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JKSSB Laboratory Attendant 2026 Previous Year Questions

Practice authentic exam questions with answers and explanations

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2026
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Maths 26 questions

2026 Prelims Maths
The cost price of articles X and Y is the same. Article X is sold at 20% profit and article Y is sold for Rs. 126 less than the selling price of X. If the net profit by selling both the articles is 14%, then what is the cost price (in Rs.) of each article? 
A 1,260
B 840
C 1,080
D 1,050
Correct Answer: Option D
To find the cost price of each article, we can break the problem down by looking at how the total profit percentage relates to the individual sales.

Step 1: Understand the Total Profit
Both articles have the same cost price. Let's imagine the cost price of each article is represented as 100 units.

Cost price of Article X = 100 units

Cost price of Article Y = 100 units

Total cost price for both articles combined = 200 units

We are told that the overall net profit for selling both articles is 14 percent.

14 percent of the total 200 units is 28 units.

This means the total profit earned from selling both items must equal 28 units.

Step 2: Break Down the Profit per Article
Now let's look at how much profit each individual article contributed.

Article X is sold at a 20 percent profit, which means it contributes 20 units of profit.

Since the total profit from both articles is 28 units, Article Y must contribute the remaining profit.

Profit from Article Y = 28 units minus 20 units = 8 units.

Step 3: Find the Difference in Selling Prices
Now we compare the profit of Article X and Article Y to see the difference in their selling prices:

Article X profit = 20 units

Article Y profit = 8 units

Difference in profit = 20 units minus 8 units = 12 units

Since both articles started with the exact same cost price, the difference in their profits (12 units) is exactly equal to the difference in their selling prices.

Step 4: Calculate the Actual Cost Price
The problem states that Article Y is sold for 126 rupees less than Article X. This means our 12 units of difference is equal to 126 rupees.

To find the value of 1 unit:

1 unit = 126 divided by 12

1 unit = 10.5 rupees

Since we defined the cost price of each individual article as 100 units, we multiply the value of 1 unit by 100:

Cost price = 10.5 times 100

Cost price = 1050 rupees

Correct Answer:
D) 1,050

2026 Prelims Maths
X and Y are two numbers whose A.M. is 41 and GM. is 9. Which of the following may be a value of X?
A 125
B 81
C 49
D 25
Correct Answer: Option B
To find the value of X, we can use the definitions of the Arithmetic Mean (average) and the Geometric Mean.

Step 1: Use the Arithmetic Mean
The Arithmetic Mean of two numbers is found by adding them together and dividing by 2.

The average of X and Y is 41.

This means that X plus Y divided by 2 equals 41.

Multiplying 41 by 2 tells us that the sum of X and Y must equal 82.

Step 2: Use the Geometric Mean
The Geometric Mean of two numbers is found by multiplying them together and taking the square root of the result.

The Geometric Mean of X and Y is 9.

This means the square root of (X times Y) equals 9.

Squaring 9 tells us that X times Y must equal 81.

Step 3: Analyze the Options
We are looking for two numbers that add up to 82 and multiply together to equal 81.

Let's test the options for X to see which one fits this rule:

If X is 81, then Y must be 1 (since 81 plus 1 equals 82, and 81 times 1 equals 81).

Since 81 perfectly satisfies both conditions, it is a possible value for X.

Correct Answer:
B) 81
2026 Prelims Maths
. If the difference between the compound interest and simple interest at 17% on a sum of money for 2 years (compounded annually) is Rs. 433.50, then the sum (in Rs.) is: 
A 12,000
B 15,000
C 25,000
D 20,000
Correct Answer: Option B
To find the total sum of money, we can look at the basic difference between simple interest and compound interest over a two-year period.

Understanding the Difference
For the first year, both simple interest and compound interest are exactly the same.

In the second year, simple interest stays the same as the first year. However, compound interest charges interest on the principal amount plus interest on the interest earned during the first year.

Therefore, the entire difference between compound interest and simple interest after two years is simply the interest earned on the first year's interest.

Step-by-Step Calculation
1. Identify the relationship
The difference given is 433.50 rupees, and the interest rate is 17 percent. This means that 17 percent of the first year's interest is equal to 433.50 rupees.

2. Find the interest for the first year
To find the total interest for the first year, we divide 433.50 by 17 and then multiply by 100:

433.50 divided by 17 equals 25.50

25.50 multiplied by 100 equals 2550 rupees

So, the interest earned in the first year is 2550 rupees.

3. Find the original sum of money
Since the simple interest rate is 17 percent per year, the first year's interest (2550 rupees) is exactly 17 percent of the original total sum.

To find the original sum, we divide 2550 by 17 and then multiply by 100:

2550 divided by 17 equals 150

150 multiplied by 100 equals 15000 rupees

Correct Answer:
B) 15,000
2026 Prelims Maths
Shopkeeper bought 40 pieces of an article at a rate of Rs. 50 per item. He sold 35 pieces with 20% profit. The remaining 5 pieces were found to be damaged and he sold them with 10% loss. Find his overall profit percentage. 
A 30%
B 10%
C 16.25%
D 32.5%
Correct Answer: Option C
Step 1: Calculate the Total Cost Price
The shopkeeper bought 40 items, and each item cost 50 rupees.

Total Cost Price = 40 items times 50 rupees

Total Cost Price = 2000 rupees

Step 2: Calculate the Selling Price of the Good Items
He sold 35 items at a 20 percent profit.

First, find the profit on one item: 20 percent of 50 rupees is 10 rupees.

This means the selling price for each good item is 50 rupees plus 10 rupees, which equals 60 rupees.

Total Selling Price for these 35 items = 35 items times 60 rupees

Total Selling Price for good items = 2100 rupees

Step 3: Calculate the Selling Price of the Damaged Items
He sold the remaining 5 items at a 10 percent loss.

First, find the loss on one item: 10 percent of 50 rupees is 5 rupees.

This means the selling price for each damaged item is 50 rupees minus 5 rupees, which equals 45 rupees.

Total Selling Price for these 5 items = 5 items times 45 rupees

Total Selling Price for damaged items = 225 rupees

Step 4: Calculate the Overall Profit Percentage
Now, add the two selling prices together to find the total money he received:

Total Selling Price = 2100 rupees plus 225 rupees

Total Selling Price = 2325 rupees

Next, find the total profit by subtracting the total cost price from the total selling price:

Total Profit = 2325 rupees minus 2000 rupees

Total Profit = 325 rupees

Finally, find the profit percentage based on the original total cost price of 2000 rupees:

Profit Percentage = (325 divided by 2000) times 100

Profit Percentage = 32.5 divided by 2

Profit Percentage = 16.25 percent

Correct Answer:
C) 16.25%
2026 Prelims Maths
Two metallic right circular cones having their heights 3.8 cm and 4.6 cm and radii of their bases 2.1 cm each, have been melted together and recast into a sphere. The diameter (in cm) of the sphere is: 
A 4.2
B 1.4
C 3.5
D 6.3
Correct Answer: Option A
To find the diameter of the sphere, we can look at the total volume of the metal being melted and recast. When the two cones are melted together, their combined volume is exactly equal to the volume of the new sphere.

Step 1: Understand the Volume of the Cones
The volume of a cone is calculated as one-third times pi times the radius times the radius times the height.

Since both cones have the same base radius of 2.1 cm, we can combine their volumes by adding their heights together.

The height of the first cone is 3.8 cm.

The height of the second cone is 4.6 cm.

Adding the heights together gives 8.4 cm.

Now, we can find the total volume of both cones combined:

Total volume equals one-third times pi times 2.1 times 2.1 times 8.4.

Dividing 8.4 by 3 gives 2.8.

So, the total volume simplifies to pi times 2.1 times 2.1 times 2.8.

This works out to pi times 12.348 cubic cm.

Step 2: Find the Radius of the Sphere
The volume of a sphere is calculated as four-thirds times pi times the radius times the radius times the radius (the radius cubed).

Since the volume of the sphere is equal to the total volume of the cones:

Four-thirds times pi times the radius cubed equals pi times 12.348.

We can remove pi from both sides of the comparison:

Four-thirds times the radius cubed equals 12.348.

To find the radius cubed, we multiply 12.348 by 3 and then divide by 4:

Radius cubed equals 37.044 divided by 4.

Radius cubed equals 9.261.

To find the radius itself, we look for a number that, when multiplied by itself three times, equals 9.261.

The cube root of 9.261 is 2.1.

So, the radius of the sphere is 2.1 cm.

Step 3: Find the Diameter of the Sphere
The diameter of a sphere is always twice its radius.

Diameter equals 2.1 times 2.

Diameter equals 4.2 cm.

Correct Answer:
A) 4.2
2026 Prelims Maths
The sum of the height and radius of the base of a solid right circular cylinder is 46 cm. If the total surface area of the solid cylinder is 6072 cm², what is the volume (in cm³) of the cylinder? (take pi = 22/7 ) 
A 6072元
B 1085 π
C 3036 л
D 11025
Correct Answer: Option D
My apologies! Let's re-solve this completely using only plain words and standard numbers.

1. Find the Radius
The total surface area of a cylinder is found by multiplying 2 times pi, times the radius, times the combined sum of the radius and the height.

We already know:

The sum of the radius and height is 46 cm.

The total surface area is 6072 square cm.

Pi is 22/7.

Let's plug these into our rule:

6072 = 2 times (22/7) times the radius times 46.

6072 = (2024 / 7) times the radius.

To get the radius by itself, we multiply 6072 by 7 and then divide by 2024:

Radius = (6072 times 7) divided by 2024

Radius = 42504 divided by 2024

Radius = 21 cm

2. Find the Height
We know that the radius and the height added together equal 46 cm.

21 plus height = 46

Height = 46 minus 21

Height = 25 cm

3. Calculate the Volume
The volume of a cylinder is found by multiplying pi times the radius squared (radius times radius) times the height.

Volume = pi times 21 times 21 times 25

Volume = pi times 441 times 25

Volume = 11025 pi

Looking at the options provided, the number matching this result is 11025.

Correct Answer:
D) 11025
2026 Prelims Maths
If x and y are real numbers, then the minimum value of x ^ 2 + 4xy + 6y ^ 2 - 4y + 4 is 
A -4
C 2
D 4
Correct Answer: Option C
We can find the lowest possible value of this expression by reorganizing it into perfect squares. In the world of real numbers, any number multiplied by itself (squared) can never be negative; the absolute smallest value a squared group can ever have is zero.

Grouping the parts:
We can break apart the original expression and group the pieces together so that they form two separate squared terms, with a plain number left over at the end.

The first squared group:
We take the first variable squared, the part where the two variables are multiplied together, and a portion of the second variable squared. These blend perfectly into one large squared package.

The second squared group:
With the pieces of the second variable that remain, we can form a second, smaller squared package.

Finding the lowest total:
Once everything is rewritten, the entire expression becomes: the first squared package, plus the second squared package, plus the number two.

To make the total as small as possible, we want both of those squared packages to be at their absolute minimum. Since neither can drop below zero, the lowest they can possibly go is zero. When both packages shrink all the way down to zero, we are left only with that final independent number at the end, which is two.
2026 Prelims Maths
A right circular cone of largest volume is cut out from a solid wooden hemisphere. The remaining material is what percentage of the volume of the original hemisphere?  
A 33.33%
B 50%
C 75%
D 66.66%
Correct Answer: Option B
Imagine a solid wooden hemisphere, which looks like a bowl turned upside down.

To carve out the largest possible cone from this hemisphere, the circular base of the cone must perfectly match the flat bottom of the hemisphere. At the same time, the pointed tip of the cone must reach the exact top center of the hemisphere's curved surface.

Because of this setup:

The width of the cone matches the width of the hemisphere.

The height of the cone matches the height of the hemisphere.

According to the laws of geometry, a hemisphere of a certain height and width holds a specific amount of space. A cone with those exact same dimensions holds exactly half of that space.

Since the cone takes up exactly half of the original hemisphere's volume, the remaining wood left over after carving it out must also be exactly half.

Expressed as a percentage, half of the original material is fifty percent.
2026 Prelims Maths
Which one of the following is true? 
A sqrt(5) + sqrt(3) >sqrt(6) + sqrt(2)
B sqrt(5) + sqrt(3)
C sqrt(5) + sqrt(3) = sqrt(6) + sqrt(2)
D (sqrt(5) + sqrt(3))(sqrt(6) + sqrt(2)) = 1
Correct Answer: Option A
To find out which statement is true, we can compare the two main expressions by squaring them. Squaring positive numbers lets us compare their sizes easily without changing which one is bigger.

Squaring the first expression (the square root of five plus the square root of three):

When you square this combination, you add the two numbers inside the roots (five plus three, which equals eight).

Then, you add two times the square root of their product (five times three, which is fifteen).

This gives a total of: eight plus two times the square root of fifteen.

Squaring the second expression (the square root of six plus the square root of two):

When you square this combination, you also add the two numbers inside the roots (six plus two, which equals eight).

Then, you add two times the square root of their product (six times two, which is twelve).

This gives a total of: eight plus two times the square root of twelve.

Comparing the two results:

Both results start with the number eight.

Now we just compare the remaining parts: two times the square root of fifteen versus two times the square root of twelve.

Since fifteen is larger than twelve, the square root of fifteen is larger than the square root of twelve.

Therefore, the first result is larger than the second result.

Because the squared version of the first expression is larger, the original expression itself must also be larger. This means the square root of five plus the square root of three is greater than the square root of six plus the square root of two.
2026 Prelims Maths
Which one of the following is true? 
A sqrt(5) + sqrt(3) >sqrt(6) + sqrt(2)
B sqrt(5) + sqrt(3)
C sqrt(5) + sqrt(3) = sqrt(6) + sqrt(2)
D (sqrt(5) + sqrt(3))(sqrt(6) + sqrt(2)) = 1
Correct Answer: Option A
To find out which statement is true, we can compare the two main expressions by squaring them. Squaring positive numbers lets us compare their sizes easily without changing which one is bigger.

Squaring the first expression (the square root of five plus the square root of three):

When you square this combination, you add the two numbers inside the roots (five plus three, which equals eight).

Then, you add two times the square root of their product (five times three, which is fifteen).

This gives a total of: eight plus two times the square root of fifteen.

Squaring the second expression (the square root of six plus the square root of two):

When you square this combination, you also add the two numbers inside the roots (six plus two, which equals eight).

Then, you add two times the square root of their product (six times two, which is twelve).

This gives a total of: eight plus two times the square root of twelve.

Comparing the two results:

Both results start with the number eight.

Now we just compare the remaining parts: two times the square root of fifteen versus two times the square root of twelve.

Since fifteen is larger than twelve, the square root of fifteen is larger than the square root of twelve.

Therefore, the first result is larger than the second result.

Because the squared version of the first expression is larger, the original expression itself must also be larger. This means the square root of five plus the square root of three is greater than the square root of six plus the square root of two.
2026 Prelims Maths
The sum of the 3rd and the 4th term of an A.P. is 19 and that of the 1" and the 7 term is 22. Find the 9th term.
A 16
B 15
C 17
D 26
Correct Answer: Option D
An arithmetic progression is just a sequence of numbers where you add the same value (let's call it the "step size") to get from one number to the next.

Look at the clues given:

The sum of the third and fourth numbers in the list is 19.

The sum of the first and seventh numbers in the list is 22.

Find the step size:

If you write out the math in words, the combination of the first and seventh numbers contains the exact same starting values as the third and fourth numbers, but it includes one extra step size.

Because that second combination totals 22 instead of 19, that single extra step must be worth the difference between 22 and 19.

Therefore, the step size is 3.

Find the starting number:

Since we know the step size is 3, we can work backward. The combination that makes 19 is made of two copies of the starting number plus five steps.

Five steps of 3 equals 15.

To get from 15 to 19, we need 4 more. Since that 4 is shared equally between two copies of the starting number, the starting number must be 2.

Find the ninth number:

To get to the ninth number in the list, you start with your first number (2) and add the step size (3) eight times.

Eight steps of 3 equals 24.

Adding your starting number of 2 gives you a final answer of 26.
2026 Prelims Maths
Consider the following statement:

Statements:
All fruits are sweet.
All apples are fruits.
Conclusion:
All apples are sweet.
A True
B False
C Cannot be determined
D Invalid
Correct Answer: Option A
Breaking Down the Logic
Statement 1: "All fruits are sweet."
This means everything belonging to the "fruit" group is automatically included inside the larger "sweet" group.

Statement 2: "All apples are fruits."
This means every single apple belongs inside the "fruit" group.

The Conclusion
Because every apple is inside the fruit group, and the entire fruit group is inside the sweet group, it is completely guaranteed that every apple must also be sweet.

Therefore, the conclusion is logically sound and correct based only on the rules given in the prompt.

Correct Answer: A) True
2026 Prelims Maths
Two trains of lengths 120 m and 180 m are moving in opposite directions at 54 km/h and 72 km/h respectively. How long will they take to cross each other?
A 12 sec
B 9 sec
C 15 sec
D 20 sec
Correct Answer: Option B
1. Find the total distance to cover
When two trains pass each other, they have to clear the combined length of both trains.

First train: 120 meters

Second train: 180 meters

Combined distance: 120 + 180 = 300 meters

2. Find their combined speed
Because the trains are driving toward each other, they close the gap much faster than a single train moving alone. To find their combined speed, we add their speeds together.

54 km/h + 72 km/h = 126 km/h

3. Change the speed to meters per second
Since our train lengths are measured in meters, we need to know how many meters the trains cover every second instead of every hour.

To convert 126 km/h into meters per second, you divide it by 3.6.

126 divided by 3.6 = 35 meters per second

4. Calculate the time
Now we know the trains need to cover a total of 300 meters, and they travel at a combined pace of 35 meters every single second.

300 meters divided by 35 meters per second equals roughly 8.57 seconds.

Rounding 8.57 seconds to the nearest whole option gives us 9 seconds.
2026 Prelims Maths
If a man increases his speed by 25%, he takes 1 hour less to cover a certain distance. What was the original time?
A 3 hours
B 4 hours
C 5 hours
D 6 hours
Correct Answer: Option C
Step-by-Step Explanation:

To solve this, we look at the relationship between speed and time when the distance stays the same. Speed and time are inversely related; if you go faster, it takes less time.

Step 1: Understand the speed increase
The man increases his speed by twenty-five percent. If we think of his original speed as one hundred percent, his new speed is one hundred and twenty-five percent. In terms of ratios, the new speed is five-fourths of the original speed.

Step 2: Find the time ratio
Because speed and time are opposites, if the speed becomes five-fourths of the original, the time taken must become four-fifths of the original time.

Step 3: Calculate the difference
The new time is four-fifths of the original time, which means he saves one-fifth of his original time.

The problem states that this time saved is exactly one hour. Therefore, one-fifth of the original time equals one hour.

Step 4: Find the original time
If one-fifth of the time is one hour, then the total original time must be five times that amount, which gives us five hours.
2026 Prelims Maths
A car covers a distance at 50 km/h and returns at 40 km/h. What is the average speed for the whole journey?
A 44.4 km/h
B 46.4 km/h
C 46.8 km/h
D 48.6 km/h
Correct Answer: Option A
To find the average speed when the distance traveled going and returning is exactly the same, you cannot simply find the standard average of the two speeds. Instead, you follow a specific method: you multiply two by the first speed, multiply that by the second speed, and then divide that entire total by the sum of the two speeds combined.

First, multiply two by fifty, which gives one hundred.
Next, multiply one hundred by forty, which gives four thousand.
After that, add the two speeds of fifty and forty together, which gives ninety.
Finally, divide four thousand by ninety, which results in forty-four point forty-four repeating.

When rounded to one decimal place, the average speed for the whole journey is forty-four point four kilometers per hour.
2026 Prelims Maths
Complete the Number Series: 5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ?
A 189
B 191
C 187
D 193
Correct Answer: Option B
The correct answer is option B.

To find the next number in the series, we can look at the pattern between the consecutive numbers.

Each number is found by doubling the previous number and then adding one.

Five doubled is ten, and adding one gives eleven.
Eleven doubled is twenty two, and adding one gives twenty three.
Twenty three doubled is forty six, and adding one gives forty seven.
Forty seven doubled is ninety four, and adding one gives ninety five.

To find the next number, we follow the exact same pattern:
Ninety five doubled is one hundred ninety, and adding one gives one hundred ninety one.

So, the missing number is one hundred ninety one, which matches option B.
2026 Prelims Maths
A dice is thrown once. Find the probability that 3 or greater than 3 turns up.
A 1/2
B 1/3
C 1/4
D 2/3
Correct Answer: Option D
When a standard six-sided die is thrown, there are six possible outcomes in total: one, two, three, four, five, and six.

The outcomes that are three or greater than three are three, four, five, and six. This means there are four favorable outcomes.

To find the probability, you divide the number of favorable outcomes by the total number of possible outcomes. This gives four out of six, which simplifies to two thirds.

Therefore, the probability is two thirds, which corresponds to option D.
2026 Prelims Maths
The length breadth and height of a rectangular box are in the ratio 3: 2:4, respectively, and the cost of covering it with a sheet of paper at the rate of Rs. 1.50 per square metre is Rs. 1,950. Find 50% of the volume of the box (in m³).
A 1500
B 1750
C 1800
D 1600
Correct Answer: Option A
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
Find the Total Surface Area:
The total cost to cover the box with paper is Rs. 1,950, and the rate is Rs. 1.50 per square meter.
To find the total surface area, we divide the total cost by the rate per square meter:

1,950 divided by 1.50 equals 1,300 square meters.

Set up the Dimensions using the Ratio:
The length, breadth, and height are in the ratio 3 to 2 to 4.
Let's define a common multiplier, which we will call "x".

Length = 3 times x

Breadth = 2 times x

Height = 4 times x

Use the Surface Area Formula:
The total surface area of a rectangular box is calculated by finding the area of all six faces: 2 times the sum of (length times breadth plus breadth times height plus length times height).

Length times Breadth = (3 times x) multiplied by (2 times x) = 6 times x-squared

Breadth times Height = (2 times x) multiplied by (4 times x) = 8 times x-squared

Length times Height = (3 times x) multiplied by (4 times x) = 12 times x-squared

Summing these up: 6 plus 8 plus 12 equals 26 times x-squared.
Multiplying by 2 for all six faces: 2 multiplied by 26 times x-squared equals 52 times x-squared.

Solve for the Multiplier (x):
We know the total surface area is 1,300 square meters:

52 times x-squared equals 1,300

x-squared equals 1,300 divided by 52, which equals 25

Since 5 multiplied by 5 is 25, our multiplier "x" is 5.

Calculate the Actual Dimensions:

Length = 3 multiplied by 5 = 15 meters

Breadth = 2 multiplied by 5 = 10 meters

Height = 4 multiplied by 5 = 20 meters

Find 50% of the Volume:

The total volume is length multiplied by breadth multiplied by height: 15 multiplied by 10 multiplied by 20 = 3,000 cubic meters.

We need to find 50 percent of this volume: 50 percent of 3,000 is 1,500 cubic meters.
2026 Prelims Maths
The compound interest (compounding annually) on a certain sum at the rate of 8 percent per annum for two years is Rs. 6656. What would be the simple interest on the same sum at the same rate of interest for two years?
A Rs. 6224
B Rs. 6400
C Rs. 5600
D Rs. 6336
Correct Answer: Option B
Step-by-Step Breakdown:

Understand Compound Interest for Two Years:
Simple interest remains the same every year because it is only calculated on the original principal amount. Compound interest, however, includes interest earned on the first year's interest.

If the annual rate is 8 percent:

First Year: You get 8 percent of the principal.

Second Year: You get another 8 percent of the principal, plus 8 percent of the first year's interest.

8 percent of 8 percent is 0.64 percent.

Therefore, the total compound interest rate over two years is 8 percent plus 8 percent plus 0.64 percent, which equals 16.64 percent of the principal sum.

Understand Simple Interest for Two Years:
Simple interest for two years is just the annual rate multiplied by two.

8 percent plus 8 percent equals 16 percent of the principal sum.

Relate the Two Values:
We are given that the total compound interest (16.64 percent) is equal to Rs. 6656.

To find what 1 percent of the principal sum is, we divide the total interest by 16.64:

6656 divided by 16.64 equals 400.

So, 1 percent of the sum is equal to Rs. 400.

Calculate the Simple Interest:
Since the simple interest over two years is 16 percent, we simply multiply the value of 1 percent by 16:

400 multiplied by 16 equals Rs. 6400.
2026 Prelims Maths
A right circular cone is exactly fitted inside a cube in such a way that the edges of the base of the cone are touching the edges of one of the faces of the cube and the vertex is on the opposite face of the cube. If the volume of the cube is 343 cc, what approximately is the volume of the cone?
A 70 cc
B 80 cc
C 90 cc
D 60 cc
Correct Answer: Option C
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
Find the dimensions of the cube:
The volume of a cube is calculated by cubing its side length. We are given that the volume is 343 cubic centimeters.
Since 7 multiplied by 7 multiplied by 7 equals 343, the side length of the cube is exactly 7 centimeters.

Relate the cube to the cone:

Height of the cone: The vertex of the cone touches the opposite face of the cube, meaning the height of the cone is equal to the side length of the cube. So, the height is 7 centimeters.

Diameter of the cone's base: The base of the cone touches the edges of one face of the cube perfectly. This means the diameter of the circular base is also equal to the side length of the cube, which is 7 centimeters.

Radius of the cone's base: The radius is half of the diameter, which is 7 divided by 2, or 3.5 centimeters.

Calculate the volume of the cone:
The formula for the volume of a cone is one-third multiplied by pi multiplied by the radius squared multiplied by the height.

Let's use 22 divided by 7 as an approximate value for pi.

The radius squared is 3.5 multiplied by 3.5, which equals 12.25.

Now, multiply the parts together: one-third multiplied by (22 divided by 7) multiplied by 12.25 multiplied by 7.

The 7 in the numerator and the 7 in the denominator cancel each other out.

This leaves us with: one-third multiplied by 22 multiplied by 12.25.

22 multiplied by 12.25 equals 269.5.

Finally, divide 269.5 by 3, which equals approximately 89.83 cubic centimeters.

Match with the options:
Rounding 89.83 cubic centimeters to the nearest whole number gives us 90 cubic centimeters.
2026 Prelims Maths
A man ordered 4 pairs of black socks and some pairs of brown socks. The price of a black socks is double that of a brown pair. While preparing the bill the clerk interchanged the number of black and brown Pairs by mistake which increased the bill by 50%. The ratio of the number of black and brown pairs of socks in the original order was:
A 2:1
B 1:4
C 1:2
D 4:1
Correct Answer: Option B
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
Set Up the Prices:
We are told that the price of a black pair of socks is double that of a brown pair.
Let's assume the price of a brown pair is 1 unit. This means the price of a black pair is 2 units.

Understand the Quantities:
The original order contains 4 pairs of black socks. Let the unknown number of brown socks be represented by the word "Brown".

Calculate the Original Bill:

4 pairs of black socks at 2 units each equals 8 units.

"Brown" pairs of brown socks at 1 unit each equals "Brown" units.

Total Original Bill = 8 plus "Brown".

Calculate the Mistaken Bill:
The clerk interchanged the quantities by mistake. Now, there are "Brown" pairs of black socks and 4 pairs of brown socks.

"Brown" pairs of black socks at 2 units each equals 2 times "Brown" units.

4 pairs of brown socks at 1 unit each equals 4 units.

Total Mistaken Bill = 4 plus 2 times "Brown".

Apply the 50% Increase Condition:
We are told that this mistake increased the bill by 50 percent. This means the mistaken bill is 1.5 times (or 3 divided by 2 times) the original bill.

Let's set up the relationship:

Mistaken Bill = 1.5 times the Original Bill

4 plus 2 times "Brown" = 1.5 times (8 plus "Brown")

4 plus 2 times "Brown" = 12 plus 1.5 times "Brown"

Solve for the Number of Brown Socks:

Subtract 1.5 times "Brown" from both sides: 0.5 times "Brown" plus 4 = 12.

Subtract 4 from both sides: 0.5 times "Brown" = 8.

If half of the brown pairs equals 8, then the total number of brown pairs must be 16.

Find the Original Ratio:
The original order had 4 pairs of black socks and 16 pairs of brown socks.

The ratio of black to brown is 4 to 16.

Simplifying this by dividing both numbers by 4 gives a ratio of 1 to 4.
2026 Prelims Maths
It is decided that a loan of 10,000 will be paid off at the rate of 800 per month in 15 equal instalments. Find out the rate of return on investment.
A 16% P.a.
B 18% P.a.
C 15% P.a.
D 17% P.a.
Correct Answer: Option A
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
Calculate the Total Amount Paid:
The loan is paid back in 15 equal monthly instalments of 800 each.
Total amount repaid = 15 multiplied by 800 = 12,000.

Calculate the Total Interest Charged:
The total interest is the difference between the total amount repaid and the original loan amount.
Total interest = 12,000 minus 10,000 = 2,000.

Determine the Average Time Period:
Since the loan is repaid in regular monthly instalments, the principal amount reduces every month. To find the annual interest rate, we use the average time the money was borrowed.
The formula for the average time of a reducing balance loan paid in monthly instalments is:
(Total number of instalments plus 1) divided by 2.
Average months = (15 plus 1) divided by 2 = 16 divided by 2 = 8 months.

Convert Time to Years:
Since interest rates are annual (per annum), we convert 8 months into years:
8 divided by 12 = 2 thirds of a year (or approximately 0.667 years).

Calculate the Annual Rate of Return:
Now, we find the annual rate by dividing the total interest by the product of the principal loan amount and the time in years.

Principal multiplied by Time = 10,000 multiplied by (8 divided by 12) = 80,000 divided by 12 = 6,666.67.

Now divide the total interest by this value: 2,000 divided by 6,666.67 = 0.30.

However, because this is an instalment-based flat approximation for a reducing balance, the exact flat rate on the average principal is:

Interest per year = (Total interest divided by Total months) multiplied by 12

Interest per year = (2,000 divided by 15) multiplied by 12 = 1,600.

Rate = (Interest per year divided by original loan amount) multiplied by 100

Rate = (1,600 divided by 10,000) multiplied by 100 = 16 percent.
2026 Prelims Maths
In a medical transaction, 17 times the cost price is equal to 8 times the sum of the cost price and the selling price. What is the gain or loss percentage?
A Loss 15%
B Gain 17.5%
C Gain 12.5%
D Loss 30%
Correct Answer: Option C
Step-by-step Breakdown:
Understand the given statement:
We are told that 17 times the cost price is equal to 8 times the sum of the cost price and the selling price.

Expand the relationship:
If we multiply out the second part of the statement, 8 times the sum of the cost price and selling price is the same as:
8 times the cost price plus 8 times the selling price.

Group like terms together:
Now we know that:
17 times the cost price is equal to 8 times the cost price plus 8 times the selling price.

If we subtract 8 times the cost price from both sides, we get:
9 times the cost price is equal to 8 times the selling price.

Find the ratio of Selling Price to Cost Price:
From this, the ratio of the selling price to the cost price is 9 divided by 8.

This means if the cost price is 8 units, the selling price is 9 units. Since the selling price is higher than the cost price, it is a gain.

Calculate the gain percentage:

The profit made is 1 unit (9 units minus 8 units).

To find the gain percentage, we divide the profit by the cost price and multiply by 100:

1 divided by 8 is 0.125.

Multiplying 0.125 by 100 gives 12.5 percent.
2026 Prelims Maths
A sphere is placed in a cube so that it touches all the faces of the cube. If 'a' is the ratio of the volume of the cube to the volume of the sphere and 'b' is the ratio of the surface area of the sphere to the surface area of the cube, then the value of 'ab' is:
A π²/30
B 4
C 36/π²
D 1
Correct Answer: Option D
Step-by-Step Breakdown:
Relating the Dimensions:
Let the side length of the cube be x.
Since the sphere perfectly touches all faces of the cube, the diameter of the sphere is equal to the side length of the cube (x). Therefore, the radius of the sphere is half of the side length, which is x divided by 2.

Finding Ratio 'a' (Volume of Cube to Volume of Sphere):

The volume of a cube is calculated by cubing its side length: x cubed.

The volume of a sphere is four-thirds times pi times the radius cubed. Substituting the radius (x divided by 2), the radius cubed becomes x cubed divided by 8.

Multiplying four-thirds by x cubed divided by 8 simplifies the sphere's volume to: pi times x cubed divided by 6.

Now, we find ratio 'a' by dividing the cube's volume by the sphere's volume: x cubed divided by (pi times x cubed divided by 6). The x cubed terms cancel each other out, leaving 'a' equal to 6 divided by pi.

Finding Ratio 'b' (Surface Area of Sphere to Surface Area of Cube):

The surface area of a sphere is 4 times pi times the radius squared. Substituting the radius (x divided by 2), the radius squared becomes x squared divided by 4. Multiplying this by 4 times pi gives a sphere surface area of: pi times x squared.

The surface area of a cube is 6 times the area of one face: 6 times x squared.

Now, we find ratio 'b' by dividing the sphere's surface area by the cube's surface area: (pi times x squared) divided by (6 times x squared). The x squared terms cancel each other out, leaving 'b' equal to pi divided by 6.

Calculating the Value of 'ab':
To find 'ab', we multiply the two ratios together:

'ab' equals (6 divided by pi) times (pi divided by 6).

Notice that the 6 in the numerator cancels out the 6 in the denominator, and the pi in the numerator cancels out the pi in the denominator.

This leaves us with a final result of 1.
2026 Prelims Maths
A card is drawn at random from a pack of 100 cards numbered 1 to 100. The probability of drawing a number which is a square, is
A 1/10
B 1/100
C 9/10
D 90/100
Correct Answer: Option A
To find the probability of drawing a perfect square, we can look at the total number of cards and the number of perfect squares within that range.

Step-by-step Explanation:
Total Outcomes: There are 100 cards in total, numbered from 1 to 100. So, the total number of possible outcomes is 100.

Favorable Outcomes: We need to count how many numbers between 1 and 100 are perfect squares (numbers that result from multiplying an integer by itself). These numbers are:

1 times 1 is 1

2 times 2 is 4

3 times 3 is 9

4 times 4 is 16

5 times 5 is 25

6 times 6 is 36

7 times 7 is 49

8 times 8 is 64

9 times 9 is 81

10 times 10 is 100

Counting them up, there are exactly 10 perfect squares from 1 to 100.

Calculate Probability: Probability is calculated by dividing the number of favorable outcomes by the total number of outcomes.

This gives 10 out of 100 (10/100).

Simplifying this fraction by dividing both numbers by 10 gives 1 out of 10 (1/10).
2026 Prelims Maths
A T.V. is sold at 8% gain. Had it been sold for Rs. 2553 less: there would have been loss of 15%. To gain 18% the selling price (in Rs.) of T.V. would be:
A 11100
B 13098
C 15000
D 9102
Correct Answer: Option B
Step-by-step Breakdown:
Understand the percentage gap: Initially, the TV is sold at an 8% profit. If the price is dropped, it results in a 15% loss.
The total difference between an 8% profit and a 15% loss is:
8% + 15% = 23% of the cost price.

Find the Cost Price (CP):
We know that this 23% difference is equal to Rs. 2553.
To find 1% of the cost price, divide 2553 by 23:
2553 / 23 = 111

So, 1% of the cost price is Rs. 111.
Therefore, the full Cost Price (100%) is:
111 * 100 = Rs. 11100.

Calculate the new Selling Price for an 18% gain:
To make an 18% profit, the TV needs to be sold at 118% of its cost price.
Since we know 1% is Rs. 111, we just multiply that by 118:
118 * 111 = Rs. 13098.

Correct Answer: B) 13098

English 16 questions

2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select 'No substitution required". "Can you give me so many examples of subordinate clauses?", the teacher asked the class.  
A some more examples of
B some few examples of
C some many examples of
D No substitution required
Correct Answer: Option A
Here is why:
The original phrase "so many examples" sounds like a statement about an excessive amount rather than a natural request for a few instances.

"Some more examples of" is the most natural and grammatically correct way for a teacher to ask students to provide additional illustrations of a concept.

"Some many" and "some few" are grammatically incorrect combinations in English.

The correctly substituted sentence reads:

"Can you give me some more examples of subordinate clauses?", the teacher asked the class.
2026 Prelims English
Which word has a spelling mistake? 
A Convalescence
B Conflagaration
C Obsequious
D Reticent
Correct Answer: Option B
The correct spelling is Conflagration (without the extra 'a' after the 'g'). A conflagration is a large, destructive fire.

Here is a quick look at the other words, which are all spelled correctly:

Convalescence: The period of recovery after an illness or medical treatment.

Obsequious: Obedient or attentive to an excessive or servile degree.

Reticent: Not revealing one's thoughts or feelings readily.
2026 Prelims English
Identify the correct type of pronoun in the following sentence. 
 I enjoyed myself during the holidays. Here, Myself is a 
A demonstrative pronoun
B distributive
C possessive
D reflexive
Correct Answer: Option D
Here is why:

Reflexive pronouns (like myself, himself, ourselves) are used when the person performing the action is also the person receiving the action. In this sentence, "I" performed the action, and "myself" received it.

A quick breakdown of why the others don't fit:

Demonstrative pronouns point to specific things (this, that, these, those).

Possessive pronouns show ownership (mine, yours, his, hers).

Distributive pronouns refer to members of a group individually (each, either, neither).
2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

Despite the reach their destination. challenges faced during the expedition, the team managed to 
A formidable
B negligible
C trivial
D insignificant
Correct Answer: Option A
Here is why:
The sentence uses the word "Despite," which sets up a contrast. It implies that even though the challenges were very large and difficult, the team still succeeded in reaching their destination.

Formidable means inspiring fear or respect through being impressively large, powerful, intense, or difficult.

Trivial, negligible, and insignificant all mean small, minor, or unimportant—which wouldn't make sense with the word "Despite."

Here is how the completed sentence looks:

Despite the formidable challenges faced during the expedition, the team managed to reach their destination.
2026 Prelims English
Select the word with the correct spelling to fill in the blank. words while writing anything Hiren loves to use 
A coloquial
B colloquil
C colloquial
D colloqual
Correct Answer: Option C
Colloquial (spelled with a double 'l' and ending in '-ial') describes words or phrases used in casual, everyday conversation rather than formal speech or writing.

Here is how the completed sentence looks:

Hiren loves to use colloquial words while writing anything.
2026 Prelims English
The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error. (I) She quick finished her homework/ (II) before dinner, eager to join her friends/(III) at the park for/(IV) an exciting game of soccer.  
A IV
B III
C I
D II
Correct Answer: Option C
The Reason
The word "quick" is an adjective, but it is being used here to describe the verb "finished." To modify a verb, you must use an adverb.

The sentence should be corrected to use the adverb "quickly":

"She quickly finished her homework..."
2026 Prelims English
Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. "Hello", he said to his friend. "What can I do for you"? 
A He asked and greeted his friend that what he can do for him.
B He told hello and asked his friend what he could do for him.
C He greeted his friend and asked what he could do for him.
D He said hello and asked his friend what can do for him.
Correct Answer: Option C
Here is why this is the most grammatically accurate indirect form:

The Greeting: The exclamation "Hello" is best expressed in indirect speech by using the reporting verb "greeted" (e.g., He greeted his friend).

Tense Change: The modal verb "can" in direct speech must shift back to its past form, "could", in indirect speech.

Sentence Structure: In indirect questions, the sentence structure changes from interrogative (verb before subject: can I) to assertive (subject before verb: he could). Also, a conjunction like "that" should never be placed right before a Wh-question word (which rules out option A).
2026 Prelims English
Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. Who wanders from place to place and lives by begging 
A truant
B itinerant
C migrant
D Vagrant
Correct Answer: Option D
Here is why, along with the meanings of the other options:

Vagrant: A person without a settled home or work who wanders from place to place and typically lives by begging.

Truant: A student who stays away from school without leave or explanation.

Itinerant: A person who travels from place to place, usually for work (like an itinerant carpenter), rather than living by begging.

Migrant: A person who moves from one place to another, especially in order to find work or better living conditions.
2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Give a piece of one's mind 
A To advise someone
B To rebuke someone strongly
C To donate something valuable
D To share one's ideas
Correct Answer: Option B
Here is why:

To "give someone a piece of your mind" means to speak to them angrily because they have done something wrong or because you strongly disapprove of their behavior. It is a sharp scolding or reprimand (a rebuke).

Example: “If he leaves his messy dishes on the counter one more time, I am going to give him a piece of my mind!”
2026 Prelims English
Select the correct direct from of the given sentence: 
She asked me why I had been smoking that day 
A She says to me, "Why were you smoking this day?"
B She said to me, "Why are you smoking today?"
C She said to me, "Why you smoke today?"
D She said to me, "Why were you smoking today?"
Correct Answer: Option D
Here is why this is the correct transformation based on standard grammar rules:

Tense Change: The past continuous tense ("were smoking") in direct speech shifts backward into the past perfect continuous tense ("had been smoking") in indirect speech.

Time Shift: The word "today" in direct speech changes to "that day" in indirect speech.

Reporting Verb: "She said to me" changes to "She asked me" because it is a question.
2026 Prelims English
Which of the given options is the most logical sequencing of the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph? 

I. They are responsible for pollinating many plants. 
II. Bees are essential for biodiversity and food production. 
III. However, their population has been steadily declining . 
IV. The major reasons for this are habitat loss and pesticides. 

Choose the correct option: 
A I-II-III-IV
B IV-I-II-III
C II-I-III-IV
D I-III-IV-II
Correct Answer: Option C
Here is why this sequence forms the most logical paragraph:

II introduces the main topic and states a broad fact (Bees are essential for biodiversity and food production).

I expands on why they are essential, linking directly to the "food production" mentioned in the previous sentence (They are responsible for pollinating many plants).

III introduces a problem using a contrasting transition word (However, their population has been steadily declining).

IV finishes the thought by explaining the cause of that decline (The major reasons for this are habitat loss and pesticides).

Full Paragraph:

"Bees are essential for biodiversity and food production. They are responsible for pollinating many plants. However, their population has been steadily declining. The major reasons for this are habitat loss and pesticides."
2026 Prelims English
Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order. 
Ancient mythologies 

P. while adapting to contemporary interpretations and themes 
Q. influencing modern literature, cinema and philosophy 
R. preserving cultural traditions through oral storytelling 
S. have transcended time and geographical boundaries. 
 
Choose the correct option:  
A SQRP
B QRPS
C RPQS
D PRSQ
Correct Answer: Option A
Here is how the sentence flows together logically when rearranged:

Ancient mythologies (Subject)

S. have transcended time and geographical boundaries, (Verb phrase that connects directly to the subject)

Q. influencing modern literature, cinema and philosophy (Explains the result of transcending time and boundaries)

R. preserving cultural traditions through oral storytelling (Adds another layer of what they achieve)

P. while adapting to contemporary interpretations and themes. (Provides the final, contrasting modern context)

Full Sentence:

"Ancient mythologies have transcended time and geographical boundaries, influencing modern literature, cinema and philosophy, preserving cultural traditions through oral storytelling while adapting to contemporary interpretations and themes."
2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 
 Perturbed 
A Calm
B Unsettled
C Worried
D Anxious
Correct Answer: Option A
Here is a quick breakdown of why:

Perturbed means feeling anxious, disturbed, or deeply unsettled.

Calm means peaceful, relaxed, and free from agitation, making it the perfect opposite (antonym).

The other options (Worried, Unsettled, and Anxious) are all synonyms that describe exactly how someone feels when they are perturbed.
2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 
 Laconic 
A Succinct
B Pithy
C Long-winded
D Concise
Correct Answer: Option C
Here is why:

Laconic means using very few words; brief and to the point.

Long-winded means using too many words in a tedious, roundabout way, making it the exact opposite (antonym).

The other options (Succinct, Pithy, and Concise) are all synonyms of laconic, as they also mean brief and short.
2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. Recalcitrant 
A Compliant
B Submissive
C Rebellious
D Docile
Correct Answer: Option C
Why this is correct:
Recalcitrant describes someone who has an obstinately uncooperative attitude toward authority or discipline—essentially, being stubbornly rebellious or defiant.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Compliant: This means disposed to agree with others or obey rules, making it an antonym (opposite).

B) Submissive: This means ready to conform to the authority or will of others, which is another antonym.

D) Docile: This means ready to accept control or instruction; submissive. This is also an antonym.
2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word

Persiflage 
A Criticism
B Banter
C Seriousness
D Argument
Correct Answer: Option B
Why this is correct:
Persiflage means light, mocking, or witty conversation—essentially a fancy word for banter or good-natured teasing.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Criticism: This implies severe disapproval or finding fault, whereas persiflage is lighthearted and playful.

C) Seriousness: This is actually an antonym of persiflage, which is inherently trivial and frivolous.

D) Argument: An argument involves a heated or serious disagreement, while persiflage is cooperative, light, and amusing.

Current Affairs 11 questions

2026 Prelims Current Affairs
Parts of the following sentence have been given as options. Select the option that contains an error. "The constitutional lawyer argued persuasively and with surgical precision, dismantling the opposition's case piece by logic piece.''
A dismantling the opposition's case
B The constitutional lawyer argued persuasively
C and with surgical precision
D piece by logic piece
Correct Answer: Option D
The Reason
The standard idiomatic expression in English is "piece by piece" (meaning gradually or one part at a time). By inserting the word "logic" into the middle of the idiom, the sentence becomes grammatically awkward and unidiomatic.

If the writer wanted to emphasize the logical aspect, they should have written it as:

"...dismantling the opposition's case piece by piece with logic."

"...dismantling the opposition's case logically, piece by piece."
2026 Prelims Current Affairs
Identify the correct statements about the MUMKIN scheme operational in J&K UT.

I. "Mumkin - Livelihood Generation Scheme" is an initiative specifically aimed at empowering its young population.
II. It provides uptoRs. 80000 subsidy or 10% of the on-road price, whichever is lower for unemployed youth to purchase small commercial vehicles.
III. The age of the applicant should be between 18 to 35 years.
 
Choose the correct option:
A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II and III
Correct Answer: Option D
All statements provided accurately describe the MUMKIN scheme.The "Mumkin - Livelihood Generation Scheme" falls under the Mission Youth, a J&K government initiative that:Empowers unemployed youth.Provides a subsidy of up to Rs. 80,000 or 10% of the on-road price of the vehicle, whichever is lower.Restricts eligibility to applicants between the ages of 18 and 35 years.
2026 Prelims Current Affairs
Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): A rise in per capita GNP always reflects an improvement in living standards.
Reason (R): Income levels are fundamental metrics of Economic development.

Which of the statements is/are correct?
A Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C A is true, R is false
D A is false, R is true
Correct Answer: Option D
Assertion (A) is false: A rise in per capita Gross National Product (GNP) does not always reflect an improvement in living standards. Per capita GNP is simply an average (Total GNP divided by Total Population). It fails to account for income inequality. If the economic growth is concentrated entirely in the hands of the top 1% of the population, the per capita GNP will rise, but the living standards of the general public will remain stagnant or even worsen. It also ignores environmental degradation, health, and education quality.

Reason (R) is true: Income levels are fundamental metrics of economic development. While economic development is a broader concept that includes quality of life, health, and literacy, income levels remain the primary baseline tool used by global organizations (like the World Bank) to measure, classify, and compare the development status of nations.

Because A is false and R is true, option D is the correct choice.
2026 Prelims Current Affairs
Consider the following statements:

I. As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, India accounts for more than 5% of global merchandise exports.
II. As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, India's service imports were greater than its exports.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A I only
B II only
C Both I and II
D Neither I nor II
Correct Answer: Option D
Analysis of Statements: 
Statement I is incorrect: As per the Economic Survey 2025-26, India's share of global merchandise exports is significantly lower than 5%. While India's trade performance has shown resilience and growth, its share of global merchandise exports has risen from 1% in 2005 to approximately 1.8% by 2024. Statement II is incorrect: India consistently maintains a surplus in services trade. The Economic Survey 2025-26 and subsequent Reserve Bank of India (RBI) data highlight that India’s services exports significantly exceed its services imports. This "net services surplus" is a key structural component that helps offset the country's merchandise trade deficit.  
2026 Prelims Current Affairs
Identify the correct statements about the Nobel Peace Prize, 2025.

I. It was awarded to Maria Corina Machado of Venezuela.
II. According to the Norwegian Nobel Committee, it can be transferred by the recipient to any other person.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A I only
B II only
C Both I and II
D Neither I nor II
Correct Answer: Option A
Why Statement I is correct (and II is incorrect):
Statement I is correct: The Norwegian Nobel Committee awarded the 2025 Nobel Peace Prize to María Corina Machado, a prominent opposition leader from Venezuela, honoring her relentless courage and peaceful efforts to advance democracy and human rights against authoritarian rule.  
Drishti IAS

Statement II is incorrect: The Nobel Peace Prize—like all other Nobel Prizes—is bound by the strict statutes of the Nobel Foundation. It is awarded strictly to specific individuals or organizations chosen by the committee itself. It cannot be transferred, assigned, or gifted by the recipient to any other person or entity.
2026 Prelims Current Affairs
ITER is considered important for India and the world because

I. It demonstrates sustainable, clean fusion energy for the future.
II. It allows India to participate in cutting-edge nuclear fusion research.
III. It provides immediate commercial electricity to reduce fossil fuel dependency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II and III
Correct Answer: Option B
Why Statements I and II are correct (and III is incorrect):

Statement I is correct: ITER (International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor) is an international magnetic confinement plasma physics experiment. Its primary goal is to prove that nuclear fusion can be a viable, sustainable, and clean source of large-scale energy for the future.

Statement II is correct: India is one of the seven principal member entities (along with the EU, USA, Russia, China, Japan, and South Korea). Participating in ITER gives Indian scientists and domestic industries direct access to cutting-edge fusion technology.

Statement III is incorrect: ITER is purely an experimental and research reactor. It is not designed to generate commercial electricity or feed power into any grid. The immediate commercial stage will come later with a successor project known as DEMO (Demonstration Power Plant), which will build upon ITER's results.
2026 Prelims Current Affairs
In India's three-stage nuclear program, the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) is considered important because:

I. It is designed to use uranium-238 to breed plutonium in a sodium-cooled fast reactor design.
II. Thorium-232, though not fissile, is proposed to be used as a blanket material.
III. By transmutation Thorium will create fissile Uranium-233, which will be used as fuel in the third stage.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
Correct Answer: Option D
Why All Statements Are Correct:

India's nuclear program, formulated by Dr. Homi Bhabha, is a strategic three-stage plan designed to utilize the country's vast thorium reserves, since India has limited domestic uranium supplies.

Statement I is correct: The Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at Kalpakkam is the gateway to the Second Stage. It uses a Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel (Uranium-238 and Plutonium-239) and is cooled by liquid sodium. It "breeds" more fuel (Plutonium) than it consumes.

Statement II is correct: Thorium-232 is fertile, not fissile (meaning it cannot sustain a nuclear chain reaction on its own). Therefore, it is placed as a "blanket" around the core to absorb escaping neutrons.

Statement III is correct: When the Thorium-232 blanket absorbs neutrons in the second stage, it undergoes transmutation to become Uranium-233. This fissile Uranium-233 will then be extracted and used as the primary fuel for the Third Stage of the program.
2026 Prelims Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about India's Space mission's achievements.
I. The Axiom Mission 4 has enabled human spaceflight for India, Poland, and Hungary, with each nation's first government-sponsored flight in more than 40 years.
II. SpaDeX Mission made India the first country in the world to successfully carry out a satellite docking process in Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A I only
B II only
C Both I and II
D Neither I Nor II
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation of the Statements Statement I is CORRECT: The Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4), launched in June 2025, carried a diverse international crew including Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla from India, Sławosz Uznański-Wiśniewski from Poland, and Tibor Kapu from Hungary. This mission marked the long-awaited return to human spaceflight for all three nations, representing their first government-sponsored flights in over 40 years (since the Soviet-era Interkosmos missions). Statement II is INCORRECT: While ISRO's SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) mission in January 2025 was a massive historical success, it did not make India the first country to achieve satellite docking. India became the fourth nation in the world to successfully master and execute autonomous space docking technology, joining an elite group alongside the USA, Russia, and China.  
2026 Prelims Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about the United Nations Security Council.

I. As per Article 23, the Security Council shall consist of fifteen Members of the United Nations.
II. The non-permanent members of the Security Council shall be elected for a term of five years.
III. A retiring non-permanent member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D All of the above
Correct Answer: Option C
Detailed Breakdown of the Statements:
Statement I is correct: According to Article 23 of the United Nations Charter, the Security Council consists of 15 members. This includes 5 permanent members (China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States) and 10 non-permanent members.

Statement II is incorrect: The non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected for a term of two years, not five years. Every year, the UN General Assembly elects five new non-permanent members to replace the outgoing ones.

Statement III is correct: Article 23 explicitly states that a retiring non-permanent member cannot be immediately re-elected for the next consecutive term. This rule ensures rotation and gives other nations a fair chance to serve on the council.
2026 Prelims Current Affairs
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option.
Military Exercises Partner Country
i. YudhAbhyaas a. USA
ii. Zapad b. Egypt
iii. Mitra-Shakti c. Sri Lanka
iv. Bright Star d. Russia

Choose the correct match:
A i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
B i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
C i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
D i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
Correct Answer: Option B
Detailed Breakdown of the Matches:

i. Yudh Abhyas — a. USA: This is a long-running, bilateral joint military training exercise conducted annually between the Indian Army and the United States Army.

ii. Zapad — d. Russia: "Zapad" (which means "West" in Russian) is a large-scale, multi-nation strategic military exercise hosted by Russia, in which India has historically participated as an observer or attendee.

iii. Mitra-Shakti — c. Sri Lanka: This is a bilateral military exercise designed to enhance interoperability and counter-insurgency capabilities between the armies of India and Sri Lanka.

iv. Bright Star — b. Egypt: Exercise Bright Star is a major multinational tri-services military exercise led by Egypt and the United States, held at the Mohamed Naguib Military Base in Egypt, with India participating as a key partner.
2026 Prelims Current Affairs
Consider the following statements regarding India's nuclear energy policy and the SHANTI Act, 2025.

(I) The SHANTI Act, 2025, allows private sector participation in nuclear power generation.
(II) India has set a target of achieving 100 GW of installed nuclear power capacity by the year 2030.
(III) The SHANTI Act, 2025 retains unlimited supplier liability for nuclear damage to ensure enhanced accountability.

Which of the above statements are correct?
A I only
B I and II only
C I and III only
D I, II and III
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation of the Statements: 
Statement (I) is correct: The SHANTI Act, 2025 (Sustainable Harnessing and Advancement of Nuclear Energy for Transforming India Act) explicitly broke the state monopoly by allowing private Indian companies, foreign entities, and joint ventures to build, own, operate, and decommission civil nuclear power plants under regulatory oversight. Statement (II) is incorrect: India has set a target of achieving 100 GW of installed nuclear power capacity by the year 2047 (coinciding with 100 years of Independence), not 2030. Statement (III) is incorrect: The SHANTI Act, 2025 repealed the older Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act (CLNDA) of 2010. To align with international conventions and attract private sector investment, it removed supplier liability completely and channeled exclusive liability onto the nuclear operator, with strict financial caps graded by reactor size.  

Computer 20 questions

2026 Prelims Computer
Which feature enables software to store, organize, and manipulate structured data in rows and columns for efficient analysis? 
A Matrix virtualization framework
B Database management
C Grid processing interface
D Structured data renderer
Correct Answer: Option B
Why this is correct:
A Database Management System (DBMS)—specifically a Relational Database Management System (RDBMS)—is designed exactly for this purpose. It utilizes tables consisting of rows (records) and columns (attributes) to store, organize, modify, and query structured data efficiently using languages like SQL.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A, C, and D are all fabricated, highly technical-sounding terms. While they might sound plausible, they do not represent any standard software features or categories used for managing structured data tables.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which feature allows a user to apply a uniform layout, fonts, and design elements automatically across all pages or slides in a document or presentation? 
A Global formatting synchronizer
B Master template system
C Layout replication engine
D Universal style broadcaster
Correct Answer: Option B
A Master template system (often referred to simply as templates, themes, or slide masters depending on the software) is a blueprint that defines the foundational layout, typography, color palette, and design elements of a document or presentation. When you apply or change a master template, those styles are automatically inherited across all existing and newly created pages or slides, ensuring visual consistency.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A, C, and D are all fabricated, technically sounding terms designed to look like official software features, but none of them actually exist in standard productivity suites (like Microsoft Office, Google Workspace, or Adobe InDesign).
2026 Prelims Computer
Aditi wants Excel to calculate the average of cells Al to A5 only if their total sum is greater than 100, otherwise she wants Excel to display "Low". She writes the following formula:
 =IF((SUM(A1:A5) 100.(AVERAGE(A1:A5), "Low" ))) 
A Yes, it will work correctly for all values
B Yes, but it works only with integers
C No, it will not work because of a syntax issue
D No, it will not work because of incorrect logic
Correct Answer: Option C
Aditi's logic is actually correct, but Excel will throw a formula error because her syntax is completely broken.

The structure of an IF statement in Excel must strictly follow this format:
=IF(logical_test, value_if_true, value_if_false)

Here are the specific syntax mistakes in her formula =IF((SUM(A1:A5) 100.(AVERAGE(A1:A5), "Low" ))):

Missing Comparison Operator: There is no > (greater than) symbol between SUM(A1:A5) and 100.

Incorrect Separators: She used a period (.) instead of a comma (,) after 100.

Mismatched Parentheses: The parentheses around AVERAGE and the overall statement are misplaced and unclosed properly.

How the formula should look:
To make this work perfectly, Aditi should write the formula like this:

=IF(SUM(A1:A5) > 100, AVERAGE(A1:A5), "Low")
2026 Prelims Computer
Aarohi is creating a presentation and wants a logo to appear automatically in the same position on all current and future slides, without manually adding it to each slide. Which feature should she use? 
A Global Slide Replication
B Layout Replicator
C Theme Designer
D Slide Master
Correct Answer: Option D
Editing the Slide Master (or Master Slide) applies changes globally, automatically placing the logo in the exact same position on all current and future slides without manual replication
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following options best explains how a web browser loads a webpage when a user enters a URL?
A Browser downloads the page directly from the ISP
B SMTP resolves the name and transfers the webpage
C DNS finds the IP and HTTP/HTTPS loads the page
D The search engine fetches and renders the page
Correct Answer: Option C
How it works step-by-step:
DNS Resolution: When you type a URL (like www.example.com), the browser cannot navigate to a text name. It first asks the Domain Name System (DNS)—the phonebook of the internet—to translate that domain name into a numerical IP address (like 192.0.2.1).

HTTP/HTTPS Request: Once the browser has the IP address, it uses HTTP or HTTPS (the secure version) to send a request to the web server at that IP address.

Rendering: The web server sends back the website's files (HTML, CSS, JavaScript), which the browser then renders into the webpage you see.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Browser downloads the page directly from the ISP: Your Internet Service Provider (ISP) just provides the pipeline/connection to the internet; they do not host or store the webpages themselves.

B) SMTP resolves the name and transfers the webpage: SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used exclusively for sending emails, not for loading web pages.

D) The search engine fetches and renders the page: A search engine (like Google) helps you find URLs, but once you enter a URL into the address bar, the browser communicates directly with the hosting web server, completely bypassing the search engine.
2026 Prelims Computer
A cybersecurity researcher needs an operating system mainly for network testing, scripting, and advanced system customization, with strong command-line tools and open-source flexibility. Which operating system would be most suitable? 
A Windows
B Linux
C Mac OS
D Standalone firmware OS
Correct Answer: Option B
Why this is correct:
Linux is the industry standard for cybersecurity research and penetration testing (with specialized distributions like Kali Linux or Parrot OS). It perfectly matches the researcher's requirements:

Network Testing & Scripting: Linux natively integrates powerful command-line utilities and scripting languages (like Bash and Python) essential for automating network tasks.

Open-Source Flexibility: Because it is open-source, researchers can modify the kernel, audit the code, and customize the environment down to the lowest level.

Why the other options are less suitable:
A) Windows: While it dominates the enterprise world, Windows is proprietary (not open-source) and tightly locked down, making deep system customization and kernel-level network manipulation much harder.

C) Mac OS: While it is Unix-based and has a strong command line, it is closed-source proprietary software tied strictly to Apple hardware, limiting deep hardware-level customization.

D) Standalone firmware OS: This refers to microcode or embedded software built into specific hardware components (like a router or smart appliance). It lacks the general-purpose environment, scripting ecosystem, and user tools needed for robust research.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which component of an operating system is primarily responsible for maintaining the mapping between file names and their physical storage locations? 
A File system directory structure
B Memory allocation dispatcher
C Data locality controller
D Storage routing interface
Correct Answer: Option A
Why this is correct:
The directory structure (or file system directory) is the specific component of the file system that acts as a lookup table. It maps human-readable file names to their corresponding metadata or physical addresses on the storage device (such as inodes in Unix/Linux or the Master File Table in NTFS).

Why the other options are incorrect:
B) Memory allocation dispatcher: This handles RAM (volatile memory) allocation for running processes, not persistent file storage.

C) Data locality controller: "Data locality" refers to keeping data close to the computation processing it (often used in distributed systems like Hadoop), but this is not a standard OS component responsible for file-to-storage mapping.

D) Storage routing interface: This is a fabricated or non-standard term; physical hardware communication is typically handled by device drivers and the I/O subsystem.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following statements is NOT true about virtual memory in an operating system? 
A It allows programs to use more memory than the physically available RAM
B It uses disk space to extend the apparent main memory
C It permanently stores running processes in secondary storage
D It loads only required portions of programs into RAM when needed
Correct Answer: Option C
Why this statement is NOT true:
Virtual memory is a temporary memory management technique. When a process is running, its data is swapped back and forth between the high-speed RAM and a temporary space on the hard drive (secondary storage) called a pagefile or swap file.

Once the process is closed or the computer is turned off, that data is cleared from the virtual memory space. It is never permanently stored there.

Why the other options are true:
A is TRUE: The primary purpose of virtual memory is to let you run large applications (or many apps at once) that exceed the physical capacity of your RAM sticks.

B is TRUE: Virtual memory achieves its trick by carving out a portion of your hard drive or SSD (disk space) and treating it as an extension of your main memory (RAM).

D is TRUE: This describes a process called demand paging. Instead of loading a massive 10 GB program into RAM all at once, the operating system only loads the specific pieces (pages) of the program you are actively using right now.
2026 Prelims Computer
A video editor installs a new high-end graphics card in her computer to speed up video rendering. After installation, the computer detects the card physically. Still, video editing software cannot use its advanced features until it installs an additional component that allows the operating system and applications to communicate properly with the hardware. What does she need to install? 
A Hardware synchronization module
B Digital performance translator
C System interface accelerator
D Device driver
Correct Answer: Option D
Why this is the correct answer:
A device driver is a specialized piece of software that acts as a translator between the computer's operating system (and application software) and the physical hardware component.

When a new high-end graphics card (GPU) is plugged into the motherboard, the system might recognize that something is physically connected. However, without the proper manufacturer-provided device driver (such as those from NVIDIA or AMD), the operating system doesn't know how to access the card's specific architecture, advanced rendering cores, or video memory capabilities. Installing the driver unlocks the card's full potential for video editing software.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A, B, and C are made-up, professional-sounding phrases designed to look plausible, but they do not exist as standard system components or software categories in computer hardware.
2026 Prelims Computer
A digital artist wants to create detailed and beautiful digital drawings on his computer. He finds it difficult to draw accurately using only a mouse. Which device would help him draw naturally and precisely on the computer?  
A Graphics tablet
B Digital stroke enhancer
C Precision art interface pad
D Visual rendering controller
Correct Answer: Option A
Why this is the correct answer:
A graphics tablet is a hardware input device designed specifically for digital artists, animators, and designers. It consists of a flat, touch-sensitive pad and a pressure-sensitive digital pen (stylus).

This tool allows artists to mimic the natural ergonomics and movement of using a real pencil, paintbrush, or marker. Unlike a standard computer mouse, a graphics tablet features:

Pressure Sensitivity: Pressing harder creates thicker or more opaque lines, while a light touch creates thin, faint lines.

Tilt Recognition: Angling the pen can change the shape or shading properties of the brush stroke.

Absolute Positioning: Every spot on the tablet maps perfectly to a spot on the computer monitor, allowing for precise, natural strokes.

Why the other options are incorrect:
B, C, and D are fictitious, technical-sounding terms created as incorrect distractors for this question. No such standard hardware components exist for computer drawing.
2026 Prelims Computer
Match the terms (Column-A) with their most accurate descriptions (Column-B):
 Column-A 
 Column-B
 i. Cache Memory 
 a Translates entire programs before execution 
 ii. Register Named memory locations build in processor
 b.Small storage location inside CPU for immediate operations  iii. Interpreter
 c. Executes instructions one line at a time without separate object code
 iv. Compiler Stedede

 Choose the correct option: 
A i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
B i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
C i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
D i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
Correct Answer: Option D
Step-by-Step Breakdown:

Here is how the terms match up based on their standard computer science definitions (ignoring the minor typos in the question text):

i. Cache Memory → b: High-speed buffer memory used by the processor.

ii. Register → d: A small, ultra-fast storage location inside the CPU used to hold data immediately required for operations.

iii. Interpreter → c: Translates and executes code one line at a time on the fly without producing a separate object code file.

iv. Compiler → a: Translates the entire program into machine code at once before execution.
2026 Prelims Computer
While sending an email with a large attachment, Aarav notices that the email client automatically uploads the file and shares it as a link instead of attaching it directly. Which Internet feature makes this possible? 
A Cloud storage integration
B SMTP compression
C Dynamic attachment routing
D Internet caching protocol
Correct Answer: Option A
Why this is the correct answer:
Most modern email services (like Gmail with Google Drive, or Outlook with OneDrive) have a strict file size limit for direct attachments—usually around 20–25 MB.

When Aarav tries to attach a file that exceeds this limit, the email client seamlessly switches gears. It uploads the file to its connected cloud storage service instead, generates a secure sharing link, and embeds that link directly into the email body. This allows the recipient to download the file directly from the cloud without clogging up email servers.

Why the other options are incorrect:
B: SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is the standard protocol used to send emails, but it does not compress large files into cloud links.

C: Dynamic attachment routing is a made-up, technical-sounding phrase.

D: Internet caching protocols (like ICP) are used by web proxies to share cached web pages and speed up browsing, not to handle email file attachments.
2026 Prelims Computer
Riya works in a small office where all computers are connected through a LAN using Ethernet cables, but the network is not connected to any ISP or the Internet. She tries to send an email to her boss using Gmail. Can Riya send the email? 
A Yes, because Gmail can temporarily store emails in the LAN cache and sync later
B No. because Gmail requires a Wi-Fi network to operate
C Yes, because Ethernet supports internal cloud routing for web apps
D No. because Gmail needs Internet access to contact its remote servers
Correct Answer: Option D
Why this is the correct answer:
Gmail is a cloud-based email service. To send an email, your computer must communicate with Google's remote mail servers over the global Internet.

Since Riya’s office network is not connected to an ISP or the Internet, it functions purely as an isolated Local Area Network (LAN). While the computers in the office can talk to each other (for instance, sharing a local printer or a local shared folder), they have no pathway to reach external web servers like Google's.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A: Gmail does not have a "LAN cache" that automatically syncs across an isolated offline network to send external emails later.

B: Gmail does not care whether you use Wi-Fi or an Ethernet cable; it just requires an active internet connection.

C: Ethernet is simply a physical cabling and networking standard for connecting local devices. It does not provide "internal cloud routing" for external web applications without an Internet connection.
2026 Prelims Computer
Anaya is making a long report in MS Word. She wants pages 1-3 to use Roman numerals (1. ii. iii) and the rest to start from 1.2.3. She does not know how to set different page numbering styles in one document. What should she do? 
A Use Mixed Numbering from the Insert tab
B Add a section break and format page numbers separately
C Use the Pagination Wizard from the Layout tab and assign custom numbering templates
D Change the numbering style from the Font settings
Correct Answer: Option B
Why this is the correct answer:
By default, MS Word applies formatting like page numbers to the entire document. To use two different numbering styles (such as Roman numerals for the intro pages and Arabic numerals for the main body), Anaya needs to split the document into distinct Sections.

Here is the exact process she would follow:

Place the cursor at the very end of page 3.

Go to the Layout tab, click Breaks, and select Next Page under Section Breaks.

Double-click the footer on page 4, look at the Header & Footer tab, and click Link to Previous to turn it off (this unlinks the two sections).

Go to Page Number > Format Page Numbers to change the style to 1, 2, 3 and choose Start at: 1.

Go back to the first section (pages 1-3) and format those page numbers as i, ii, iii.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A & C: "Mixed Numbering" and the "Pagination Wizard" are not real features or tools in MS Word.

D: Font settings only change the appearance of text (like making it bold or changing the typeface); they cannot change the page numbering logic or style.
2026 Prelims Computer
A student creates the following VBA script in MS Access and attaches it to the "On Click" event of a button on a form: 
A It filters and displays only students who scored below 40 marks in the form
B It automatically updates every record in the students table
C It deletes all records of students who scored below 40 marks
D It creates a new table that stores the result (Pass/Fail) separately from the Students table
Correct Answer: Option D
need to be checked 
2026 Prelims Computer
A school computer lab has 20 identical computers. Recently, several systems started showing some issue: the computer powers on (fans spin and lights turn on), but nothing appears on the monitor and no startup sound is heard. The monitors and cables have been tested and are working fine. A technician swaps the operating system drive from a working computer into one of the faulty systems, but the problem still persists .

Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue? 
A The operating system is corrupted and needs to be reinstalled
B The graphics driver is outdated and incompatible with the monitor
C A hardware failure in a core internal component
D The monitor resolution settings are unsupported by the operating system.
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Why C is the most likely cause: The symptoms described—fans spinning and lights turning on, but no display output (Black Screen) and no startup sound (POST chime)—indicate that the computer is failing to complete its POST (Power-On Self-Test). Because this failure occurs at a hardware level before the computer even attempts to read the storage drive, swapping the operating system drive had no effect. The issue is likely a failure in a core component such as the RAM, Motherboard, CPU, or Power Supply Unit (PSU).

Why the other options are incorrect:

A is incorrect: If the operating system were corrupted, you would typically still see the motherboard splash screen (BIOS/UEFI logo) or receive an error message (like "No bootable device found") before the screen goes blank. Furthermore, swapping in a known working OS drive would have fixed the issue if it were just a software corruption problem.

B & D are incorrect: Graphics drivers and monitor resolution settings are managed entirely by the operating system. Since the failure happens immediately upon powering on—before the operating system even begins to load—drivers and OS display configurations cannot be the cause.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following statements about input and output devices is MOST accurate?
A A capacitive touchscreen is strictly an output device because it displays images, and the touch functionality is handled by the operating system, not the hardware.
B Optical Character Recognition (OCR) scanners are purely input devices since they convert physical text into digital form, and cannot provide feedback or output to the user.
C A common digitizer tablet with a stylus is both an input and output device because it can detect pressure and movement and can also display feedback to the user through a connected screen.
D Braille displays are output devices because they allow visually impaired users to sense the display with haptic vibrations.
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Why B is correct: An OCR scanner's sole hardware function is to capture physical optical data (light and dark patterns of text on a page) and feed it into a computer system as digital data. It acts exclusively as a unidirectional data pipeline into the system, making it a pure input device.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A is incorrect: A capacitive touchscreen is a hybrid input/output device. The physical glass layer contains sensors that detect electrical charges from a human finger at the hardware level; this translates directly to touch input.

C is incorrect: A standard digitizer tablet (like those used by graphic designers) is strictly an input device. It registers coordinates, pressure, and tilt from a stylus and sends that data to the computer. It does not output anything itself; the visual feedback happens on a completely separate device (the monitor).

D is incorrect: While Braille displays are indeed output devices, the statement's description is inaccurate. As established previously, they use mechanical raising and lowering of pins to create tactile characters, not haptic vibrations.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which statement is correct regarding the interaction between computer hardware and system software? 
A System software is hardware-independent because it interacts with hardware only via high-level languages.
B Firmware is classified as application software since it is stored in non-volatile memory and executes user-level tasks.
C operating system acts as an intermediary between hardware and application software by managing resources and providing hardware abstraction.
D Installing application software can directly modify CPU microarchitecture without involving system software.
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Why C is correct: The operating system (OS) is the primary type of system software. It hides the complex, low-level details of the physical hardware (like CPU cycles, disk sectors, and RAM addresses) and provides a uniform interface (hardware abstraction) that application software can easily use to run tasks.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A is incorrect: System software is highly dependent on hardware. It frequently interacts with physical components using low-level languages (like assembly or machine code) and specific device drivers.

B is incorrect: Firmware is a specialized type of system software (not application software) embedded deeply into hardware components (like the BIOS/UEFI on a motherboard) to provide low-level control.

D is incorrect: Application software cannot alter CPU microarchitecture (the physical design and logic circuits of the processor). Furthermore, applications can never bypass the system software to interact with hardware directly due to modern security and resource management protocols.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following statements correctly describes a tactile display (also known as a refreshable braille display)?  
A It is an electro-mechanical device that uses round-tipped pins to represent Braille characters by raising them through holes in a flat surface.
B It is a specialized monitor that uses haptic vibrations across a glass screen to simulate the texture of printed text.
C It is a peripheral device that converts text from a computer screen into high-speed audio for the visually impaired.
D It is a static hardware interface where Braille characters are permanently engraved into a metal plate for reading.
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation:
How it works: A refreshable Braille display is an assistive technology device that connects to a computer or smartphone. It uses a screen reader to capture text from the screen and translates it into Braille. Inside the device, tiny electro-mechanical mechanisms (often using piezoelectric crystals) push round-tipped pins up through holes in a flat surface to dynamically form Braille cells. As the user moves their cursor, the pins rapidly lower and raise to update the text in real time.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B is incorrect: While haptic touchscreens exist, standard tactile/refreshable Braille displays rely on physical, mechanical pins rather than localized glass vibrations to read standard Braille characters.

C is incorrect: This describes a screen reader using text-to-speech (TTS) audio software, not a tactile display.
2026 Prelims Computer
In a computer laboratory, a system boots normally and successfully compiles a program, but the program does not execute and no error message is displayed. The most likely cause is: 
A Faulty keyboard or mouse
B Insufficient RAM
C Disconnected network cable
D Corrupted printer driver
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Why RAM is the cause: Compiling a program and executing a program are two different processes. While compilation translates the source code into machine code (which the system handled successfully), execution requires loading the compiled program into the system's Random Access Memory (RAM). If the system has critically low or insufficient RAM available, the operating system may fail to allocate the memory space needed to launch the process, causing it to quietly terminate or hang without throwing a specific compilation or hardware error.

Why other options are incorrect:

A) Faulty keyboard or mouse: The system booted normally, meaning basic I/O devices are functioning or at least not preventing system operation. A faulty mouse/keyboard wouldn't silently stop a program from executing post-compilation.

C) Disconnected network cable: Unless the program specifically requires an active internet/network connection to run, a local program will still execute offline.

D) Corrupted printer driver: This would only affect print jobs, not local program execution.

General Science 20 questions

2026 Prelims General Science
Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Vertebrates? 
 I. These are a subphylum of chordates that are characterized by the presence of a vertebral column or backbone. 
II. They show bilateral symmetry.
III. It includes animals such as fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals.

Choose the correct option:  
A Only I
B Only I and II
C Only I and III
D All of the above
Correct Answer: Option D
Here is why all three statements are correct:

Statement I is correct: Vertebrates are indeed a major subphylum of the phylum Chordata. Their defining feature is the replacement of the embryonic notochord with a segmented bony or cartilaginous vertebral column (backbone).

Statement II is correct: Vertebrates exhibit bilateral symmetry, meaning their bodies can be divided into identical left and right halves along a single central plane.

Statement III is correct: The subphylum Vertebrata is diverse and traditionally divided into major classes that include fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals.

Overview of Vertebrate Classification
Symmetry: Bilateral

Body Cavity: Coelomate (true body cavity)

Key Feature: Advanced central nervous system protected by a skull (cranium) and a backbone.
2026 Prelims General Science
Match the categories of asexual reproduction in plants with their correct examples:

 i Vegetative propagation a Mosses and liverworts 

 ii. Fragmentation 
b. Begonia and Bryophyllum

iii. Budding
c. Yeast and Hydra 

iv. Spore formation 
 d Clostridium and Bacillus  

Choose the correct option: 
A i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
B i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
C i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
D i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
Correct Answer: Option A
The correct option is A) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d (with a small caveat regarding fragmentation/spores, as explained below).Here is how the categories of reproduction match with the examples:i. Vegetative propagation $\rightarrow$ b. Begonia and BryophyllumBryophyllum and Begonia reproduce vegetatively through their leaves, which develop buds that can grow into new plants.ii. Fragmentation $\rightarrow$ a. Mosses and liverwortsMosses and liverworts (bryophytes) commonly reproduce asexually via fragmentation, where a broken piece of the thallus or protonema grows into a new plant.iii. Budding $\rightarrow$ c. Yeast and HydraBoth yeast (a fungus) and Hydra (an animal) reproduce by developing a small bulb-like projection called a bud, which eventually detaches to become an independent organism.iv. Spore formation $\rightarrow$ d. Clostridium and BacillusClostridium and Bacillus are bacteria famous for forming highly resistant endospores to survive unfavorable conditions.
2026 Prelims General Science
In Mendel's pea plant experiments, which of the following is recessive? 
A The trait that appears in all F, hybrids
B The trait that hides in F, but reappears in F,
C The trait that increases with each generation
D The trait that only appears in the parental generation
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Gregor Mendel's laws of inheritance clearly define dominant and recessive traits based on how they behave across generations:

In the F1 generation: When Mendel crossed two pure-breeding plants with contrasting traits (e.g., Tall × Dwarf), the recessive trait completely disappears (hides). All the hybrid plants display only the dominant trait (Tall).

In the F2 generation: When these F1 plants are self-pollinated, the hidden recessive trait reappears in a strict mathematical ratio of roughly 3:1 (3 dominant to 1 recessive).

Why the other options are incorrect:
A) The trait that appears in all F1 hybrids: This defines a dominant trait, not a recessive one.

C) The trait that increases with each generation: Traits do not automatically increase in frequency across generations just by being dominant or recessive; their proportions follow predictable genetic ratios.

D) The trait that only appears in the parental generation: Recessive traits do not vanish forever; they skip the F1  generation and reliably show back up in the F2 generation.
2026 Prelims General Science
Which of the following ozone-depleting substances are correctly matched with their primary sources? 
A Halons Soil fumigant
B Methyl bromide - Degreasing solvent
C Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) Fire extinguishers
D Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) Refrigerants and aerosol propellants
Correct Answer: Option D
Here is why this match is correct and where the other ozone-depleting substances (ODS) actually come from:

The Correct Match
D) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs): Historically used extensively as cooling fluids in refrigerants (like air conditioners and refrigerators) and as propellants in aerosol spray cans. Because of their severe impact on the ozone layer, they have been heavily phased out globally under the Montreal Protocol.

Mismatched Pairs Corrected
A) Halons: Their primary source is fire extinguishers and explosion suppression systems, not soil fumigants.

B) Methyl bromide: This is a broad-spectrum pesticide used primarily as an agricultural soil fumigant to control pests, weeds, and diseases. It is not used as a degreasing solvent.

C) Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs): Developed as temporary replacements for CFCs, their primary use is in refrigeration, air conditioning, and foam manufacturing, rather than fire extinguishers.
2026 Prelims General Science
The correct sequence in an aquatic food chain is: 
A Algae →Crab →Sea urchins→ Squid →Tiger shark → Spotted dolphin
B Sea urchins → Algae →Crab →Squid → Spotted dolphin → Tiger shark
C Algae →Sea urchins→ Crab →Squid → Tiger shark → Spotted dolphin
D Tiger shark → Spotted dolphin → Squid → Crab→ Sea urchins → Algae
Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation:
In this specific question, the arrows (→) are used to represent "eats" (the predator pointing to its prey) or the sequence is written from the highest trophic level (apex predator) down to the primary producer:

Tiger shark (Apex Predator) eats the dolphin.

Spotted dolphin (Tertiary Consumer) eats the squid.

Squid (Secondary Consumer) eats the crab.

Crab (Secondary/Primary Consumer) eats the sea urchin.

Sea urchins (Primary Consumer/Herbivore) eat the algae.  
Monitor National Marine Sanctuary - NOAA

Algae (Primary Producer) forms the base of the aquatic food chain using sunlight.

When read from right to left (Algae ← Sea urchins ← Crab ← Squid ← Spotted dolphin ← Tiger shark), it perfectly outlines the natural flow of energy in a marine ecosystem.
2026 Prelims General Science
Classify the following substances as biodegradable and non-biodegradable Animal bones, Leather:  
A Biodegradable: Animal bones, Leather:Non-Biodegradable: DDT. Mercury, Lead, Silver foils
B Biodegradable: DDT. Animal bones, Leather: Non-Biodegradable: Mercury Lead, Silver foils
C Biodegradable: Mercury, Lead: Non-Biodegradable: DDT. Silver foils, Leather, Leather
D Biodegradable: DDT, Silver foils, Animal bones; Non-Biodegradable: Mercury, Lead, Leather
Correct Answer: Option A
1. Biodegradable Substances
These are organic materials that can be broken down naturally into simpler, harmless molecules by microorganisms (like bacteria and fungi) over time.

Animal bones: Composed of organic collagen matrices and minerals; they decay naturally over time.

Leather: Made from animal hides, which are organic matter and will naturally decompose.

2. Non-Biodegradable Substances
These are synthetic materials, toxic chemicals, or heavy metals that cannot be broken down by biological processes. They persist in the environment for a very long time, often causing pollution.

DDT (Dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane): A synthetic pesticide notorious for resisting degradation and accumulating in the food chain (biomagnification).

Mercury & Lead: Toxic heavy metals that are elemental in nature and cannot be decomposed.

Silver foils: Metals do not break down through microbial action.
2026 Prelims General Science
Which of the following terms is NOT related to the structural and functional unit of the kidney?
A Nephrons
B Bowman's capsule
C Glottis
D Glomerulus
Correct Answer: Option C
Why "Glottis" is NOT related to the kidney:
The glottis is a structure found in the respiratory system, not the excretory system. It is the slit-like opening between the vocal cords in the larynx (voice box) that helps produce sound and prevents food from entering the windpipe when you swallow.

Kidney Structures Explained:
The structural and functional unit of the kidney is the nephron. The other three terms are all vital components of this filtration system:

A) Nephrons: Millions of microscopic tubes within each kidney that actively filter blood, remove waste, and form urine.

B) Bowman's capsule: A cup-like sac at the beginning of the tubular component of a nephron in the mammalian kidney that performs the first step in the filtration of blood.

D) Glomerulus: A tiny cluster of looping blood capillaries nestled inside the Bowman's capsule that acts as the actual sieve, filtering water and soluble substances out of the blood.
2026 Prelims General Science
Which plant structures function as gateways for gas exchange? 
A Lenticels
B Stomata
C Xylem
D Phloem
Correct Answer: Option B
(Note: Depending on the context of your test, B) Stomata is often considered the primary answer for leaves, but scientifically both Stomata and Lenticels act as gateways for gas exchange in plants).

Here is a breakdown of how these structures function as gateways, along with why the other options are incorrect:

Gas Exchange Gateways
B) Stomata: These are microscopic pores found primarily on the epidermis of leaves and green stems. They are surrounded by guard cells that open and close to regulate the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen, as well as water vapor during transpiration.

A) Lenticels: These are porous tissues found on the bark of woody stems and roots of mature plants. Because woody bark is impermeable to gases, lenticels provide a pathway for the internal tissues to exchange gases with the surrounding atmosphere.

Transport Tissues (Incorrect Options)
C) Xylem: This is a vascular tissue responsible for transporting water and dissolved minerals upwards from the roots to the leaves. It does not handle gas exchange.

D) Phloem: This is a vascular tissue responsible for transporting soluble organic compounds (like sucrose/food made during photosynthesis) from the leaves to the rest of the plant. It also does not function as a gas exchange gateway.
2026 Prelims General Science
Which term best describes the mode of nutrition in both yeast and mushrooms? 
A Saprophytic
B Autotrophic
C Parasitic
D Holozoic
Correct Answer: Option A
Here is a quick look at why this term perfectly describes both organisms:

What it means: Saprophytic nutrition is a type of heterotrophic nutrition where organisms feed on dead and decaying organic matter.

How it works: Both yeast and mushrooms belong to the Kingdom Fungi. Since they lack chlorophyll, they cannot perform photosynthesis (ruling out Autotrophic). Instead, they release digestive enzymes directly onto dead organic matter outside their bodies to break it down, and then they absorb the soluble nutrients.

Why the other options are incorrect:
B) Autotrophic: Organisms (like green plants) manufacture their own food using sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide.

C) Parasitic: Organisms live on or inside a living host organism and derive nutrients at the expense of the host (e.g., tapeworms or leeches).

D) Holozoic: Organisms ingest solid organic matter, which is then digested and absorbed inside their bodies (e.g., humans, amoebas).
2026 Prelims General Science
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the extraction of metals in accordance with the activity series? 
I. Highly reactive metals (like sodium and potassium) are extracted by electrolysis of their molten compounds. 
II. Moderately reactive metals (zinc, iron, lead, etc.) are extracted by reduction using carbon or carbon monoxide. 
 III. Less reactive metals (copper, mercury) can be obtained simply by heating ores. 

 Choose the correct option 
A Only II
B Only I and III
C Only II and III
D All of the above
Correct Answer: Option D
I. Highly Reactive Metals (Sodium, Potassium, Calcium, Magnesium, Aluminium)
Mechanism: These metals are placed at the very top of the activity series. They have a very high affinity for oxygen and cannot be reduced by carbon.

Extraction Method: They are extracted through the electrolysis of their molten chloride or oxide compounds. For example, sodium is obtained at the cathode by the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride (NaCl).

II. Moderately Reactive Metals (Zinc, Iron, Lead)
Mechanism: These metals are placed in the middle of the activity series. They are usually found in nature as oxides, sulfides, or carbonates.

Extraction Method: Sulfide and carbonate ores are first converted into metal oxides (via roasting or calcination). These oxides are then reduced to the free metal using a reducing agent like carbon (coke) or carbon monoxide. For example, zinc oxide (ZnO) is reduced to zinc using carbon.

III. Less Reactive Metals (Copper, Mercury)
Mechanism: These metals are situated near the bottom of the activity series. Their oxides are chemically unstable when heated.

Extraction Method: They can be obtained simply by heating their ores in the presence of air (self-reduction). For example, heating cinnabar (HgS, an ore of mercury) first converts it to mercuric oxide (HgO), which upon further heating decomposes directly into liquid mercury metal.
2026 Prelims General Science
Which of the following pairs is correct with respect to ores and the metals present in these ores? 
A Sulphate ores; Iron (Iron pyrites, FeS,)
B Oxide ores - Zinc (Hemimorphite, 2ZnO-SiO₂H₂O)
C Halide ores - Silver (Horn silver, AgCl)
D Silicate ores - Lead (Anglesite, PbSO₄)
Correct Answer: Option C
C) Halide ores - Silver (Horn silver, AgCl)Why it's correct: Horn silver consists of silver and chlorine (a halogen). Because the dominant anion is a halide ($Cl^-$), it is correctly classified as a halide ore.Incorrect Pairs ExplainedA) Sulphate ores - Iron (Iron pyrites, $FeS_2$)Why it's incorrect: Iron pyrites ($FeS_2$) is a sulfide ore, not a sulfate ore. Sulfates contain the $SO_4^{2-}$ group, while pyrites contain sulfur directly bonded to iron as a sulfide.B) Oxide ores - Zinc (Hemimorphite, $2ZnO \cdot SiO_2 \cdot H_2O$)Why it's incorrect: Hemimorphite is primarily classified as a silicate ore because its chemical structure is built around silicon and oxygen ($SiO_4$ groups), rather than being a simple oxide.D) Silicate ores - Lead (Anglesite, $PbSO_4$)Why it's incorrect: Anglesite ($PbSO_4$) contains the sulfate group ($SO_4^{2-}$), making it a sulfate ore, not a silicate ore.
2026 Prelims General Science
Arrange the following metals in decreasing order of reactivity 
 
I. Gold 
II. Calcium 
III. Silver 
IV. Cobalt
V. Magnesium 
VI. Nickel
VII. Platinum 
VIII. Lithium 

Choose the correct option: 
A I
B VIII
C VIII
D VIII
Correct Answer: Option B
The Correct Reactivity Order (From Most Reactive to Least Reactive):
Lithium (VIII) — Most reactive  
Scribd

Calcium (II)

Magnesium (V)

Cobalt (IV)

Nickel (VI)

Silver (III)

Gold (I)

Platinum (VII) — Least reactive  
Scribd

Explanation:
The reactivity series ranks metals based on how easily they lose electrons to form positive ions.  
Chemistry Learner

Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals (Lithium, Calcium, Magnesium): Sits at the very top of the series because they have a single or double electron in their outermost shell, making them highly reactive with water and acids.

Transition Metals (Cobalt, Nickel): Moderately reactive metals that react slowly with acids.

Noble Metals (Silver, Gold, Platinum): Found at the very bottom of the reactivity series. They are highly unreactive, do not react easily with oxygen or acids, and Platinum sits at the absolute bottom as the least reactive metal of all.  
Chemistry Learner

Following this exact chemical sequence yields the order: VIII, II, V, IV, VI, III, I, VII (or VII, I at the very end depending on the specific textbook chart, matching the sequence listed in option B).
2026 Prelims General Science
What happens when magnesium sulphate solution is added to copper metal?
A Copper displaces magnesium, forming copper sulphate
B Magnesium displaces copper, forming magnesium sulphate
C Hydrogen gas is evolved
D No reaction occurs
Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation:
This question is based on the reactivity series of metals, which ranks metals from most reactive to least reactive.

Magnesium is a highly reactive metal and sits near the top of the reactivity series.

Copper is a much less reactive metal and sits near the bottom of the series.

Because copper is less reactive than magnesium, it does not possess enough chemical "strength" to displace magnesium from its solution. Therefore, when you place copper metal into a magnesium sulphate solution, they will not react with each other at all.
2026 Prelims General Science
Which gas is produced when water reacts with calcium?  
A Hydrogen
B Oxygen
C Carbon dioxide
D Nitrogen
Correct Answer: Option A
When calcium metal reacts with water, it undergoes a chemical reaction to produce calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

The reaction is moderately exothermic (releases heat), causing the hydrogen gas bubbles to stick to the surface of the calcium metal. Because of these trapped gas bubbles, the calcium metal actually begins to float on the water's surface.
2026 Prelims General Science
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding metals? 

I.  Form basic oxides
II. Good reducing agents
III. High electronegativity
IV. High ionization energy

Choose the correct option: 
A Only I, II
B Only III and I IV
C Only I, II and IV
D Only II, III and IV
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation:
I. Form basic oxides (Correct): Metals react with oxygen to form metal oxides, which are basic in nature because they react with water to form bases (such as sodium oxide reacting with water to form sodium hydroxide).

II. Good reducing agents (Correct): Metals have a strong tendency to lose electrons easily during chemical reactions. Because they donate electrons and reduce other substances, they act as excellent reducing agents.

III. High electronegativity (Incorrect): Metals have low electronegativity. They prefer to lose electrons rather than attract them. Non-metals are the ones with high electronegativity.

IV. High ionization energy (Incorrect): Metals have low ionization energy, meaning it requires relatively little energy to remove an electron from their outermost shell. This is why they easily form positive ions.
2026 Prelims General Science
Which of the following non-metals exists in the liquid state at room temperature? 
A Sulphur
B Bromine
C Phosphorus
D Iodine
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Bromine is the only non-metal that exists as a liquid at room temperature and pressure. It is a reddish-brown liquid that easily evaporates into a gas.

Sulphur and Phosphorus are solid non-metals.

Iodine is a lustrous, dark gray/purple solid non-metal.
2026 Prelims General Science
Which of the following statements is NOT related to Ocean Energy? 
A Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion generates electricity due to the temperature difference between warm air above the sea surface and cold ocean water to drive a turbine.
B Tidal barrage systems are dam-like structures across ocean inlets that use tidal flow through turbines during high and low tides to generate electricity.
C Tidal stream systems use underwater turbines placed in moving tidal currents to convert the kinetic energy of flowing water into electricity.
D Wave energy systems convert the mechanical motion of ocean waves into electrical energy.
Correct Answer: Option A
Why is this statement incorrect?
Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) does not use the temperature difference between the air and the water. Instead, it works by exploiting the temperature difference between warm surface seawater and cold deep ocean water (typically from around 800–1,000 meters deep) to run a heat engine and generate electricity.

All the other options (B, C, and D) accurately describe genuine methods of capturing ocean energy (Tidal Barrages, Tidal Streams, and Wave Energy).
2026 Prelims General Science
Identify the correct source of energy based on the following statements.

 I. It is a non-renewable but low-carbon energy source. 
 II. It is a reliable source of energy but poses challenges related to radioactive waste disposal and safety concerns. 
III. A huge amount of energy is released through the fission process.   
A Compressed Natural Gas
B Petroleum Products
C Fossil Fuels
D Nuclear Fuels
Correct Answer: Option D
Here is why:

Statement I: Nuclear energy is considered non-renewable because it relies on uranium or plutonium ore, which are finite resources. However, it is a low-carbon energy source because the generation process does not emit greenhouse gases.

Statement II: It provides a highly reliable, continuous baseload of power, but managing radioactive waste and preventing meltdowns are its biggest hurdles.

Statement III: The energy is harvested explicitly through nuclear fission (splitting the nuclei of heavy atoms).
2026 Prelims General Science
Match the following Organic Acids with their corresponding sources
ACIDS SOURCES

i. Oxalic acid a. Dark chocolate
ii. Acetic acid b. Ant sting
iii. Ascorbic acid c. Apples
iv. Methanoic acid d. Guava, amla
v. Malic acid e. Vinegar

Choose the correct option:
A i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d, v-e
B i-e, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a, v-b
C i-b, ii-a, iii-e, iv-c, v-d
D i-a, ii-e, iii-d, iv-b, v-c
Correct Answer: Option D
Here is the correct breakdown of each organic acid and its corresponding source:i. Oxalic acid $\rightarrow$ a. Dark chocolate (Also found in spinach and cocoa)ii. Acetic acid $\rightarrow$ e. Vinegar (Vinegar is a dilute solution of acetic acid)iii. Ascorbic acid $\rightarrow$ d. Guava, amla (Commonly known as Vitamin C, highly abundant in citrus and sour fruits)iv. Methanoic acid $\rightarrow$ b. Ant sting (Also known as formic acid, responsible for the stinging sensation)v. Malic acid $\rightarrow$ c. Apples (The primary acid responsible for the sour taste in apples)
2026 Prelims General Science
If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational force becomes:
A Double
B Four times
C Half
D One-fourth
Correct Answer: Option D
According to the gravitational force law, force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between two masses. If the distance is doubled:

Force becomes = 1 / (2²) = 1 / 4

So the gravitational force becomes one-fourth of its original value.

J&K 2 questions

2026 Prelims J&K
Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Jhelum?

I. NikiTawi
II. Veshaw river
III. Brengi river
IV. Jajhar
V. Rambiara river

Choose the correct option:
A I, II and III only
B II, III and IV only
C II, III and V only
D II, III, IV and V only
Correct Answer: Option C
The rivers listed are studied under the Jhelum River Basin of Jammu & Kashmir.

Veshaw River → tributary of the Jhelum.
Brengi River → tributary of the Jhelum.
Rambiara River → tributary of the Jhelum.
Niki Tawi → associated with the Tawi basin, not a tributary of the Jhelum.
Jajhar (Jajjar) → generally not counted among the principal tributaries of the Jhelum in standard J&K geography references.
2026 Prelims J&K
Which of the following was not a provision under the J&K Reorganization Act, 2019?
A The J&K High Court became the common high court for both UTs.
B Judges appointed to the High Court are selected by the Union Government only.
C The UT of J&K will have its own legislative assembly of 107-114 members.
D The act provides that the administration of Jammu and Kashmir will be as per Article 239A of the Indian Constitution.
Correct Answer: Option B
This is not a provision of the J&K Reorganisation Act. High Court judges are appointed by the President following the constitutional procedure involving consultation with the judiciary (Collegium system), not solely by the Union Government.

Environment & Ecology 1 questions

2026 Prelims Environment & Ecology
Which of the following species in the J&K region has Endangered status as per the IUCN Red Book?

I. Hangul
II. Snow Leopard
III. Ibex
IV. Himalayan Tahr
V. Markhor
VI. Cheer Pheasant

Choose the correct option:
A I, III, IV and V only
B II, IV, V and VI only
C II, III, IV and VI only
D All of the above
Correct Answer: Option B
However, based on the latest IUCN Red List categories, none of the options is perfectly correct because:


Hangul = Critically Endangered


Snow Leopard = Vulnerable


Ibex = Least Concern


Himalayan Tahr = Near Threatened


Markhor = Near Threatened


Cheer Pheasant = Vulnerable

Geography 4 questions

2026 Prelims Geography
Match the following:

Districts Products under One District One Product (ODOP)
i. Baramulla a. Pickles
ii. Udhampur b. Apples
iii. Samba c. Honey
iv. Ramban d. Mushroom products

Choose the correct option:
A i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
B i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
C i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
D i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
Correct Answer: Option C
Correct Matching Breakdowni. Baramulla ➡️ b. Apples: Baramulla is heavily recognized for its vast apple orchards and high-quality production, earning it the reputation of an apple hub in Jammu & Kashmir.ii. Udhampur ➡️ a. Pickles: Under the Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PMFME) scheme's ODOP list, Udhampur is designated for pickles.iii. Samba ➡️ d. Mushroom products: Samba's climatic conditions make it exceptionally suitable for the cultivation and processing of white button and oyster mushrooms.iv. Ramban ➡️ c. Honey: Ramban is highly famous for its organic Sulai honey, which is extracted from rich wild mountain flora.
2026 Prelims Geography
How many of the following pairs are correct?

Wetlands Major associated District
Hokersar wetland Srinagar district
Mansar lake Samba district
Wular lake Bandipora district
Hygam wetland Baramulla district
Choose the correct option:

A One pair only
B Two pairs only
C Three pairs only
D All of the above
Correct Answer: Option D
The correct option is D) All of the above.
Breakdown of the PairsHokersar wetland – Srinagar district: Correct. It is a designated Ramsar site and bird sanctuary located primarily within the Srinagar district (with portions extending into Budgam) of Jammu and Kashmir. Mansar lake – Samba district: Correct. Mansar Lake, known along with its twin lake Surinsar as a Ramsar site, is situated in the Samba district. Wular lake – Bandipora district: Correct. Asia's largest freshwater lake is situated in the Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir. Hygam wetland – Baramulla district: Correct. Also known as Haigam Wetland Conservation Reserve, this Ramsar site is located in the Sopore area of the Baramulla district.Since all four matches are completely accurate, All of the above is the right choice.
2026 Prelims Geography
Match the following ports with their associated features
Ports Special features

i. Kamrajar port a. first corporatised major port
ii. JNPT port b. first deep-water transhipment hub
iii. Paradip port c. India's first landlord-model port
iv. Vizhinjam port d. Top cargo-handling major port

Choose the correct option
A i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
B i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
C i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
D i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
Correct Answer: Option C
PortFeatureDescriptioni. Kamrajar Port (Ennore)a. First corporatised major portLocated in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, it is the only major port in India that is registered as a public company rather than managed by a government trust.ii. JNPT Port (Nhava Sheva)c. India's first landlord-model portLocated in Maharashtra, it became India's first 100% Landlord Major Port, meaning the port authority acts as a regulatory body and landlord, while private firms manage the terminal operations.iii. Paradip Portd. Top cargo-handling major portLocated in Odisha, it recently surpassed Deendayal Port (Kandla) to achieve the highest annual cargo throughput among all major ports in India.iv. Vizhinjam Portb. First deep-water transhipment hubLocated near Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, this strategic, deep-draft mega port is India's first dedicated deep-water container transhipment port.
2026 Prelims Geography
Two places, X (terrestrial) and Y (marine), are at the same latitude. During summer, Place X records 42°C and Place Y records 32°C. During winter, Place X records 0°C and Place Y records 10°C. What is the most plausible explanation?
A Variation in the altitudes of Place X and Y
B Land has a higher specific heat capacity than oceans
C Land has a lower specific heat capacity than oceans
D Variation in thermal insulation at places X and Y
Correct Answer: Option C
This phenomenon is driven by the principle of differential heating of land and water: Specific Heat Capacity: This is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1°C.Water (Ocean) has a remarkably high specific heat capacity. It acts like a giant thermal buffer—it heats up very slowly during the summer and cools down very slowly during the winter. This creates a maritime effect, keeping Place Y's temperatures moderate year-round ($32^\circ\text{C}$ in summer, $10^\circ\text{C}$ in winter).Land (Terrestrial) has a lower specific heat capacity. It heats up very rapidly under solar radiation and loses its heat just as quickly when the sun goes away. This creates a continental climate, leading to extreme temperature swings at Place X ($42^\circ\text{C}$ in summer, $0^\circ\text{C}$ in winter).

History 2 questions

2026 Prelims History
Which of the following statements about Rauf is/are correct?

I. Rauf is a traditional folk dance performed on typical folk songs in the Kashmir dialect.
II. It is typically a solo performance by a woman only.
III. Dancers wear traditional Kashmiri attire, including pherans (long, flowing gowns) and ornate jewelry.

Choose the correct option:
A I only
B I and II only
C I and III
D I, II and III
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation
Statement I is correct: Rouf (also spelled Rauf) is one of the most celebrated traditional folk dances of Jammu and Kashmir. It is practiced during the harvesting season, spring festivals, and celebratory occasions like Eid, with dancers singing rhythmic folk verses in the local Kashmiri dialect.

Statement II is incorrect: Rouf is strictly a group dance, never a solo performance. Women form two long, parallel rows facing each other, link their arms around each other's shoulders or waists, and perform synchronized, rhythmic forward-and-backward swaying steps.

Statement III is correct: The dancers wear gorgeous, traditional Kashmiri clothing, predominantly featuring the Pheran (long, embroidered woolen or cotton gowns), and accessorize with intricate silver jewelry and traditional headgear (Taranga or Kasaba).

Since Statements I and III are accurate, but Statement II is incorrect, Option C is the correct response.
2026 Prelims History
Arrange the following battles of the First Anglo-Sikh War in chronological order:

I. Battle of Mudki
II. Battle of Ferozeshah
III. Battle of Aliwal
IV. Battle of Sobraon

Choose the correct option
A I-II-III-IV
B I-III-II-IV
C II-I-III-IV
D II-III-I-IV
Correct Answer: Option A
The First Anglo-Sikh War (1845–1846) was fought between the British East India Company and the Sikh Empire (Sikh Khalsa Army). The battles occurred in the following exact chronological sequence:

Battle of Mudki (18 December 1845): The opening battle of the war where British forces under Sir Hugh Gough intercepted the advancing Sikh army.

Battle of Ferozeshah (21–22 December 1845): Fought just days after Mudki, this was one of the fiercest battles where the British suffered heavy casualties but ultimately forced a Sikh retreat due to betrayals in the Sikh leadership.

Battle of Aliwal (28 January 1846): Fought by a British force led by Sir Harry Smith, resulting in a decisive victory that cleared the Sikh threat to the British supply lines.

Battle of Sobraon (10 February 1846): The final, bloody battle of the war. The British comprehensively defeated the Sikh army, leading directly to the signing of the Treaty of Lahore and the subjugation of the Sikh Empire.

Economy 1 questions

2026 Prelims Economy
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses aims to make India self-sufficient in pulses by 2030-31.
Statement II: The mission seeks to reduce import dependence, boost domestic production of pulses and sustainably improve farmers' incomes.

Which of the statement is/are correct:
A Statement I and Statement II are correct
B Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
C Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation
Statement I is correct: The Union Cabinet approved the centrally sponsored "Mission for Aatmanirbharta in Pulses" (launched following the Union Budget 2025-26). The mission is set for a six-year implementation timeline from 2025-26 to 2030-31 with the explicit target of expanding cultivation area, increasing yield, and making India completely self-sufficient in pulses by 2030-31.  
Press Release Page | Press Information Bureau

Statement II is correct: The core vision of the scheme is to bridge the demand-supply gap in major pulses (such as Tur, Urad, and Masoor). It explicitly aims to reduce import dependence (conserving valuable foreign exchange), boost domestic production through the distribution of high-yielding certified seed kits, and sustainably improve farmers' incomes through a 100% assured procurement mechanism under PM-AASHA.  
Drishti IAS
+ 1

Since both statements accurately describe the timeline, target year, and primary objectives of the government mission, Option A is the right choice.

Reasoning 15 questions

2026 Prelims Reasoning
Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): No cat is a dog.
Reason (R): Some dogs are pets.

Choose the correct option:
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C A is true but R is false
D A is false but R is true
Correct Answer: Option B
Here is the step-by-step logical breakdown:

1. Evaluating the Assertion (A)
Statement: "No cat is a dog."

Is it true? Yes. Cats and dogs are completely different species. No animal can be both a cat and a dog at the same time.

2. Evaluating the Reason (R)
Statement: "Some dogs are pets."

Is it true? Yes. Many dogs are kept as pets, while others might be wild or working animals.

3. Evaluating the Explanation
To see if R explains A, we ask: Does the fact that some dogs are pets cause or prove that no cat is a dog?

No, it does not. The two statements are talking about entirely different relationships. One is about the boundary between cats and dogs, and the other is about dogs being pets. Cats and dogs would still be separate species even if no dogs were pets.

Therefore, while both statements are completely true on their own, the Reason has nothing to do with the Assertion and is not the correct explanation for it.

Correct Answer: B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
2026 Prelims Reasoning
Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): All squares are rectangles.
Reason (R): All rectangles have four right angles.

Choose the correct option:
A Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C A is true but R is false
D A is false but R is true
Correct Answer: Option B
The correct option is B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Here is the step-by-step breakdown of why:

1. Evaluating the Assertion (A)
Statement: "All squares are rectangles."

Is it true? Yes. By definition, a rectangle is a four-sided shape with four right angles. Since a square also has four sides and four right angles, it technically qualifies as a special type of rectangle (one where all four sides are equal).

2. Evaluating the Reason (R)
Statement: "All rectangles have four right angles."

Is it true? Yes. Having four right angles is a defining property of a rectangle.

3. Evaluating the Explanation
To be a rectangle, a shape only needs to have four sides and four right angles.

To be a square, a shape must have four right angles and all four sides must be equal in length.

The reason why a square is a rectangle is because it meets the definition of a rectangle (four right angles). However, stating that "all rectangles have four right angles" does not explain why a square specifically fits into that category. The missing link in the explanation is that squares also have four right angles.

Therefore, while both statements are completely true on their own, the Reason does not act as the correct explanation for the Assertion.

Correct Answer: B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
2026 Prelims Reasoning
Consider the following statement:

Statement: All teachers are educated.
Conclusion: Some educated people are teachers.
A True
B False
C Cannot be determined
D Invalid
Correct Answer: Option A
Why the conclusion is True:
This is a classic problem of syllogism and set subset logic.

The statement says "All teachers are educated." This means the category of "Teachers" sits entirely inside the larger category of "Educated people."

Because the "Teacher" group is inside the "Educated" group, those specific educated people who are teachers make up some of the total educated population. Therefore, it is absolutely true that "Some educated people are teachers."


Visualizing with a Venn Diagram:
In logic, this is easily solved using sets.

As you can see from the visual layout, the entire "Teachers" circle is a part of the "Educated" circle. Thus, the section where they overlap proves that "some" (and in this specific case, at least all teachers) educated people are indeed teachers.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
Consider the following statement:

Statement: "There has been a sharp increase in online education platforms."
Possible Causes:
I. Affordable internet availability
II. Increased demand for flexible learning.

Choose the correct option:
A Only I
B Only II
C Both I and II
D Neither I nor II
Correct Answer: Option C
Why C is the correct answer:
Cause I (Affordable internet): Acts as the infrastructure facilitator. Without cheap and accessible internet, mass adoption of online learning wouldn't be possible.

Cause II (Demand for flexibility): Acts as the consumer driver. Working professionals and students increasingly look for courses they can take at their own pace and comfort.

Both factors directly independent or combined forces to create the "sharp increase" stated.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
Introducing a woman, Raj said," She is the wife of the only son of my mother-in-law." How is the woman related to Raj?
A Sister
B Wife
C Sister-in-law
D Cousin
Correct Answer: Option C
Here is the step-by-step breakdown of the relationships to see why:

Start with "my mother-in-law": This is the mother of Raj's wife.

Next, look at "the only son of my mother-in-law": The only son of Raj's mother-in-law would be his wife's brother (Raj's brother-in-law).

Finally, look at "the wife of the only son": This means the woman is the wife of Raj's brother-in-law.

Therefore, the woman is Raj's sister-in-law (specifically, his wife's brother's wife, or his brother-in-law's wife).

Let's re-read the options provided:
A) Sister
B) Wife
C) Sister-in-law
D) Cousin

The woman is Raj's Sister-in-law, which corresponds to option C.

(Self-correction: If Raj were a woman, "my mother-in-law's only son" would be her husband, and "the wife of my husband" wouldn't make sense in this context. Since Raj is a male name here, the mother-in-law's only son is his brother-in-law, making the woman his sister-in-law).
2026 Prelims Reasoning
If A+B means A is the mother of B, A-B means A is the brother of B, A×B means A is the father of B, What does P-Q×R+S mean?
A P is maternal uncle of S
B P is paternal uncle of S
C P is father of S
D P is brother of S
Correct Answer: Option B
Here is the step-by-step breakdown of the relationships, decoding the expression from left to right:

P-Q means P is the brother of Q.

Q×R means Q is the father of R. (Since P and Q are brothers, P is the uncle of R).

R+S means R is the mother of S.

Now, let's trace the connection from P to S:

Q is the father of R, and R is the mother of S. This makes Q the grandfather of S.

Since P is Q's brother, P is the brother of S's grandfather.

Looking at the options provided, there is a common slight variation in traditional family tree terminology here. In many standard puzzle keys, this relationship structure is classified under the uncle/grand-uncle umbrella. Let's re-verify the specific wording: P is the brother of S's grandfather, which makes him a great-uncle on the father's side of the family (paternal line). Among the given choices, Paternal uncle is the closest fit.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
A man faces south. He turns 90º clockwise, then 180° anticlockwise, and again 270° clock wise. Which direction is he facing now?
A North
B East
C South
D West
Correct Answer: Option B
Here is the step-by-step breakdown of the man's turns:

Starting Position: The man is facing South.

First Turn (90 degrees clockwise): Moving clockwise from South brings him to face West.

Second Turn (180 degrees anticlockwise): A 180-degree turn means facing the exact opposite direction. The opposite of West is East.

Third Turn (270 degrees clockwise): A 270-degree turn is three-quarters of a full circle. Moving clockwise from East, he goes past South (90 degrees), past West (180 degrees), and finishes facing North.

Let's look at a simpler way to combine all the turns to double-check:

Total clockwise movement: 90 degrees plus 270 degrees equals 360 degrees.

Total anticlockwise movement: 180 degrees.

Subtracting the anticlockwise movement from the clockwise movement leaves a net result of a 180-degree clockwise turn.

Making a 180-degree turn from his original South facing position means he ends up facing directly opposite, which is North.

Wait, let's re-verify the net calculation carefully:

Start: South

Clockwise: 90 degrees (Now West)

Anticlockwise: 180 degrees from West (Now East)

Clockwise: 270 degrees from East. Let's count 90-degree steps clockwise from East:

90 degrees clockwise from East is South.

180 degrees clockwise from East is West.

270 degrees clockwise from East is North.

So the final direction is North, which corresponds to A) North.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
Ravi walks 15 m east, then 12 m north, then 15 m west, and finally 5 m south. In which direction is Ravi now with respect to his starting point?
A North
B North-West
C South
D North-East
Correct Answer: Option A
Here is the step-by-step breakdown of Ravi's movement:

Step 1: Ravi starts at a point and walks 15 meters East.

Step 2: He turns left and walks 12 meters North.

Step 3: He turns left again and walks 15 meters West. Since this is the exact same distance as his first walk but in the opposite direction, he is now directly aligned with his original starting point, just 12 meters north of it.

Step 4: Finally, he turns left and walks 5 meters South (back toward his starting line).

To find his final position relative to the start:
He was 12 meters north, and then he moved 5 meters back south. This leaves him exactly 7 meters away from his starting point, straight ahead in the North direction.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
If DOG is written as WLT, how is CAT written?
A XZG
B XZK
C XZL
D YZL
Correct Answer: Option A
Here is how the code works:

Each letter in the word is replaced by its exact opposite letter from the reverse side of the alphabet. This means the first letter of the alphabet (A) pairs with the last letter (Z), the second letter (B) pairs with the second-to-last letter (Y), and so on.

Looking at DOG:

D is the 4th letter from the start, so it pairs with W (the 4th letter from the end).

O is the 12th letter from the end, so it pairs with L (the 12th letter from the start).

G is the 7th letter from the start, so it pairs with T (the 7th letter from the end).

Applying this exact same rule to CAT:

C is the 3rd letter from the start, so it pairs with X (the 3rd letter from the end).

A is the 1st letter from the start, so it pairs with Z (the 1st letter from the end).

T is the 7th letter from the end, so it pairs with G (the 7th letter from the start).

Putting it together, CAT becomes XZG.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
If COMPUTER is coded as FRPSXWHU, how is SCIENCE coded?
A VFLHQFH
B VFNHQFH
C VFJHQFH
D UFLHQFH
Correct Answer: Option A
Here is how the code works:

Every letter in the word COMPUTER is shifted forward by exactly 3 letters in the alphabet to get FRPSXWHU.

C moves forward 3 steps to F

O moves forward 3 steps to R

M moves forward 3 steps to P

P moves forward 3 steps to S

U moves forward 3 steps to X

T moves forward 3 steps to W

E moves forward 3 steps to H

R moves forward 3 steps to U

Now, apply this exact same "shift forward by 3" rule to the word SCIENCE:

S moves forward 3 steps (T, U, V) → V

C moves forward 3 steps (D, E, F) → F

I moves forward 3 steps (J, K, L) → L

E moves forward 3 steps (F, G, H) → H

N moves forward 3 steps (O, P, Q) → Q

C moves forward 3 steps (D, E, F) → F

E moves forward 3 steps (F, G, H) → H

Putting it all together, SCIENCE becomes VFLHQFH.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
Complete the Letter Series: A, C, B, E, D, H, ?
A F
B G
C E
D I
Correct Answer: Option A
This series actually consists of two alternating patterns combined into one. If you split the series into every other letter, the logic becomes very clear:

The First Pattern (1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th letters): A, B, D, ?

From A to B, we move forward 1 step.

From B to D, we move forward 2 steps.

Following this logic, from D to the next letter, we must move forward 3 steps. Moving forward 3 steps from D gives us G. (However, this would be the eighth letter in the series, not the seventh one we are looking for).

The Second Pattern (2nd, 4th, 6th, 7th letters):
C, E, H, ?

From C to E, we move forward 2 steps.

From E to H, we move forward 3 steps.

This pattern isn't the one filling our missing slot either, but it confirms how the alternating sequences work.

Let's look at the connection between the pairs directly to find the seventh letter:

A and C (C is 2 steps ahead of A)

B and E (E is 3 steps ahead of B)

D and H (H is 4 steps ahead of D)

The missing letter is the companion to H in the next transition. Because the first letters of each pair (A, B, D...) follow a "+1, +2, +3" progression, the letter immediately following H must step back down to continue the alternating sequence.

Specifically, looking at how the sequence goes back and forth:

A to C (up 2)

C to B (down 1)

B to E (up 3)

E to D (down 1)

D to H (up 4)

H to ? (down 1)

Stepping back 1 letter from H gives us G.

Wait, let's re-verify the alternating positions more simply:

Position 1: A * Position 3: B (A + 1)

Position 5: D (B + 2)

Position 7 (Our Target): G (D + 3)

Let's look at the even positions:

Position 2: C

Position 4: E (C + 2)

Position 6: H (E + 3)

If the target is Position 7, it belongs to the first group: A -> B -> D -> ?.

A to B is +1

B to D is +2

D to ? is +3.

Three letters after D is G.

Let's double check if G is an option. G is option B.

Is there an alternative pattern where F is the answer?
Let's check the relation between adjacent letters:
A (1) -> C (3) : +2
C (3) -> B (2) : -1
B (2) -> E (5) : +3
E (5) -> D (4) : -1
D (4) -> H (8) : +4
H (8) -> ? : -1

If the pattern is +2, -1, +3, -1, +4, -1...
Then after H, we subtract 1.
8 minus 1 is 7, which is G.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
Complete the Letter Series: AZ, BY, CX, DW,?
A EV
B EU
C EW
D DV
Correct Answer: Option A
This series is made up of pairs of letters, and each pair follows two distinct patterns:

The First Letter: Moves forward through the alphabet: A, B, C, D... The next letter is E.

The Second Letter: Moves backward from the end of the alphabet: Z, Y, X, W... The next letter is V.

When you combine them, you get EV.

(Fun tip: These pairs are also exact opposites of each other in the alphabet! A is the 1st letter, Z is the last. B is the 2nd, Y is the 2nd to last, and so on.)
2026 Prelims Reasoning
Complete the Letter Series: Z, X, U, Q, L, ?
A G
B F
C I
D J
Correct Answer: Option B
Think of the alphabet in terms of its standard numerical positions (Z = 26, Y = 25, X = 24, and so on):

Z is the 26th letter.

X is the 24th letter (moved back 2 steps from Z).

U is the 21st letter (moved back 3 steps from X).

Q is the 17th letter (moved back 4 steps from U).

L is the 12th letter (moved back 5 steps from Q).

Following this pattern, the next step must move back 6 steps from L.

Counting back 6 steps from the 12th letter brings us to the 6th letter of the alphabet, which is F.

Therefore, the correct choice is B) F.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
Complete the Number Series: 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ?
A 18
B 20
C 21
D 22
Correct Answer: Option C
To find the missing number, we can look at how much the series increases with each step.

The difference between one and three is two.

The difference between three and six is three.

The difference between six and ten is four.

The difference between ten and fifteen is five.

The amount being added increases by one each time. Following this pattern, the next difference needs to be six.

Adding six to fifteen gives twenty one.

These numbers are also known as triangular numbers, as they can be arranged in a meaningful geometric pattern of dots.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
Complete the Number Series: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?
A 46
B 48
C 49
D 50
Correct Answer: Option B
The correct answer is option B.

To find the missing number, we can look at the pattern of how the numbers increase.

The difference between three and eight is five.

The difference between eight and fifteen is seven.

The difference between fifteen and twenty four is nine.

The difference between twenty four and thirty five is eleven.

The amount being added increases by two each time. Following this pattern, the next difference needs to be thirteen.

Adding thirteen to thirty five gives forty eight.

Therefore, the missing number is forty eight, which corresponds to option B.

About JKSSB 2026 Previous Year Questions

Practicing previous year questions is one of the most effective strategies for JKSSB exam preparation. This page contains 118 authentic questions from the JKSSB 2026 examination, complete with answers and detailed explanations.

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