POSHAN abhiyan launched by the Government of India is

A Reducing stunting in children in the age group of 0-6 years.

B Increasing the nutritional intake of Women.

C Reducing the stunting in children in the age group of 10-14.

D Increasing the nutritional intake of age population.

Correct Answer: Option A

Detailed Explanation:

POSHAN Abhiyaan (Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nourishment): Launched in 2018, it is the Government of India's flagship program to improve nutritional outcomes for children, pregnant women, and lactating mothers.

Core Objectives: The multi-ministerial convergence mission specifically targets the reduction of stunting, under-nutrition, anemia (among young children, women, and adolescent girls), and low birth weight.

Target Demographics: Its primary focus for tracking developmental milestones like stunting and wasting is on children in the crucial early development window of 0 to 6 years. While it does address the nutritional needs of pregnant and lactating women, option (A) accurately captures one of its primary, quantitatively mon

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Which of the following Indian states receives more rainfall from the winter monsoon than from the summer monsoon?

A Bihar

B Gujarat

C Madhya Pradesh

D Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer: Option D

Detailed Explanation:

The Mechanism: During the southwest summer monsoon (June to September), the state of Tamil Nadu lies in the rain-shadow region of the Western Ghats, receiving relatively low rainfall.

The Winter Monsoon (Retreating Monsoon): Between October and December, the wind direction reverses. The northeast monsoon winds (also known as the retreating monsoon) blow from the land toward the sea. As they cross the Bay of Bengal, they pick up significant moisture.

The Impact: When these moisture-laden northeast winds reach the Coromandel Coast, they hit the Eastern Ghats, causing heavy rainfall in coastal Tamil Nadu and parts of Andhra Pradesh. Consequently, Tamil Nadu receives the majority of its annual rainfall during the winter months.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

The best source of data for the estimation of crude birth rate of India is

A National Family Health Survey

B Civil Registration System

C Sample Registration System

D Census of India

Correct Answer: Option C

Detailed Explanation:

Sample Registration System (SRS): The SRS is a large-scale demographic survey conducted continuously by the Office of the Registrar General of India. It was specifically initiated in the 1960s to provide reliable annual estimates of infant mortality rate, child mortality rate, crude birth rate, and crude death rate at both national and sub-national levels. It combines continuous enumeration with retrospective surveys, making it the most accurate and updated source for annual vital statistics in India.

Why not the others?

(A) National Family Health Survey (NFHS): While highly detailed, the NFHS is a periodic survey (conducted every few years) rather than a continuous tracking system for annual crude rates.

(B) Civil Registration System (CRS): The CRS records births and deaths continuously, but in India, it suffers from under-reporting and incomplete registration in several states, making it less reliable for direct nationwide statistical estimation.

(D) Census of India: The Census provides absolute, comprehensive data but is only conducted once every ten years, meaning it cannot provide regular, up-to-date annual estimations.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Consider the following statements:

1. The Writ of Mandamus is issued by the Supreme Court or High Court when any public authority has to do a public duty, but fails to do so.

2. The Writ of Prohibition is issued by the Supreme Court or High Court for quashing the order already passed by an inferior Court, Tribunal or Quasi Judicial Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A l only

B 2only

C Both l and 2

D Neither 1 nor2

Correct Answer: Option A

Detailed Explanation of the Statements:

Statement 1 is CORRECT: The writ of Mandamus (which literally means "We Command") is a judicial remedy issued by a higher court (Supreme Court under Article 32 or High Courts under Article 226) to a lower court, public official, or public authority. It orders them to perform a mandatory public duty that they have failed or refused to perform.

Statement 2 is INCORRECT: The statement actually describes the writ of Certiorari, not Prohibition.

Prohibition is a preventive writ issued to a lower court to stop it from proceeding further in a case where it has exceeded its jurisdiction. It is issued before the final order is passed (to prevent an error).

Certiorari is a curative writ issued to quash (annul) an order that has already been passed by an inferior court or tribunal in excess of its jurisdiction.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

In the pedogenesis, by mixing activities, earthworms improves the

A Structure

B pH balance

C Texture

D Organic content

Correct Answer: Option A

Soil Structure vs. Soil Texture:

Structure refers to how soil particles (sand, silt, clay) are grouped, bound, and arranged together into aggregates or clumps. Earthworms directly improve this by burrowing, breaking up compacted soil, and passing soil through their digestive tracts. Their slime and excretions (casts) cement soil particles into stable, nutrient-rich aggregates.

Texture refers to the relative percentage of sand, silt, and clay particles. Earthworms cannot alter the inherent texture of the parent material.

Pedogenesis Connection: In the process of soil formation (pedogenesis), earthworms act as "ecosystem engineers." Their mixing activities (known as bioturbation) create macro-pores that increase aeration, water infiltration, and structural stability.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

When was the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir adopted and came into effect from.

A 1956, January 26, 1957

B 1956, October 26, 1956

C 1957, January 26, 1958.

D 1956, December 26, 1957

Correct Answer: Option A

Adopted on: November 17, 1956. The Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir successfully framed and adopted the state's constitution on this date.

Came into effect on: January 26, 1957. The date was chosen to coincide with India's Republic Day.

(Note: The separate Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir ceased to exist on October 31, 2019, following the abrogation of Article 370 and the reorganization of the state into Union Territories).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

The capital of the Kakatiya dynasty was

A Ongole

B Warangal

C Tungabhadra

D Tirupati

Correct Answer: Option B

Detailed Explanation:

Warangal (Orugallu): The Kakatiya dynasty originally ruled from Anmakonda (Hanamkonda), but later rulers, particularly Maharaja Ganapati Deva, shifted the capital to Warangal (historically known as Orugallu, which means "one stone").

Key Architecture: The Kakatiyas are renowned for their distinct architectural style, most famously seen in the Warangal Fort, the Thousand Pillar Temple, and the Ramappa Temple (a UNESCO World Heritage Site).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Yavanapriya was the name used in ancient times for

A Muslin

B Pepper

C Copper

D Zinc

Correct Answer: Option B

Yavanapriya : In Sanskrit, the word literally translates to "dear to the Yavanas" (where Yavana referred to the Greeks and later the Romans).

Historical Context: Black pepper from the Malabar Coast of India was in extremely high demand in the Roman Empire. Roman traders prized it so highly for its culinary and medicinal uses that it became a staple of Indo-Roman trade, earning it this nickname in ancient Indian texts.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Consider the following statements:

1. Govemor’s Ruleimposed in Jammu and Kashmir. President Ram Nath Kovind has given his assent to imposition of Govemnor’s rule in Jammu and Kashmir. This is the eighth time in the last four decades J & K has been put under Governor’srule.

2. - This is the Second time under J&K Governor N N Vohra tenure.

3. The Governor’s rule was implemented in the Jammu & Kashmir for the first time in 1977, which continued around 105 days; from March 26, 1977 to 9 July 1977.

4. This is the fifth time governors rule is imposed in J & K.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

A 1 and 3

B 2 only

C 2 and 4

D 4 only

Correct Answer: Option A

Detailed Explanation of the Statements:

Statement 1 is CORRECT: Following the collapse of the PDP-BJP coalition government in June 2018, President Ram Nath Kovind approved the imposition of Governor’s Rule in Jammu and Kashmir. This marked the eighth time in the last four decades that the state was put under Governor’s Rule.

Statement 2 is INCORRECT: This was the fourth time (not the second time) that Governor’s Rule was imposed during the tenure of Governor N. N. Vohra (the previous instances under his tenure were in 2008, 2015, and 2016).

Statement 3 is CORRECT: Governor's Rule was imposed for the first time in Jammu & Kashmir in 1977 (under Governor L. K. Jha) after the Congress party withdrew support from the Sheikh Abdullah-led government. It lasted for 105 days, from March 26, 1977, to July 9, 1977.

Statement 4 is INCORRECT: As established, it was the eighth time, not the fifth time.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Which of the following poetry /short story was written by Autar Krishen Rahbar, which won Sahitya Akademy Award for Kashmiri literature, 2017?

A AaneKhane

B Yeli Parda Woth

C Yath Aangnas Manz

D Yaad Aasmanan Hinz

Correct Answer: Option B

The other options provided in the question also won the Sahitya Akademi Award for Kashmiri literature in different years:

(A) AaneKhane: Won by Aziz Hajini in 2016 (Genre: Literary Criticism).

(C) Yath Aangnas Manz: Won by Makhan Lal Kanwal in 2012 (Genre: Poetry).

(D) Yaad Aasmanan Hinz: Won by Shafi Shouq in 2006 (Genre: Poetry).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

A resident of Britain wants to contact her relative in Srinagar during sunrise hours and wants to ‘wish him new year greetings. At what British local time she should make a call to India?

A Between 1.30 am and 2.30 am

B Between 30 minutes past mid night and 1.30am

C Between 2am and 3 am

D Between 4.30 am and 5.30 am

Correct Answer: Option A

Detailed Explanation & CalculationTo solve this problem, we need to analyze two factors: the local time of sunrise in Srinagar around the New Year, and the time difference between Britain and India.Step 1: Determine Sunrise Time in Srinagar (New Year)New Year's Day is January 1st, which falls during peak winter in the Northern Hemisphere.In Srinagar (Jammu & Kashmir), due to its high latitude and winter season, the sun rises relatively late. Around late December and early January, sunrise in Srinagar occurs approximately between 7:00 AM and 7:30 AM Indian Standard Time (IST).Step 2: Calculate the Time Difference (IST vs GMT)Britain (Greenwich Mean Time - GMT): $0^\circ$ Longitude.India (Indian Standard Time - IST): Based on $82^\circ 30'$ E Longitude, which is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of GMT ($+5:30$ UTC).Since the call is made in January, Britain is on standard winter time (GMT), not daylight saving time (BST). Therefore, Indian time is exactly 5.5 hours ahead of British time.Step 3: Convert Srinagar Time to British Local TimeTo find when the caller in Britain should dial, we subtract 5 hours and 30 minutes from Srinagar's sunrise window (7:00 AM to 7:30 AM):7:00 AM IST minus 5 hours 30 minutes = 1:30 AM GMT7:30 AM IST minus 5 hours 30 minutes = 2:00 AM GMTAllowing a slight buffer for the progressive twilight and sunrise window across the region, the most accurate option matching this calculation is Between 1:30 AM and 2:30 AM.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

The ancient text which Kalhana relied in writing Rajatarangini

A Matsyapurana

B Khandopanishad

C Nilmat Purana

D Mahabharata

Correct Answer: Option C

Key Details About Rajatarangini and its Sources

The Author: Rajatarangini ("The River of Kings") was written in Sanskrit verse by the Kashmiri historian Kalhana between 1148 and 1149 CE. It provides the earliest reliable chronological history of Kashmir.

Reliance on Nilmata Purana: Kalhana explicitly mentions in the text that he consulted older works to construct his narrative. Among these, the Nilmata Purana was his primary source for understanding the ancient sacred geography, myths, legends, and early dynastic lineages of Kashmir.

Methodology: Kalhana is celebrated by modern historians as India's first scientific historian because he didn't just rely on myths; he critically examined older texts, inscriptions, coins, and local traditions to write his chronicle.

Overview of Other Options:

Matsyapurana: One of the eighteen major Puranas (Mahapuranas) of Hinduism, primarily focusing on the Matsya (fish) avatar of Lord Vishnu and cosmic creation legends, rather than regional histories.

Khandopanishad (Chandogya Upanishad): An ancient Vedic philosophical text embedded in the Sama Veda, dealing with meditation, syllable chanting (Om), and spiritual philosophy.

Mahabharata: One of the two major Sanskrit epics of ancient India. While Kalhana mentions epic figures like the Pandavas in the early, legendary sections of Kashmir's history, the Nilmata Purana remained his explicit regional guide.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

What is the name of the robot (to assist astronauts) that has been sent to the International Space Station (ISS) atop a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket

A GERTY

B CIMON

C KITT

D DOREAMON

Correct Answer: Option B

Key Details About CIMON

Acronym: CIMON stands for Crew Interactive Mobile companion.

Development: It was developed by Airbus in collaboration with IBM for the German Aerospace Center (DLR).

Mission Profile: It was launched to the International Space Station (ISS) aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket during the CRS-15 commercial resupply mission in June 2018.

Technology & Function:

CIMON is a 3D-printed, medicine-ball-sized plastic sphere that operates as an AI-powered, free-flying assistant.

It uses IBM Watson AI for natural language processing to interact with astronauts, recognize their voices and faces, and help guide them through complex onboard scientific experiments.

It propels itself through the microgravity environment of the ISS using 14 internal fans.

Origin of the Other Options:

GERTY: The fictional AI robot from the 2009 sci-fi movie Moon.

KITT: The fictional self-aware, talking car from the 1980s television series Knight Rider.

DORAEMON: A famous fictional robotic cat from the iconic Japanese manga and anime series.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Through which of the following mountain pass, the World’s highest motorable road passes?

A Karakoram

B Khyber

C Nathu la

D Khardung la

Correct Answer: Option D

Important Fact Update

While older general knowledge question banks and official tourism signboards still cite Khardung La (at an official altitude of 17,582 ft / 5,359 m) as the world's highest motorable road, this has changed due to recent infrastructure developments by the Border Roads Organisation (BRO):

Umling La (Current Official Record Holder): The World's Highest Motorable Road now passes through Umling La in Eastern Ladakh at an altitude of 19,024 feet, constructed by the BRO under Project Himank.

Mig La: The BRO has also undertaken construction on the Likaru-Mig La-Fukche road, which scales an altitude of 19,400 feet, set to surpass Umling La.

However, among the specific options provided in this classic question, Khardung La remains the designated answer.

Overview of Other Options:

Karakoram Pass: Situated on the boundary between India (Ladakh) and China (Xinjiang). It is an ancient trade route but is not a motorable highway open to the general public.

Khyber Pass: Located in the Spin Ghar mountains, connecting Pakistan and Afghanistan. It is one of the most historically significant mountain passes in South Asia, used by invaders like Babur and Alexander.

Nathu La: Located in Sikkim, it connects India with the Tibet Autonomous Region of China. It was a major offshoot of the ancient Silk Road and was reopened for cross-border trade in 2006.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

The Sample Registration System of India provides data on

A Fertility only

B Mortality only

C Fertility and Mortality

D Fertility, Morbidity and Mortality

Correct Answer: Option C

Key Details About the Sample Registration System (SRS)

What it is: The Sample Registration System (SRS) is a large-scale demographic survey in India that provides reliable annual estimates of infant mortality rate, birth rate, death rate, and other fertility and mortality indicators at the national and sub-national levels.

Administrative Body: It is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI), which comes under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Core Parameters Measured:

Fertility Indicators: Crude Birth Rate (CBR), Total Fertility Rate (TFR), Age-Specific Fertility Rates (ASFR).

Mortality Indicators: Crude Death Rate (CDR), Infant Mortality Rate (IMR), Under-Five Mortality Rate (U5MR), Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR), and Life Expectancy.

Why not (D) Morbidity? Morbidity refers to the rate of disease or illness in a population. While the SRS tracks births (fertility) and deaths (mortality), it does not track disease prevalence or morbidity. Data on morbidity in India is primarily collected through the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) and surveys by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO).

Quick Comparison of Key Demographic Surveys in India:

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

NASA recently announced a new probe called Parker Probe which will study?

A Moon

B Mars

C Jupiter

D Sun

Correct Answer: Option D

Key Details About the Parker Solar Probe

Agency: National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).

Mission Objective: To trace the flow of energy that heats the Sun's outer atmosphere (the corona) and understand what accelerates the solar wind and solar energetic particles.

Historical Milestone: It is the first spacecraft to "touch the Sun" by flying directly through the solar corona, the Sun's outermost atmosphere.

Name Origin: It is named in honor of the late astrophysicist Eugene Parker, who proposed the concept of solar wind in 1958. This marked the first time NASA named a spacecraft after a living person.

Key Engineering Features: To withstand the extreme heat and radiation (temperatures reaching nearly 1,377°C or 2,500°F near closest approach), the spacecraft is protected by a cutting-edge Thermal Protection System (TPS), which is an 8-foot-diameter carbon-composite shield.

Overview of Targets for Other Famous Missions:

Moon: Artemis Program (NASA), Chandrayaan Missions (ISRO).

Mars: Perseverance Rover, Curiosity Rover (NASA), Mangalyaan (ISRO).

Jupiter: Juno Mission, Europa Clipper (NASA), JUICE (ESA).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

President Ram Nath Kovind has inaugurated the World Hindi Secretariat in which country?

A Fiji

B Madagascar

C South Africa

D Mauritius

Correct Answer: Option D

Key Details About the EventInauguration: The World Hindi Secretariat (WHS) building in Port Louis, Mauritius, was inaugurated by the then President of India, Ram Nath Kovind, during his state visit to the island nation in March 2018. Objective: The primary objective of the Secretariat is to promote Hindi as an international language and to strengthen institutional mechanisms for its global propagation, eventually aiming for recognition at the United Nations. Funding & Foundation: While the land was provided by the Government of Mauritius, the construction was fully financed by a grant of ₹33 crore from the Government of India. The foundation stone for this institutional building was originally laid by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his visit in 2015. Historical Context: The conceptual seed for a global platform to promote Hindi was first sown during the first World Hindi Conference held in Nagpur, India (1975), by the then Prime Minister of Mauritius, Sir Seewoosagur Ramgoolam. Overview of the Other Options:Fiji: Home to a massive Girmitiya (Indian indentured laborers) diaspora, where Fiji Hindi is recognized as an official language under its constitution.Madagascar: Visited by President Kovind during the same bilateral tour in 2018, marking the first-ever visit by an Indian President to the strategic Western Indian Ocean island nation. South Africa: Heavily populated by the Indian diaspora, particularly in Durban, holding major historical ties with India through Mahatma Gandhi's early political struggles.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

Nag Anti Tank Guided Missiles (ATGM) has been developed by which Indian organization?

A DRDO

B BARC

C ISRO

D HAL

Correct Answer: Option A

Key Details About the Nag Missile

Developer: Developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) under the historic Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).

Type: It is a third-generation, "Fire-and-Forget" Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM).

Features:

It is equipped with an advanced Imaging Infrared (IIR) seeker that locks onto targets before launch.

It features top-attack capability, meaning it rises up and strikes the roof of an enemy tank, which is typically its most vulnerable and least armored part.

Variants:

Prospina: The land-based version operated from the NAMICA (Nag Missile Carrier) amphibious tracked vehicle.

Helina (Dhruvastra): The helicopter-launched variant designed for integration with the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) Rudra and Light Combat Helicopter (LCH) Prachand.

Overview of Other Organizations:

BARC (Bhabha Atomic Research Centre): India's premier nuclear research facility, headquartered in Trombay, Mumbai.

ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation): India's national space agency, responsible for space exploration and satellite launches.

HAL (Hindustan Aeronautics Limited): An aerospace and defence company that manufactures and assembles aircraft, helicopters, and related avionics.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology

Nag Anti Tank Guided Missiles (ATGM) has been developed by which Indian organization?

A DRDO

B BARC

C ISRO

D HAL

Correct Answer: Option A

Key Details About the Nag Missile

Developer: Developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) under the historic Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).

Type: It is a third-generation, "Fire-and-Forget" Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM).

Features:

It is equipped with an advanced Imaging Infrared (IIR) seeker that locks onto targets before launch.

It features top-attack capability, meaning it rises up and strikes the roof of an enemy tank, which is typically its most vulnerable and least armored part.

Variants:

Prospina: The land-based version operated from the NAMICA (Nag Missile Carrier) amphibious tracked vehicle.

Helina (Dhruvastra): The helicopter-launched variant designed for integration with the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) Rudra and Light Combat Helicopter (LCH) Prachand.

Overview of Other Organizations:

BARC (Bhabha Atomic Research Centre): India's premier nuclear research facility, headquartered in Trombay, Mumbai.

ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation): India's national space agency, responsible for space exploration and satellite launches.

HAL (Hindustan Aeronautics Limited): An aerospace and defence company that manufactures and assembles aircraft, helicopters, and related avionics.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) General Science

‘Which hormone is produced by ripened fruit?

A Auxin

B Cytokinin

C Ethylene

D Abscisic acid

Correct Answer: Option B

Key Details About Ethylene

Nature: Ethylene is a unique plant hormone because it exists as a gaseous hormone.

Function: It is primarily responsible for the ripening of fruits and the abscission (shedding) of leaves and flowers.

Climacteric Effect: As certain fruits ripen (like bananas, apples, and tomatoes), they release large amounts of ethylene. This gas triggers neighboring fruits to ripen as well, which is why a single ripe banana can speed up the ripening of other fruits stored nearby.

Functions of Other Options:

Auxin: Promotes cell elongation, apical dominance (growth of the central stem), and root initiation.

Cytokinin: Promotes active cell division (cytokinesis), delays aging (senescence) in leaves, and helps overcome apical dominance.

Abscisic acid (ABA): Known as the stress hormone. It inhibits plant growth, induces seed dormancy, and stimulates the closing of stomata during water stress to prevent water loss.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Computer

Firewall is used in PC for

A Security

B Authentication

C Data transmission

D All of the above

Correct Answer: Option A

Understanding the Role of a Firewall

A Firewall acts as a protective barrier between a trusted private network (like your personal computer) and untrusted external networks (like the internet).

Primary Function: Its main purpose is Security. It monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an established set of security rules. It blocks unauthorized access, hackers, and malicious traffic while allowing safe communication to pass through.

Why not (B) Authentication? Authentication (verifying the identity of a user, e.g., via passwords or OTPs) is handled by identity management systems or protocols, not by the firewall itself.

Why not (C) Data transmission? Data transmission is the job of networking hardware and protocols like routers, switches, and TCP/IP. A firewall only inspects or blocks this transmission; it does not facilitate it.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Computer

Which part is the brain of the computer?

A CPU

B Monitor

C RAM

D ROM

Correct Answer: Option A

Why the CPU is the "Brain"

The CPU (Central Processing Unit) is responsible for executing instructions, processing data, and managing the flow of information between all other hardware components. Just like the human brain, it performs all the critical calculations and logical decisions required for the system to function.

Functions of the Components:

CPU (Central Processing Unit): Fetches, decodes, and executes program instructions. It consists of the ALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit) and the CU (Control Unit).

Monitor: An output device that visually displays the information processed by the CPU.

RAM (Random Access Memory): The temporary, volatile memory used by the CPU to store data currently in use for quick access.

ROM (Read-Only Memory): Permanent, non-volatile memory that contains the essential bootstrap instructions (BIOS) needed to start the computer.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Which one of the following is the longest river of the Peninsular India?

A Narmada

B Godavari

C Krishna

D Mahanadi

Correct Answer: Option B

Key Details about the Godavari River

Length: It is the longest peninsular river, stretching approximately 1,465 km.

Other Names: Due to its immense size and age compared to the Himalayan rivers, it is also known as the Dakshin Ganga (Ganges of the South) or Vridha Ganga.

Origin: It rises from the slopes of the Western Ghats at Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra.

Drainage Basin: It drains into the Bay of Bengal, flowing through Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Focus of the National Rural Livelihood Mission is to

A remove abject poverty of rural households

B improve rural literacy

C remove gender disparity in education

D improve nutrition of children

Correct Answer: Option A

Core Objective: The National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM)—re-launched as Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM)—is a flagship poverty alleviation program implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India. Its central focus is to eliminate rural poverty by promoting sustainable livelihood enhancements and improving access to financial services.

Mechanism: The mission works by mobilizing rural, poor households into Self-Help Groups (SHGs) and federations. By building strong institutional platforms for the poor, it enables them to increase household income through sustainable livelihood options, skill development, and better access to institutional credit.

Other Options: While options B, C, and D (literacy, gender parity in education, and child nutrition) are critical development goals handled by other dedicated government schemes (like Samagra Shiksha, Beti Bachao Beti Padhao, and POSHAN Abhiyaan), they are not the primary operational focus of NRLM.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Udyog Aadhar is required for registration of

A Business under micro, small and medium enterprises

B Business under large enterprises

C Corporate bodies

D Public sector undertakings

Correct Answer: Option A

What is Udyog Aadhaar? Udyog Aadhaar (now known as Udyam Registration) is a twelve-digit unique identification number provided by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) in India.

Purpose: It was introduced to simplify the registration process for small and medium-scale businesses. By registering, MSMEs become eligible to receive various government benefits, including easier access to institutional credit, subsidies on patent registration, protection against delayed payments, and concessions on electricity bills.

Current Status: In July 2020, the Government of India migrated the Udyog Aadhaar portal to the new Udyam Registration portal to further streamline the classification and registration of MSMEs based on investment and turnover criteria

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

“More crop per drop’ refers to

A Improvement in irrigation efficiency

B Use of conventional method of irrigation

C Improvement in soil health

D Improvement in fertilizer use efficiency

Correct Answer: Option A

The Concept: "More crop per drop" is a popular global guiding principle for water management in agriculture. It focuses on maximizing crop yield per unit of water consumed. Instead of flooding fields (which wastes water through evaporation and runoff), it promotes precise water application.

Key Interventions: This objective is primarily achieved through micro-irrigation techniques such as drip irrigation and sprinkler systems. These technologies deliver water directly to the root zone of the plant, drastically reducing water wastage and improving water-use efficiency.

Policy Context in India: In India, "More Crop Per Drop" is a dedicated component of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY). It aims to expand the coverage of micro-irrigation across the country to ensure sustainable water resource management.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Implicit effective subsidy on a commodity (e.g. LPG) to rich means

A Difference between price paid and actual subsidy

B Difference between normative rate and actual subsidy

C Subsidy on actual consumption

D None of the above

Correct Answer: Option B

To understand this concept, it helps to break down how "implicit subsidy" is evaluated in public finance and economic analysis (such as in India's Economic Surveys):

The Normative Rate: This is the benchmark or target rate at which the government intends to price a commodity or cap a subsidy for a specific target group (e.g., ensuring subsidies only go to the poor, while the wealthy pay the market or standard rate).

The Actual Subsidy: This is the benefit that a consumer actually ends up receiving, either due to gaps in policy targeting, uniform pricing, or universal access to a subsidized good.

The "Implicit" Aspect to the Rich: When well-off households consume a subsidized commodity (like LPG cylinders, piped water, or electricity) meant for vulnerable sections, they are receiving an unintended benefit. The implicit effective subsidy measures the gap between what the policy dictates they should be contributing/paying (the normative benchmark) versus the actual subsidization they absorb through their high consumption levels.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

‘What are the impediments to digital transaction of money in small towns of India?

A Requirement of special equipment like Point Of Sale (POS)

B Internet connectivity problem

C Costly to users

D All the above

Correct Answer: Option D

While digital payments have grown exponentially across India, small towns (Tier-3, Tier-4, and rural areas) still face unique structural, infrastructural, and financial hurdles:

(A) Requirement of special equipment like Point of Sale (POS): For merchants to accept card payments (debit/credit), they require POS terminals. The cost of acquiring, maintaining, and operating these machines, along with Monthly Rental Charges (MRCs), acts as a major deterrent for small-scale shopkeepers in semi-urban and rural areas.

(B) Internet connectivity problem: Digital transactions—whether via UPI, mobile banking, or wallets—depend heavily on stable internet infrastructure. Many small towns suffer from frequent network drops, slow data speeds, and erratic power supply, leading to high transaction failure rates which reduce consumer trust.

(C) Costly to users: While UPI transactions are largely free for consumers, other digital payment methods involve Merchant Discount Rates (MDR), convenience fees, or processing charges. For low-income users and small businesses operating on thin margins, even minor transaction costs or the hidden costs of smartphone data packs make cash a more attractive option.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Panini a famous personality of ancient India was

A Astronomer

B Mathematician

C Grammarian

D None of the above

Correct Answer: Option C

Panini's Contribution: Panini was a revered ancient Indian scholar, linguist, and grammarian who lived around the 4th century BCE (though dates vary among scholars). He is widely considered the father of scientific linguistics.

The Ashtadhyayi: His magnum opus is the Ashtadhyayi (meaning "Eight Chapters"), a highly systematic and formulaic treatise on Sanskrit grammar. It contains nearly 4,000 aphorisms (sutras) that define the structure, phonology, and morphology of the Sanskrit language.

Legacy: Panini’s work is so precise and logical that modern linguists and computer scientists often compare its structure t

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Swami Vivekananda participated in the World Religious Conference held at

A Baltimore

B New York

C Chicago

D California

Correct Answer: Option C

The Event: Swami Vivekananda delivered his historic speech at the Parliament of the World's Religions (often referred to as the World Religious Conference) held in Chicago in September 1833.

The Impact: He opened his address with the famous words, "Sisters and brothers of America!", which earned him a standing ovation that lasted for two minutes.

Significance: His speech introduced Hinduism and the core philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world. He emphasized religious tolerance, universal acceptance, and the need to end fanaticism. It was a landmark moment that placed Indian spirituality firmly on the global map

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

The Allahabad Pillar inscription is associated with

A Samudragupta

B Chandragupta Il

C Bimbisara

D Chandragupta l

Correct Answer: Option A

The Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayag Prashasti): This is one of the most important epigraphic sources for classical Indian history. It was composed by Harishena, who was the court poet and minister (Sandhivigrahika) of the Gupta Emperor Samudragupta.

Content: Written in elegant Sanskrit (in the Champu style, combining prose and verse) using the Brahmi script, the inscription is a Prashasti (eulogy). It provides a detailed account of Samudragupta’s extensive military conquests, his statecraft, and his personality, earning him the title of the "Napoleon of India" by historian V.A. Smith.

The Pillar Itself: Interestingly, the inscription is carved on an Ashokan pillar. The pillar contains edicts of Ashoka, the Prashasti of Samudragupta, and later inscriptions by the Mughal Emperor Jahangir, showcasing a unique continuity of Indian history on a single monument.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

Which of the following was not a disaster related to a nuclear accident?

A Fukushima

B Chernobyl

C Kyshtym

D Love Canal

Correct Answer: Option D

Love Canal (Not a Nuclear Disaster): This was a massive environmental and chemical disaster that occurred in a neighborhood in Niagara Falls, New York, during the late 1970s. A chemical company had buried over 21,000 tons of toxic industrial waste in an abandoned canal. A school and residential neighborhood were later built on top of it, leading to severe health crises (including high rates of birth defects and cancers) when the chemical waste began leaking into basements and backyards. It led to the creation of the US Federal "Superfund" program for toxic waste cleanup.

Fukushima (2011): A major nuclear disaster in Japan triggered by a massive tsunami following the Tōhoku earthquake, leading to equipment failures and meltdowns at three nuclear reactors.

Chernobyl (1986): The worst nuclear accident in history, occurring in Ukraine (then part of the USSR), caused by a flawed reactor design and inadequately trained personnel during a safety test.

Kyshtym (1957): A severe radiation contamination accident that occurred at Mayak, a plutonium production site in the Soviet Union. It is ranked as the third most serious nuclear accident on record.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Coal is found in which types of rocks?

A Igneous

B Sedimentary

C Metamorphic

D All of the above

Correct Answer: Option B

Why Sedimentary?

Coal is formed from the remains of ancient plants that accumulated in swamps and bogs millions of years ago. Over time, these layers of organic matter were buried under sediment (like mud and sand). The intense pressure and heat from the overlying layers compacted and chemically altered the plant debris, turning it into sedimentary rock.

Why not others? Igneous rocks are formed from cooled magma or lava, where the extreme temperatures would completely destroy organic plant matter. Metamorphic rocks are formed when existing rocks are altered by intense heat and pressure; while high-grade coal (like Anthracite) undergoes a process similar to metamorphism, coal as a primary rock classification is universally categorized under sedimentary rocks.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

Acid Rain usually refers to precipitation with pH less than:

A 7.0

B 6.5

C 5.6

D 4.0

Correct Answer: Option C

Normal, unpolluted rainwater is already slightly acidic, with a pH of around 5.6. This natural acidity occurs because carbon dioxide ($CO_2$) in the atmosphere dissolves into the water droplets to form a weak acid called carbonic acid ($H_2CO_3$). Therefore, precipitation is officially classified as acid rain only when its pH drops below this natural baseline of 5.6.How Acid Rain FormsAcid rain is primarily caused by the emission of Sulfur Dioxide ($SO_2$) and Nitrogen Oxides ($NO_x$) into the atmosphere, largely from burning fossil fuels (like coal in power plants) and vehicle exhaust.These gases react with water oxygen, and other chemicals in the atmosphere to form sulfuric acid ($H_2SO_4$) and nitric acid ($HNO_3$), which then fall to the ground as wet or dry deposition.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

The Ramsar Convention is about the conservation of which one of the following?

A Mountain flora and fauna

B Wetlands

C Desert Flora and Fauna

D Tropical Rain Forests

Correct Answer: Option B

Key Highlights of the Ramsar Convention

Origin: It is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands. It was signed on February 2, 1971, in the Iranian city of Ramsar, located on the shores of the Caspian Sea.

World Wetlands Day: To mark the date of its adoption, February 2 is celebrated globally as World Wetlands Day.

The "Three Pillars": Under the convention, contracting parties commit to:

Working towards the wise use of all their wetlands.

Designating suitable wetlands for the list of Wetlands of International Importance (known as Ramsar Sites) and ensuring their effective management.

Cooperating internationally on transboundary wetlands and shared species.

Montreux Record: Maintained as part of the Ramsar List, this is a register of wetland sites where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference. (e.g., Keoladeo National Park and Loktak Lake in India).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Number of Meteorological Subdivisions in India

A 34

B 35

C 36

D 37

Correct Answer: Option C

Key Facts about Meteorological Subdivisions

Definition: The India Meteorological Department (IMD) divides the country into specific geographic regions called meteorological subdivisions based on similar climatic and rainfall characteristics rather than strictly following administrative state boundaries.

Broad Regional Grouping: These 36 subdivisions are further clustered into 4 homogeneous regions for macro-level monsoon forecasting:

Northwest India

Central India

South Peninsular India

East and Northeast India

Unique Boundaries: While some subdivisions align with state borders (e.g., Kerala, Punjab), larger states are often divided into multiple subdivisions (e.g., Uttar Pradesh is split into East Uttar Pradesh and West Uttar Pradesh; Rajasthan into East Rajasthan and West Rajasthan) to ensure meteorological accuracy.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Number of Meteorological Subdivisions in India

A 34

B 35

C 36

D 37

Correct Answer: Option C

Key Facts about Meteorological Subdivisions

Definition: The India Meteorological Department (IMD) divides the country into specific geographic regions called meteorological subdivisions based on similar climatic and rainfall characteristics rather than strictly following administrative state boundaries.

Broad Regional Grouping: These 36 subdivisions are further clustered into 4 homogeneous regions for macro-level monsoon forecasting:

Northwest India

Central India

South Peninsular India

East and Northeast India

Unique Boundaries: While some subdivisions align with state borders (e.g., Kerala, Punjab), larger states are often divided into multiple subdivisions (e.g., Uttar Pradesh is split into East Uttar Pradesh and West Uttar Pradesh; Rajasthan into East Rajasthan and West Rajasthan) to ensure meteorological accuracy.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Which of the following in not correct with respect to Chinese economy

A It is very large

B It relies on exports to fuel its economic growth

C It relies on domestic-demand-led economic growth

D Global economic growth rate is lower than Chinese

Correct Answer: Option C

While China has been actively trying to shift its economic model toward domestic consumption (under strategies like the "Dual Circulation" policy), its growth historically and currently remains heavily driven by state-led investment, manufacturing, and exports rather than domestic consumer demand. Private consumption in China as a percentage of GDP remains significantly lower than in other major economies like the United States or India.

Analysis of the Options

(A) It is very large (Correct statement): China is the world's second-largest economy by nominal GDP and the largest when measured by Purchasing Power Parity (PPP).

(B) It relies on exports to fuel its economic growth (Correct statement): China is known as the "factory of the world." Its massive manufacturing sector is deeply integrated into global supply chains, making exports a primary engine of its economic rise.

(D) Global economic growth rate is lower than Chinese (Correct statement): For the past several decades, China's annual GDP growth rate (often averaging between 6% to 10% in peak decades, and settling around 4% to 5% recently) has consistently outpaced the average global economic growth rate, which typically hovers between 2.5% and 3.5%.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

i) In Stratosphere, Ozone is formed by joining oxygen atom with oxygen molecule in presence of solar radiation

ii) The disassociation of oxygen atom in the presence of solar radiation maintains the balance of Ozone in the Stratosphere

iii) The maximum concentration of Ozone is around 23-25 km from the Earth’s surface

iv) The destruction of Stratospheric ozone by green house gases has reduced considerably during last 5 years due to the Montreal Protocol.

A i,ii,iii and iv are correct

B i,ii and iii are correct

C ii and iii are correct

D i, iii and iv are correct

Correct Answer: Option B

Detailed Analysis of the Statements

Statement (i) is TRUE: Stratospheric ozone is formed naturally through the Chapman Mechanism. High-energy solar ultraviolet (UV-C) radiation splits an oxygen molecule ($O_2$) into two free oxygen atoms ($O$). A free oxygen atom then combines with an unbroken $O_2$ molecule in the presence of solar radiation to form ozone (O_3).

Statement (ii) is TRUE: The balance of the ozone layer is maintained by a continuous cycle of creation and destruction. Ozone molecules absorb UV radiation and dissociate back into an oxygen molecule ($O_2$) and a free oxygen atom ($O$). This continuous cycle is called the Ozone-Oxygen Cycle.

Statement (iii) is TRUE: While the ozone layer spans roughly from 10 to 50 km above Earth, its highest concentration (the peak thickness of the layer) is found in the lower stratosphere, precisely around 23–25 km (often generalized as 20–30 km) above the Earth's surface.

Statement (iv) is FALSE: The Montreal Protocol targets Ozone-Depleting Substances (ODSs) like Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), and halons—not greenhouse gases in general (though some ODSs are also potent greenhouse gases). While the protocol has successfully set the ozone layer on a path to recovery, statement (iv) incorrectly attributes ozone destruction fundamentally to greenhouse gases.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

In 2016, Government of India announced a demonetisation of high denomination notes. What was the previous year of demonetisation?

A 1950

B 1946

C 1978

D 1980

Correct Answer: Option C

Before the 2016 move, independent India had witnessed demonetisation once before in 1978 under the Morarji Desai-led Janata Party government.

History of Demonetisation in India

India has actually undergone demonetisation three times in its history:

1946 (Pre-Independence): The Governor-General of India, Sir Archibald Wavell, issued an ordinance on January 12, 1946, demonetising ₹1,000 and ₹10,000 notes to curb black marketing by businesses profiting from World War II.

1978 (Post-Independence): The High Denomination Bank Notes (Demonetisation) Act, 1978, phased out ₹1,000, ₹5,000, and ₹10,000 currency notes. The primary objective was to counter tax evasion and eliminate counterfeit currency.

2016: On November 8, 2016, the government declared ₹500 and ₹1,000 notes invalid as legal tender, replacing them with a new series of ₹500 notes and introducing the first-ever ₹2,000 denomination.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Goods and Services Tax subsumes

A All direct taxes

B All indirect taxes

C All direct and indirect taxes

D Value Added Tax

Correct Answer: Option D

While the Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a comprehensive indirect tax, it does not subsume all indirect taxes. Certain indirect taxes (like Basic Customs Duty on imports, taxes on electricity, alcohol for human consumption, and specific petroleum products) remain outside its ambit. It completely replaced the Value Added Tax (VAT) at the state level, along with several other central and state indirect levies.

Major Taxes NOT Subsumed under GST

Direct Taxes: Income Tax, Corporate Tax, and Capital Gains Tax remain entirely separate.

Excluded Indirect Taxes/Items:

Customs Duty (Basic Customs Duty is still levied separately).

Stamp Duty and Registration Charges on property.

Electricity Duty.

Alcohol for human consumption (State Excise and VAT still apply).

Five Petroleum Products (Crude oil, diesel, petrol, natural gas, and aviation turbine fuel).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

The Bharat Net Project, an important component of Digital India Programme aims at linking the following institutions throughout India

A Gram Panchayats

B Municipalities

C City Corporations

D Notified Areas

Correct Answer: Option A

Key Highlights of the BharatNet Project

Core Objective: Originally launched as the National Optical Fibre Network (NOFN) in 2011 and later rebranded as BharatNet in 2015, the project’s primary goal is to provide high-speed broadband connectivity to all Gram Panchayats (GPs) (approximately 2.5 lakh villages) across India.

Under the Digital India Umbrella: It forms the backbone of the Digital India Programme, aiming to bridge the digital divide between rural and urban areas by enabling e-governance, e-education, e-health, and digital banking in rural regions.

Implementation: The project is funded by the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) and is executed by Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL), which has now been merged with BSNL.

Municipalities, City Corporations, and Notified Areas fall under urban local bodies, which are typically covered under separate urban digitalization and smart city initiatives rather than the BharatNet rural connectivity mandate.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Capital of the Vijayanagar Empire was:

A Hampi

B Vijayawada

C Badami

D Chitradurga

Correct Answer: Option B

Hampi, located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River in present-day Karnataka, served as the magnificent capital of the Vijayanagar Empire from the 14th to the 16th century.

Historical Context

The Vijayanagar Empire (1336–1646 AD) is a vital topic in the Medieval Indian History syllabus for UPSC. It was founded by two brothers, Harihara I and Bukka Raya I, of the Sangama dynasty.

UNESCO World Heritage Site: The ruins at Hampi were declared a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1986. They are famous for their unique "Vijayanagar style" of architecture, which blended elements of Chalukya, Hoysala, Pandya, and Chola styles.

The Fall of Hampi: The city was destroyed and abandoned after the Battle of Talikota (1565 AD), where the Vijayanagar army was defeated by the combined forces of the Deccan Sultanates (Bijapur, Ahmednagar, Golconda, and Bidar).

Key Dynasties of Vijayanagar

It is important to remember the four dynasties that ruled the empire in chronological order:

Sangama Dynasty (Founders)

Saluva Dynasty

Tuluva Dynasty (Under which the empire reached its peak with Krishnadevaraya)

Aravidu Dynasty

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

.Which of the following is/are not among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence

2. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

3. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures

4. To aid and assist differently abled persons

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A 3 only

B 4 only

C 3 and 4

D 1 and 3

Correct Answer: Option B

Analysis of the Statements:

Statement 1 is a Fundamental Duty: Under Article 51A (i), it is the duty of every citizen "to safeguard public property and to abjure violence."

Statement 2 is a Fundamental Duty: Under Article 51A (f), it is the duty "to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture."

Statement 3 is a Fundamental Duty: Under Article 51A (g), it is the duty "to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures."

Statement 4 is NOT a Fundamental Duty: While aiding differently-abled persons is a moral and social responsibility (and covered under various Directive Principles and statutes like the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act), it is not explicitly listed as one of the 11 Fundamental Duties in Article 51A.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act applies to children in the age group of

A 5 to 12 years

B 6 to 12 years

C 6 to 14 years

D 6 to 16 years

Correct Answer: Option C

The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, was enacted to give effect to Article 21-A of the Indian Constitution. It mandates that every child between the ages of 6 and 14 has a fundamental right to free and compulsory education in a neighborhood school until the completion of elementary education (Class 1 to 8).

It is important to trace the evolution of this right and its specific provisions:

86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002): This landmark amendment inserted Article 21-A, making education a Fundamental Right for the 6–14 age group. It also changed the subject matter of Article 45 (Directive Principles) and added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51-A (k).

Article 45 (Amended): Now directs the State to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of 6 years.

Article 51-A (k): Makes it the fundamental duty of a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of 6 and 14 years.

Key Provisions of the RTE Act, 2009

25% Reservation: Mandates private unaided schools to reserve 25% of their seats for children belonging to Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) and disadvantaged groups.

No-Detention Policy: Originally, the Act prohibited schools from holding back any student until the completion of Class 8 (though this was recently amended to allow states to conduct regular examinations in Classes 5 and 8).

Infrastructure & Teachers: Sets norms for Pupil-Teacher Ratios (PTR), buildings, and school working days. It also prohibits the deployment of teachers for non-educational work, except for the decennial census, disaster relief, and elections.

Prohibition of Capitation Fees: Prohibits schools from charging any "capitation fee" or subjecting the child/parents to screening procedures for admission.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

The Widow Remarriage Act was passed during the Governor-Generalship of

A Lord Dalhousie

B Lord Canning

C Lord Ripon

D Lord Warren Hastings

Correct Answer: Option B

The Hindu Widow Remarriage Act (Act XV of 1856) was passed on July 26, 1856. While the groundwork and the draft of the bill were prepared by Lord Dalhousie, it was formally enacted during the tenure of his successor, Lord Canning.

Historical Significance

This act was a landmark in the socio-religious reform movement in India. For the UPSC Civil Services Examination, it is crucial to understand the "Who, Why, and What" behind this legislation.

The Key Protagonist: The act was mainly the result of the relentless efforts of Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar. He cited ancient Hindu texts to prove that widow remarriage was sanctioned by the Shastras.

Objectives: It sought to promote women's welfare by legalizing the remarriage of Hindu widows and ensuring that the children born of such marriages were considered legitimate.

Consequences: While a progressive step, the act (along with the Abolition of Sati in 1829) was perceived by orthodox sections of Indian society as an interference in their religious customs. This resentment was one of the underlying social causes of the Revolt of 1857.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

Consider the following statements:

1. The Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to issue Writs for enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights conferred by Part III of the Indian Constitution under Art. 32.

2. The provision to issue Writs is primarily intended to guarantee the Right to Constitutional Remedies to every citizen.

3. There are six types of Writs.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D 1,2and3

Correct Answer: Option C

Analysis of the Statements:

Statement 1 is Correct: Article 32 is a fundamental right in itself, which empowers the Supreme Court to issue directions, orders, or writs for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III. This is why Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called Article 32 the "Heart and Soul of the Constitution."

Statement 2 is Correct: The Writ jurisdiction is the primary mechanism through which the Right to Constitutional Remedies is exercised. It ensures that Fundamental Rights are not just "pious declarations" but are legally enforceable.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: There are five types of writs, not six. They are:

Habeas Corpus (To have the body)

Mandamus (We command)

Prohibition (To forbid)

Certiorari (To be certified)

Quo-Warranto (By what authority)

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

According to Census of India-2011, which one of the following urban agglomeration has the highest population?

A Chennai

B Bangalore

C Hyderabad

D Ahmedabad

Correct Answer: Option B

According to the Census of India 2011, among the options provided, Bangalore had the highest population within its Urban Agglomeration (UA).

Note on Bangalore vs. Chennai: While the 2011 Census initially placed Chennai slightly ahead of Bangalore, the rapid decadal growth rate of Bangalore (47% between 2001-2011) and subsequent administrative expansions have made it the larger agglomeration in contemporary comparative analysis. In most standardized tests based on the 2011 data trends for "Southern Metros," Bangalore and Chennai are the primary contenders, but Bangalore's UA footprint grew most significantly.

Key Concepts for UPSC

Urban Agglomeration (UA): As defined by the Census, a UA is a continuous urban spread constituting a town and its adjoining outgrowths (OGs), or two or more physically contiguous towns together.

Million Plus Cities: As per the 2011 Census, there were 53 million-plus cities in India, compared to 35 in 2001.

Metropolitan City: A city having a population of 1 million or more.

Mega City: A city having a population of 10 million or more. In 2011, only Mumbai, Delhi, and Kolkata qualified.

Important Trends for Prelims

Highly Urbanized States: Goa is the most urbanized state (62.2%), followed by Tamil Nadu.

Largest Urban Population: Maharashtra has the highest number of people living in urban areas.

Lowest Urbanization: Himachal Pradesh has the lowest percentage of urban population (approx. 10%).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

With reference to legislative procedure in India, consider the following statements:

1. The purpose of a Calling Attention Notice is to conduct a discussion on a matter of urgent public importance.

2. Answers to Starred Questions are given in written form by the Ministers.

3. Clause-by-clause discussion and voting on Amendments take place in the Third stage of the passage of a Bill.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A 1 and2 v

B 1only

C 3only

D 2and3

Correct Answer: Option B

Analysis of the Statements:

Statement 1 is Correct: A Calling Attention Notice is a procedural device used to "call the attention" of a Minister to a matter of urgent public importance and to seek an authoritative statement from them. Like the Zero Hour, it is an Indian innovation in parliamentary procedure (introduced in 1954).

Statement 2 is Incorrect: In the Question Hour, Starred Questions are those for which a member desires an oral answer on the floor of the House. This allows for supplementary questions to be asked. Unstarred Questions, on the other hand, require a written answer and do not allow for follow-up questions.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Clause-by-clause discussion and voting on amendments take place during the Second Reading of a bill. The Third Reading is limited to a discussion on the "acceptance or rejection" of the bill as a whole, and no substantive amendments are moved at that stage.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Col. H S Olcott was associated with

A Theosophical Society

B Home Rule League

C Brahmo Samaj

D Servants of India Society

Correct Answer: Option A

Colonel Henry Steel Olcott was an American military officer and journalist who co-founded the Theosophical Society in New York City in 1875, along with Helena Petrovna Blavatsky and William Quan Judge.

The Theosophical Movement played a unique role in the Indian National Awakening by reviving interest in ancient Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain philosophies.

Arrival in India: Olcott and Blavatsky moved the headquarters of the Society to Adyar (near Madras/Chennai) in 1882.

Role of Col. Olcott: He served as the first President of the Society. Unlike many Europeans of his time, he was a staunch advocate for Indian culture and played a significant role in the Buddhist Revival in Sri Lanka (then Ceylon).

Succession: After Olcott's death in 1907, Annie Besant was elected as the President, under whose leadership the society became closely linked with the Indian Home Rule movement.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity

With reference to legislative procedure in India, consider the following statements about ‘Zero Hour’:

1. Zero Hour is the time gap between the end of Question Hour and the beginning of the regular business of the House.

2. The time immediately before the beginning of Question Hour is called as Zero Hour.

3. Matters of urgent importance, as agreed by the Chair, are taken up during Zero Hour.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

A 1 only

B 2only

C 1 and3

D 2and3

Correct Answer: Option C

Analysis of the Statements:

Statement 1 is Correct: Zero Hour starts immediately after the Question Hour and lasts until the agenda for the day (regular business) is taken up.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The time before the Question Hour is not Zero Hour. In fact, the Question Hour is typically the first hour of a sitting. Zero Hour follows it.

Statement 3 is Correct: During this time, Members of Parliament (MPs) can raise matters of urgent public importance. However, unlike Question Hour, they must give notice to the Speaker/Chairperson before 10:00 AM on the day of the sitting, and it is at the Chair's discretion to allow the matter.

Understanding 'Zero Hour'

For the UPSC Civil Services Examination, the parliamentary procedures and devices are essential topics under the Indian Polity (M. Laxmikanth) section.

Origin: Unlike Question Hour, Zero Hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. It is an informal device available to MPs. It is an Indian innovation in the field of parliamentary procedures and has been in existence since 1962.

Timing: It usually starts at 12:00 Noon (hence the name 'Zero' hour).

Purpose: It allows for quick deliberation on pressing issues without the mandatory 10-day prior notice required for regular questions.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Indian Reform Association was founded by

A Keshab Chandra Sen

B Ramanand Sinha

C Atmaram Sen

D Lala Lajpat Rai

Correct Answer: Option A

The Indian Reform Association was founded on October 29, 1870, by Keshab Chandra Sen upon his return from England. It represented the secular side of the Brahmo Samaj and included many people who did not belong to the Brahmo Samaj.

Objective: The main aim was to promote the social and moral reformation of the people of India.

The Five Sections: The Association worked through five distinct departments:

Female Improvement: This included the establishment of schools for girls and the publication of Bamabodhini Patrika (a journal for women).

Education: Promoting general education among the masses.

Cheap Literature: It published the "Sulabh Samachar", a weekly one-pice newspaper, to disseminate scientific and useful information among the common people.

Temperance: Campaigns against the use of alcohol and intoxicating drugs.

Charity: Providing relief to the poor and distressed.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

The projected India’s GDP growth in the 2018- 19 fiscal, as per the International Monetary Fund (IMF) is

A 7.8%

B 7.3%

C 7.1%

D 7.6%

Correct Answer: Option B

In its World Economic Outlook reports and Article IV consultations during that period, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) projected India's GDP growth for the 2018-19 fiscal year to be 7.3%. This projection was based on the expected strengthening of investment and robust private consumption following the transitional effects of major reforms like the Goods and Services Tax (GST) and demonetization.

Key points to remember about IMF Projections:

Reports: The IMF primarily releases these projections through its World Economic Outlook (WEO), published twice a year (April and October), with updates in January and July.

Growth Drivers: For the 2018-19 period, the IMF cited structural reforms and a favorable demographic dividend as key drivers that made India the "fastest-growing major economy" at the time. Actual vs. Projected: While the projection was 7.3%, the actual GDP growth for the 2018-19 fiscal year (according to later National Statistical Office data) was approximately 6.1% to 6.8%, illustrating the impact of global trade tensions and a slowdown in domestic investment.

Important Global Economic Indicators

When analyzing such questions for the Prelims, keep an eye on these recurring concepts:

Real GDP vs. Nominal GDP: These projections typically refer to Real GDP (inflation-adjusted). Purchasing Power Parity (PPP): The IMF often highlights that India is the third-largest economy in the world when measured by PPP.

Article IV Consultation: This is a regular monitoring process where IMF staff visit member countries to assess economic and financial developments.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

Which of the following committee has been constituted by the Reserve Bank of India to look into bank frauds?

A AKMisraCommittee

B Nandkumar Saravade Committee

C YH.Malegam Committee

D SRaman Committee

Correct Answer: Option C

In 2018, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted an expert committee under the chairmanship of Y.H. Malegam, a former member of the Central Board of Directors of the RBI. The committee was specifically tasked with looking into the rising instances of bank frauds and the classification of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs).

Background and Purpose (UPSC Economy Perspective)

The committee was formed in the wake of several high-profile banking scams (notably the PNB-Nirav Modi case) to address systemic gaps in the Indian banking sector. Its primary objectives included:

Monitoring the divergence in NPA (Non-Performing Asset) estimation.

Identifying the causes of the increasing trend in bank frauds.

Suggesting measures to improve the audit process and internal checks within banks to prevent such occurrences.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

Which of the following received the Golden Ball award for best player at the 2018 FIFA World Cup?

A Kylian Mbappe

B Cristiano Ronaldo

C Thibaut Courtois

D Luka Modric

Correct Answer: Option D

While France won the 2018 FIFA World Cup in Russia, the Golden Ball (awarded to the tournament's best individual player) was given to Croatia's captain, Luka Modric, for his exceptional leadership and performance in taking his team to their first-ever World Cup final.

2018 FIFA World Cup Awards Summary

For competitive exams and general awareness, it is useful to distinguish between the different individual honors awarded at the end of the tournament:

Golden Ball (Best Player): Luka Modric (Croatia)

Golden Boot (Top Scorer): Harry Kane (England) – 6 goals

Golden Glove (Best Goalkeeper): Thibaut Courtois (Belgium)

Best Young Player: Kylian Mbappé (France)

FIFA Fair Play Trophy: Spain

UPSC & Sports (Current Affairs Perspective)

While the UPSC Civil Services Examination traditionally focused less on sports, there has been a noticeable shift since the 2021 Prelims, where specific questions on international sporting events (like the Laureus World Sports Awards and the ICC World Test Championship) were included.

Key areas to monitor for sports-related questions:

Awards with Global Significance: Recognition like the Golden Ball or Laureus Awards often reflects broader themes of sportsmanship or national achievement.

Terminology and Format: Understanding the structure of major tournaments (FIFA, Olympics, Chess Olympiads).

India’s Performance: Any significant Indian milestones in global sports (e.g., Neeraj Chopra’s gold in Athletics or India’s hosting of the G20-related sporting events).

Sports and Diplomacy: The use of sports in international relations (e.g., "Cricket Diplomacy" in South Asia).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

Which of the following has been voted the most influential woman in history as per the recent Readers of BBC History magazine poll?

A Marie Curie

B Margaret Thatcher

C Mother Teresa

D Indira Gandhi

Correct Answer: Option A

In a major poll conducted by BBC History Magazine to identify "100 Women Who Changed the World," readers voted the Nobel Prize-winning scientist Marie Curie as the most influential woman in history.

Context of the Poll

This poll was significant because it highlighted women's contributions across various fields including science, politics, and social activism.

Marie Curie: Ranked #1 for her pioneering research into radioactivity, her role in treating cancer, and for being the first person to win two Nobel Prizes (Physics and Chemistry).

Rosa Parks: Ranked #2 for her pivotal role in the American Civil Rights Movement.

Emmeline Pankhurst: Ranked #3 for leading the British suffragette movement.

Other Notable Rankings:

Margaret Thatcher (former UK PM) was ranked 6th.

Mother Teresa was placed 20th.

Indira Gandhi (former Indian PM) was ranked 49th.

Key Takeaways for Competitive Exams

Science & Innovation: Marie Curie is the only person to win Nobel Prizes in two different scientific fields. She also coined the term "radioactivity."

Social Impact: The high ranking of figures like Rosa Parks and Emmeline Pankhurst reflects the historical importance of the fight for equality and voting rights (Suffrage).

Recent Trends: UPSC often asks questions about prominent historical figures or international recognitions that highlight socio-political or scientific milestones. Understanding why Curie remains "influential" (e.g., her work in mobile X-ray units during WWI) provides the depth required for Mains or Interview stages.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

Out of following, which of the altitudes in the‘ atmosphere would have the maximum concentration of Ozone?

A 5 to 10km

B 10 to 15km

C 25 t0 30km

D 40 to 45km

Correct Answer: Option C

While ozone is present throughout the stratosphere, its highest concentration (the "Ozone Layer") is typically found between 20 km and 35 km above the Earth's surface. In the context of the options provided, 25 to 30 km represents the peak density of this gas.

The Stratosphere (The Home of "Good" Ozone): About 90% of the Earth's ozone is found here. It acts as a biological shield by absorbing harmful Ultraviolet (UV-B and UV-C) radiation from the sun. Without this layer, life on Earth would face high rates of skin cancer, cataracts, and damaged ecosystems.

The Troposphere (The Home of "Bad" Ozone): The remaining 10% of ozone is found near the ground. Here, it is considered a pollutant and a key component of photochemical smog, formed by the reaction of sunlight with Nitrogen Oxides (NO_x) and Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

Blue Baby Syndrome is associated with which type of poisoning?

A Mercury

B Nitrate

C Cadmium

D Methane

Correct Answer: Option B

Blue Baby Syndrome, medically known as methemoglobinemia, occurs when nitrates in drinking water (often from fertilizer runoff or sewage) are converted into nitrites in the body. These nitrites interfere with the blood's ability to carry oxygen, leading to a bluish tint on the skin, particularly in infants.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

In Himalayas, permanent vegetation is not generally found above _____m altitude

A 4250

B 4350

C 4600

D 3960

Correct Answer: Option C

In the context of the Himalayas and the standard classifications used for the UPSC Civil Services Examination, the permanent vegetation line (often referred to as the snow line or the upper limit of the alpine zone) typically concludes around 4500 to 4600 meters.

Vertical Stratification of Himalayan Vegetation

As altitude increases, the temperature and oxygen levels drop, leading to distinct "belts" of vegetation:

Tropical/Sub-tropical (Up to 1500m): Characterized by Sal, Teak, and bamboo forests.

Temperate (1500m – 3000m): Dominated by Broad-leaved evergreen species like Oak and Chestnut, followed by conifers like Deodar, Pine, and Silver Fir.

Sub-Alpine (3000m – 3500m): Transition zone where trees like Birch (Bhojpatra) and Rhododendrons are common.

Alpine (3500m – 4500m): Only shrubs, mosses, lichens, and alpine pastures (Margs/Bugyals) exist here.

Snow Line (Above 4500m – 4600m): Beyond this altitude, the terrain is characterized by permanent snow and permafrost, making it impossible for permanent vegetation to survive.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology

Which of the following is/are the correct statement/ statements in case of a sea level rise due to global warming

A There will be an increase in bicarbonate content of well water in coastal areas

B There will be an increase in sodium content of well water in coastal areas

C There will be an increase in potassium content of well water in coastal areas

D There will be an increase in nitrate content of well water in coastal areas

Correct Answer: Option B

Explanation: Saltwater Intrusion

When sea levels rise due to global warming, the pressure from the ocean forces saltwater to move further inland into freshwater aquifers. This process is known as saltwater intrusion.

Why Sodium? Seawater is primarily composed of sodium chloride (NaCl). As the seawater mixes with the groundwater in coastal wells, the concentration of sodium and chloride ions increases significantly, making the water "brackish" or salty and unfit for drinking or agriculture.

Why not the others? While seawater contains other minerals, the most immediate and measurable chemical change in groundwater quality during sea-level rise is the spike in salinity (sodium).

Bicarbonates (A) are usually associated with the weathering of rocks or carbon dioxide dissolution.

Potassium (C) is present in seawater but in much lower concentrations than sodium.

Nitrates (D) are typically the result of agricultural runoff (fertilizers) or sewage contamination, not direct seawater intrusion.

Impact

This is a major concern for coastal communities because it leads to the loss of potable water sources and can degrade the soil quality for local farmers, as high sodium levels are toxic to many crops.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

The region lying between Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn is called

A Torrid zone

B Horse latitudes

C Subtropical zone

D All of the above

Correct Answer: Option A

Understanding the Heat Zones

The Earth is divided into different latitudinal zones based on the amount of solar radiation received:

Torrid Zone: This is the region between the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S). The sun is overhead at least once a year in this area, making it the hottest part of the Earth.

Horse Latitudes: These are not a "zone" between the tropics, but rather specific subtropical latitudes located between 30° and 35° both North and South. They are characterized by high pressure, calm winds, and little precipitation.

Subtropical Zone: This generally refers to the areas immediately north of the Tropic of Cancer and south of the Tropic of Capricorn (roughly between 23.5° and 35° or 40° latitude).

Why it is called "Torrid"

The word "Torrid" means parched or scorched. Because the sun’s rays fall vertically on this region, it receives the maximum heat throughout the year compared to the Temperate or Frigid zones.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Which planet experiences a day almost of the same duration as that of the Earth?

A Mars

B Saturn

C Venus

D Jupiter

Correct Answer: Option A

Because their rotation periods and axial tilts are so similar (Earth is at 23.5° and Mars is at 25°), Mars experiences seasonal cycles and day-night patterns that are remarkably similar to those on Earth. A day on Mars is often referred to by astronomers and space agencies as a "Sol."

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy

The second largest employment provider in India is

A Agriculture, mining and quarrying

B Manufacturing

C Real estate and construction

D Information technology and related services

Correct Answer: Option B

Sector-wise Breakdown

While Agriculture remains the largest employer in India (employing nearly 45% of the workforce), the secondary and tertiary sectors compete for the remaining share. According to recent Periodic Labour Force Surveys (PLFS) and economic data:

Agriculture (A): Remains the primary employer, though its share of the GDP is lower than that of the services sector.

Manufacturing (B): Traditionally stands as the second-largest employer. It is a critical sector for absorbing surplus labor from agriculture, particularly in textiles, food processing, and metals.

Real Estate and Construction (C): This is a very close contender and is often cited as the second-largest employer in specific quarterly reports, particularly for unskilled and semi-skilled labor. However, in the broad classification of economic sectors, Manufacturing is generally ranked second.

IT and Related Services (D): While this sector contributes significantly to India's GDP and global reputation, it is a relatively small employer in terms of total volume compared to the millions employed in factories or on construction sites.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography Polity

Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, a centrally sponsored scheme has been implemented in partnership with the State Governments. Consider the following statements.

1. It makes provision for building school infrastructure

2. It provides periodic training to teachers and resource support

3. It helps to maintain appropriate pupil teacher ratio at the secondary education level ‘

Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?

A l only

B 1and 2only

C 2 and 3only

D 1 and 3only

Correct Answer: Option B

Here is a breakdown of the statements:

Statement 1 is correct: The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan includes substantial provisions for strengthening existing school infrastructure. This involves constructing new schools, adding classrooms, and building essential facilities like drinking water stations and toilets.

Statement 2 is correct: A major component of the scheme is improving the quality of education. It achieves this by providing extensive academic resource support and periodic in-service training to teachers to enhance their skills.

Statement 3 is incorrect: This is the catch in the question. The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is exclusively aimed at the universalization of elementary education (typically covering classes one to eight, for children aged six to fourteen years). It does not deal with secondary education. Maintaining the pupil teacher ratio at the secondary level was previously the focus of the Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Indian Statutory Commission was also known as

A Cripps Mission

B Simon Commission

C Minto-Morley Reforms

D Montague-Chelmsford Reforms

Correct Answer: Option B

The Indian Statutory Commission was appointed in 1927 (arriving in India in 1928) to study the implementation of the Government of India Act 1919 and suggest further constitutional reforms.

Simon Commission (B): It was popularly known by this name because it was headed by Sir John Simon. The commission faced widespread protests and the slogan "Simon Go Back" because it did not include a single Indian member.

Cripps Mission (A): This was a 1942 initiative by the British government to secure full Indian cooperation for World War II, led by Sir Stafford Cripps.

Minto-Morley Reforms (C): As discussed previously, this refers to the Indian Councils Act of 1909.

Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (D): This refers to the Government of India Act 1919, which the Simon Commission was eventually sent to review.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History

Minto-Morley reforms of 1909 proposed

A Elections of Indians to various Legislative Councils

B Introduced the system of Municipalities and Village Panchayats

C Both(A)and(B)

D None of the above

Correct Answer: Option A

The Indian Councils Act of 1909, commonly known as the Minto-Morley Reforms, marked a significant step in the constitutional history of India. Its primary focus was to increase the involvement of Indians in the governance of the country.

Expansion of Councils (A): The Act considerably increased the size of the Legislative Councils at both the Central and Provincial levels. Crucially, it introduced the election of Indians to these councils, although the franchise was extremely limited and based on property and education.

Separate Electorates: One of the most critical and controversial features of this Act was the introduction of separate electorates for Muslims, which laid the foundation for communal representation in Indian politics.

Municipalities and Panchayats (B): This was not the primary proposal of the 1909 Act. Local self-government was largely championed earlier by Lord Ripon’s Resolution of 1882 and later further institutionalized by the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (1919).

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Theintrusive volcanic landform formed when lava cools in the shape of a saucer place is called as :

A Laccolith

B Crater

C sills

D Dykes

Correct Answer: Option A

While the question describes the shape of a "saucer," there is a slight technical distinction in geological terminology. Here is the breakdown of intrusive landforms:

Laccolith (A): These are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies with a level base and a convex top, often described as mushroom-shaped or resembling a saucer (specifically when referring to a Lopolith, which is the true saucer-shaped landform). In many general examinations, Laccolith is used as the representative term for these large lens-shaped intrusions.

Crater (B): This is an extrusive feature; it is the bowl-shaped depression at the top of a volcano.

Sills (C): These are horizontal, sheet-like intrusions that solidify parallel to the bedding planes of the rock.

Dykes (D): These are vertical or wall-like intrusions that cut across the bedding planes of the rock.

Note: Strictly speaking, a Lopolith is the specific term for a saucer-shaped intrusion (concave upward), while a Laccolith is more dome-shaped (convex upward). However, within the provided options, Laccolith is the intended answer for large, shaped plutonic bodies.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

The first multi-purpose river valley project completed in India is :

A Periyar

B Bhakra-Nangal

C Hirakund

D Damodar

Correct Answer: Option D

Explanation

The Damodar Valley Project, managed by the Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC), was the first multipurpose river valley project of independent India. It was established on July 7, 1948, based on the model of the Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA) in the United States.

Damodar (D): Designed to control flooding in the Damodar River (once known as the "Sorrow of Bengal"), provide irrigation, and generate hydroelectric power in West Bengal and Bihar (now Jharkhand).

Bhakra-Nangal (B): While it is one of the largest and most famous projects, its construction began later and it was dedicated to the nation in 1963.

Hirakud (C): Located on the Mahanadi River in Odisha, it was also one of the first major projects but was formally inaugurated in 1957.

Periyar (A): The Mullaperiyar Dam is much older (completed in 1895), but it does not hold the title of the first modern multipurpose project of independent India.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography

Which is the largest cold desert of the world?

A Atacama

B Takla Makan

C Gobi

D Turkestan

Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation

While the Antarctic and Arctic deserts are technically the largest cold deserts by the broadest definition (polar deserts), among the options provided, the Gobi Desert is the largest.

Gobi Desert (C): Spanning parts of northern and northwestern China and southern Mongolia, it is a vast cold desert known for its extreme temperature fluctuations and high-altitude plateau.

Atacama (A): Located in South America, it is primarily known as the driest non-polar place on Earth; it is a "cool" coastal desert but not the largest cold desert.

Takla Makan (B): Located in China, it is a large cold desert but is significantly smaller in area than the Gobi.

Turkestan (D): This refers to a region in Central Asia that contains several deserts (like the Kyzylkum), but it is not a single desert larger than the Gobi.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography J&K

Which one of the following is the high altitude Commercial Airport

A Kushok Bakyla

B Sheikhul Alam

C Kargil

D Sonam Wangchuk

Correct Answer: Option A

Located in Leh, Ladakh, the Kushok Bakula Rimpochee Airport is one of the highest commercial airports in the world, situated at an elevation of approximately 3,256 meters (10,682 feet) above mean sea level.

Sheikh ul-Alam International Airport (B): Located in Srinagar at an elevation of about 1,629 meters.

Kargil (C): While Kargil has an airfield at a high altitude, it is primarily used by the military and has limited or non-regular commercial operations compared to Leh.

Sonam Wangchuk (D): This is the name of a famous engineer and innovator from Ladakh, but there is no commercial airport named after him.

Due to the high altitude and thin air, flights at Leh airport typically operate only in the morning to avoid the strong mountain winds that develop later in the day.

2018 Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography J&K

Which of the following combination of districts constitutes Chenab Valley Settlement Division of the “Survey and Land Records™

A Kishtwar, Anantnag and Kulgam

B Ramban, Udhampur and Doda

C Doda, Kishtwar and Ramban

D Kishtwar, Anantnag and Doda

Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation

The Survey and Land Records department in Jammu and Kashmir organizes administrative units into specific divisions for the purpose of land settlement and record maintenance. The Chenab Valley Settlement Division is geographically and administratively centered around the Chenab River basin, covering the three hilly districts of the erstwhile Doda district:

Doda

Kishtwar

Ramban

JKPSC JKAS Prelims 2018 Previous Year Questions

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