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JKSSB High Court 2026 Previous Year Questions

Practice authentic exam questions with answers and explanations

80
Questions
10
Subjects
2026
Year

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Job Related Awareness 10 questions

2026 Prelims Job Related Awareness
A court employee should avoid conflict of interest because it may:
A Improve efficiency
B Affect impartiality and public trust
C Reduce workload
D Increase transparency
Correct Answer: Option B
Why Conflicts of Interest Must Be Avoided
A conflict of interest arises when a court employee's personal, financial, or family interests interfere—or even appear to interfere—with their official duties and professional judgment.

Erosion of Impartiality: If an employee stands to gain personally from the outcome of a legal matter, they cannot remain neutral, violating a core principle of natural justice.

Loss of Public Faith: The judiciary relies heavily on public confidence. Even the perception of bias or personal gain undermines the credibility and legitimacy of the legal system.

Legal & Ethical Obligation: Court staff are legally and ethically bound to recuse or disqualify themselves from handling any cases or administrative tasks involving family members, personal acquaintances, or financial interests.
2026 Prelims Job Related Awareness
A "summons" is issued by the court to:
A Punish a person
B Require appearance or response in court
C Record judgment
D Collect fines automatically
Correct Answer: Option B
The correct answer is B) Require appearance or response in court.

What is a Summons?
A summons is a formal legal notice issued by a court or administrative body ordering an individual to appear in court at a specified date and time, or to submit a written response (such as a written statement or reply) to a legal complaint/petition filed against them.

Key Distinctions:
Summons vs. Warrant: A summons is a legal order to appear, whereas a warrant authorizes law enforcement officers to arrest a person or search a premises.

Summons vs. Subpoena: While both require attendance, a summons brings a party (like a defendant) into a case, while a subpoena commands a witness to testify or produce documents.

Not a Punishment: A summons is purely a procedural tool to ensure due process and fair trial (giving the party an opportunity to be heard), not a penalty or judgment.
2026 Prelims Job Related Awareness
A Junior Assistant should verify a document before:
A Destroying it
B Processing or forwarding it
C Ignoring it
D Filing it without reading
Correct Answer: Option B
The correct answer is B) Processing or forwarding it.

Why Verification is Essential Before Processing/Forwarding
Before any file, petition, or official document is moved to the next level or acted upon, a Junior Assistant must scrutinize and verify it to ensure administrative efficiency and accuracy.

Key Verification Checks:

Completeness: Checking that all required signatures, affidavits, court fee stamps, and annexures are attached.

Accuracy: Ensuring details (such as case number, party names, and dates) match existing court records.

Jurisdiction & Compliance: Verifying that the document adheres to procedural court rules before it is submitted to the judicial officer or forwarded to another department.
2026 Prelims Job Related Awareness
Which of the following best describes the core duty of a Junior Assistant in the High Court?
A Prosecuting criminal cases in the courtroom.
B Preparing and maintaining case files and legal documents
C Passing final judgments on civil matters.
D Representing clients as a defense attorney
Correct Answer: Option B
Core Duties of a Junior Assistant
A Junior Assistant performs essential ministerial and clerical duties necessary for the smooth operation of High Court offices and registries.

Key Responsibilities:

File & Record Management: Indexing, preparing, updating, and safely maintaining pending and decided case files.

Document Processing: Verification and scrutiny of filings, petitions, affidavits, and applications submitted to the registry.

Clerical Support: Preparing cause lists, issuing notices/summons, entering data into court management systems, and drafting routine administrative correspondence.

Roles of Other Options:
Prosecuting Criminal Cases (A): Handled by State Prosecutors / Public Prosecutors.

Passing Final Judgments (C): Executed exclusively by High Court Judges / Judicial Officers.

Representing Clients (D): Handled by licensed Advocates / Defense Attorneys.
2026 Prelims Job Related Awareness
Who handles the financial matters under the directions of the Presiding Officer of a Sub-ordinate court?
A Process Server
B Stenographer
C Nazir
D Ahlimad
Correct Answer: Option C
The correct answer is C) Nazir.

Role of the Nazir in Sub-ordinate Courts
The Nazir (or Central Nazir / Naib Nazir) serves as the chief financial officer and administrative accountant of a subordinate court under the control and directions of the Presiding Officer / District Judge.

Key Duties:

Financial Administration: Receiving and disbursing court fees, fines, witness allowances, judicial deposits, and cash paid into court.

Accounting: Maintaining court cash books, ledgers, and financial registers subject to periodic audits.

Process Oversight: Managing the Nazarat branch, which oversees process servers, bailiffs, and the execution of decrees/warrants.

Roles of Other Options:
Process Server (A): Delivers court summons, notices, and warrants to individuals.

Stenographer (B): Takes dictation and transcribes court judgments, orders, and depositions.

Ahlimad (D): Manages, indexes, and maintains judicial case records and trial files.

2026 Prelims Job Related Awareness
What is the primary function of an 'Ahlimad' in the context of court procedures?
A Process Server
B Legal Clerk
C Expert Witness
D Peon
Correct Answer: Option B
Primary Function of an 'Ahlimad' (Ahlmad)An Ahlimad is a court record keeper or judicial/legal clerk in trial courts (commonly in North India, such as in Delhi, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, and Haryana). 
Key Duties: Record Maintenance: Organizing, indexing, and maintaining trial case files, judicial registers, and evidence records. File Transit & Tracking: Preparing files for daily court hearings and transmitting case files to copying sections or higher courts. Administrative Support: Assisting the presiding judge and judicial officers with administrative and clerical tasks related to pending cases. Functions of Other Options:Process Server (A): Responsible for delivering summons, subpoenas, and legal notices to parties involved. Expert Witness (C): A specialized professional called to provide expert testimony on technical or scientific matters. Peon (D): Attendants who assist with basic physical support work like carrying files and administrative errands.  
2026 Prelims Job Related Awareness
The doctrine of natural justice mainly promotes:
A Administrative secrecy
B Fairness in decision-making
C Political neutrality
D Judicial delays
Correct Answer: Option B
The correct answer is B) Fairness in decision-making.

Key Principles of Natural Justice
The doctrine of natural justice refers to fundamental concepts of fairness, procedural decency, and justice that prevent arbitrary or biased decision-making in legal and administrative proceedings. It is built on two main pillars:

Nemo judex in causa sua (No one should be a judge in their own cause): Prevents bias and ensures impartiality.

Audi alteram partem (Hear the other side): Guarantees that every party is given a fair opportunity to present their case and defend themselves before a decision is reached.
2026 Prelims Job Related Awareness
The phrase "official correspondence" refers to:
A Personal letters
B Communication made in the course of official duties
C Social media posts
D Private notes
Correct Answer: Option B
Key Characteristics of Official Correspondence
Purpose: It includes formal written communications—such as letters, memorandums, emails, directives, and notifications—sent or received by government agencies, courts, or organizations to carry out official business.

Legal & Administrative Value: Unlike personal letters or private notes, official correspondence forms part of the public or organizational record and carries administrative and legal accountability.
2026 Prelims Job Related Awareness
When an official file is transferred between sections, the movement should be:
A Verbal only
B Properly recorded
C Unnecessary to document
D Left to memory
Correct Answer: Option B
Why Official Files Must Be Recorded
Accountability: Properly recording the movement of files ensures there is a clear trail showing who currently holds the file and which section it passed through.

Traceability: If a document is mislaid or needed urgently, tracking records (such as file movement registers or transit slips) make it easy to locate.

Security & Confidentiality: Official documents often contain sensitive information; keeping formal logs prevents unauthorized handling or loss.
2026 Prelims Job Related Awareness
Which of the following is NOT a desirable trait for a court employee?
A Accuracy
B Confidentiality
C Partiality
D Integrity
Correct Answer: Option C
Why Partiality is NOT a desirable trait
Court employees are expected to maintain strict impartiality—meaning they must remain fair, unbiased, and neutral towards all parties in a legal matter. Partiality (showing bias or favoritism) undermines the integrity of the judicial system.

Why the other options ARE desirable traits:
Accuracy: Ensures court documents, records, and proceedings are recorded without errors.

Confidentiality: Protects sensitive legal information, seal orders, and private party details.

Integrity: Upholds honesty, moral principles, and ethical standards necessary for public trust in the legal system.

Computer 15 questions

2026 Prelims Computer
Statements:

1. A computer can process data and produce information.
2. A computer can think and make decisions on its own like a human.
A Only Statement 1 is true
B Only Statement 2 is true
C Both statements are true
D Both statements are false
Correct Answer: Option A
Statement 1 is True: A fundamental function of a computer is to take raw input (data), process it according to given instructions, and produce meaningful output (information).

Statement 2 is False: Computers lack human consciousness, feelings, and independent thought. They can only execute tasks, follow programmed instructions, or make decisions based on pre-defined algorithms and rules set by human programmers.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the Following Statements are Correct?

1. Every cache miss results in data being fetched from RAM.
2. Registers are generally faster than cache memory.
3. Cache memory is used to reduce CPU waiting time.
4. Cache memory is part of secondary storage.
A 1 and 4 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 1, 2 and 3 only
D All four
Correct Answer: Option B
Statement Analysis
1. Incorrect: In systems with multi-level caching (e.g., L1, L2, and L3 caches), a miss in the L1 cache will first check the L2 or L3 cache before going all the way to RAM.

2. Correct: Registers are located directly inside the CPU core and operate at CPU clock speed (sub-nanosecond response times), making them faster than cache memory.

3. Correct: Cache memory stores frequently accessed data and instructions close to the processor, minimizing the time the CPU spends waiting for data to load from slower main memory (RAM).

4. Incorrect: Cache memory is high-speed volatile primary memory (built using SRAM), whereas secondary storage refers to non-volatile storage devices like SSDs and Hard Drives.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the Following Statements are Correct?

1. An operating system is necessary to run application software.
2. Some embedded systems can operate without a traditional operating system.
3. BIOS is loaded into RAM during booting.
4. BIOS is a type of application software.
A 1 and 2 only
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 2 and 4 only
D All four
Correct Answer: Option A
Statement 1 is Correct: An operating system acts as an interface between application software and hardware, managing system resources (RAM, CPU, storage). Without an OS, application software lacks the environment and system calls needed to execute.

Statement 2 is Correct: Many simple or dedicated embedded systems run directly on "bare metal" (using firmware or a simple control loop/microcontroller code) without needing a traditional operating system or Real-Time OS (RTOS).

Statement 3 is Incorrect: BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is non-volatile firmware stored in ROM or Flash memory, not RAM. During booting, the BIOS executes from ROM/Flash to perform the Power-On Self-Test (POST) and then loads the OS kernel into RAM.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: BIOS is system firmware/system software, not application software. Application software refers to end-user programs like web browsers, word processors, or games.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following languages does the computer understand?
A Computer understands only C Language
B Computer understands only Assembly Language
C Computer understands only Binary Language
D Computer understands only BASIC
Correct Answer: Option C
Why Binary Language?
Binary / Machine Language: Computers operate directly using electronic switches (transistors) that represent two states: ON (1) and OFF (0). Therefore, the CPU can natively understand and execute only binary code.

Assembly Language: A low-level programming language that uses mnemonics (like ADD or MOV), but it must first be translated into binary code by an assembler.

High-Level Languages (C, BASIC, Python, etc.): Human-readable programming languages that must be translated into binary code using a compiler or interpreter before the computer hardware can execute them.
2026 Prelims Computer
Statements:

1. The keyboard is an input device.
2. MS Word is hardware.
A Both statements are true
B Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
C Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
D Both statements are false
Correct Answer: Option B
Statement 1 is True: A keyboard is a hardware device used to enter text, commands, and data into a computer, making it an input device.

Statement 2 is False: Microsoft Word is a word processing program, which makes it software (specifically application software), not hardware.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following service allows a user to log in to another computer somewhere on the Internet?
A e-mail
B UseNet
C Telnet
D FTP
Correct Answer: Option C
How the Options Compare
Telnet (Teletype Network): A network protocol that allows a user to remotely log in to and access another computer over a network or the Internet via a command-line interface.

FTP (File Transfer Protocol): Used specifically for transferring files between a client and a server on a network, not for full remote login or computer control.

e-mail: Used for sending and receiving text messages and file attachments asynchronously.

UseNet: A worldwide distributed discussion system used for posting and reading articles/messages across newsgroups.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following is designed to control the operations of a computer?
A User
B Application Software
C System Software
D Utility Software
Correct Answer: Option C
The correct answer is C) System Software.

Why System Software?
System Software (such as the Operating System, device drivers, and firmware) directly manages and controls the computer's hardware resources, execution of background processes, and overall operations.

Application Software (like web browsers or word processors) is designed to help users perform specific end-user tasks, relying on the system software to run.

Utility Software is a type of system software focused specifically on maintaining, optimizing, and analyzing the computer (e.g., antivirus programs, disk defragmenters).

User is the human interacting with the computer.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following is not a type of computer code?
A EDIC
B ASCII
C BCD
D EBCDIC
Correct Answer: Option A
Breakdown of the Options
ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange): A standard character encoding system used to represent text in computers and communication equipment.

BCD (Binary-Coded Decimal): A class of binary encodings where each digit of a decimal number is represented by a fixed number of binary bits.

EBCDIC (Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code): An 8-bit character encoding system created by IBM and widely used on mainframe computers.

EDIC: Not a recognized computer code or data encoding standard (it is a made-up distractor, likely meant to sound similar to EBCDIC).
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following is the first neural network computer?
A AN
B AM
C RFD
D SNARC
Correct Answer: Option D
The correct answer is D) SNARC.

What was SNARC?
Full Name: Stochastic Neural Analog Reinforcement Calculator

Creators: Marvin Minsky and Dean Edmonds

Year Built: 1951

Significance: Built using vacuum tubes, motors, and clutches, SNARC was a hardware neural network machine designed to simulate a network of 40 artificial neurons working together to learn how to solve a maze via reinforcement learning.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the Following Statements are Correct?

1. Multiprocessing always requires multiple CPUs.
2. Multitasking and multiprocessing are identical concepts.
3. A single CPU can appear to run multiple tasks through time-sharing.
4. Modern operating systems support multitasking.
A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 4 only
C 3 and 4 only
D All four
Correct Answer: Option C
Statement Breakdown
Multiprocessing always requires multiple CPUs. — Incorrect

Multiprocessing requires multiple processing units (cores), which can easily exist on a single physical CPU chip (e.g., a modern multi-core processor like a quad-core or octa-core CPU).

Multitasking and multiprocessing are identical concepts. — Incorrect

Multitasking refers to a system executing multiple tasks/processes concurrently by rapidly switching between them (time-sharing).

Multiprocessing refers to the hardware capability of executing multiple threads or processes simultaneously using multiple processing cores/CPUs.

A single CPU can appear to run multiple tasks through time-sharing. — Correct

By allocating tiny slices of time (time-slicing) to different programs and switching between them quickly, a single processor core creates the illusion that all programs are running simultaneously.

Modern operating systems support multitasking. — Correct

Virtually all modern operating systems (such as Windows, macOS, Linux, Android, and iOS) natively support preemptive multitasking.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the Following Statements are Correct?

1. Unicode was developed to represent characters from multiple languages.
2. ASCII is a subset of Unicode.
3. Every Unicode character occupies exactly 16 bits.
4. ASCII uses fewer characters than Unicode
A 1 and 4 only
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 2 and 3 only
D All four
Correct Answer: Option B
Statement Breakdown
Unicode was developed to represent characters from multiple languages. — Correct

Unicode was created as a universal character encoding standard to support text written in almost every writing system and script in the world, including non-Latin alphabets and symbols.

ASCII is a subset of Unicode. — Correct

The first 128 characters (0 to 127) of Unicode are identical to standard ASCII, making standard ASCII fully backward-compatible with Unicode systems.

Every Unicode character occupies exactly 16 bits. — Incorrect

Unicode uses variable-width encodings like UTF-8, where characters can take anywhere from 8 bits (1 byte) up to 32 bits (4 bytes). Standard ASCII characters in UTF-8, for instance, only use 8 bits.

ASCII uses fewer characters than Unicode. — Correct

Standard ASCII defines only 128 characters, whereas Unicode defines over 140,000 characters (including modern emojis, historic scripts, and mathematical symbols).
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the Following Statements are Correct?

1. Cloud computing means data is stored on remote servers.
2. Cloud data ultimately resides on physical hardware.
3. Cloud computing eliminates the need for data centers.
4. Cloud services can be private, public, or hybrid.
A 1 and 3 only
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 2 and 4 only
D All four
Correct Answer: Option B
The correct option is B) 1, 2 and 4 only.

Statement Breakdown
Cloud computing means data is stored on remote servers. — Correct

Instead of storing files on a local hard drive or on-premise device, cloud computing relies on remote servers accessed via the internet.

Cloud data ultimately resides on physical hardware. — Correct

Even though cloud storage feels virtual, every byte of data is physically stored on actual storage drives (HDDs, SSDs) and servers located inside data facilities.

Cloud computing eliminates the need for data centers. — Incorrect

Cloud computing relies heavily on massive, centralized data centers worldwide. It shifts the burden of managing data centers from individual users/companies to cloud providers (like AWS, Azure, Google Cloud), but does not eliminate them.

Cloud services can be private, public, or hybrid. — Correct

Public: Available to the general public over the internet (e.g., Google Drive).

Private: Dedicated entirely to a single organization.

Hybrid: Combines public and private cloud environments.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the Following Statements are Correct?

1. A file extension determines the actual contents of a file.
2. Two files with different extensions may contain identical data.
3. Changing a file extension does not necessarily change file content.
4. The operating system often uses extensions to identify file types.

A 1 and 2 only
B 1, 3 and 4 only
C 2, 3 and 4 only
D All four
Correct Answer: Option C
Statement Breakdown
A file extension determines the actual contents of a file. — Incorrect

The content of a file is determined by the actual binary or text data saved inside it, not by its name or extension.

Two files with different extensions may contain identical data. — Correct

For example, a plain text file containing comma-separated values can be named data.txt or data.csv; both contain the exact same internal data despite having different extensions.

Changing a file extension does not necessarily change file content. — Correct

Renaming photo.jpg to photo.txt only changes the filename metadata; it does not alter or re-encode the underlying image data inside the file.

The operating system often uses extensions to identify file types. — Correct

Operating systems like Windows rely on file extensions to decide which application should open a file by default (e.g., associating .pdf with a PDF reader).
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the Following Statements are Correct?

1. RAM is both readable and writable.
2. ROM can never be modified.
3. EEPROM is a form of ROM.
4. EEPROM can be electrically erased.
A 1 and 2 only
B 1, 3 and 4 only
C 2, 3 and 4 only
D All four
Correct Answer: Option B
Statement Breakdown
RAM is both readable and writable. — Correct

RAM (Random Access Memory) is a volatile memory that allows the CPU to both read data from it and write new data to it rapidly.

ROM can never be modified. — Incorrect

While traditional or basic ROM (Read-Only Memory) cannot be altered after manufacturing, modern types of ROM (such as EPROM and EEPROM) can be reprogrammed or modified under specific conditions.

EEPROM is a form of ROM. — Correct

EEPROM stands for Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory, which is a specialized category of non-volatile ROM.

EEPROM can be electrically erased. — Correct

Unlike standard EPROM (which requires ultraviolet light for erasure), EEPROM can be erased and reprogrammed using electrical signals without being removed from the computer system.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the Following Statements are Correct?

1. A computer virus is a type of malware.
2. Every malware is a virus.
3. A worm can spread without attaching itself to another file.
4. Antivirus software guarantees 100% protection.
A 1 and 3 only
B 2 and 4 only
C 1, 2 and 3 only
D All four
Correct Answer: Option A
Statement Breakdown
A computer virus is a type of malware. — Correct

Malware (malicious software) is an umbrella term that includes viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, spyware, and ad-ware. A virus is simply a specific subtype of malware.

Every malware is a virus. — Incorrect

While all viruses are malware, not all malware are viruses. Ransomware, spyware, and trojans are malware, but they operate differently from viruses.

A worm can spread without attaching itself to another file. — Correct

Unlike a virus (which requires a host file to attach to and infect), a worm is a standalone program capable of replicating and spreading independently across networks.

Antivirus software guarantees 100% protection. — Incorrect

No cybersecurity software can guarantee absolute 100% protection, primarily due to zero-day vulnerabilities (brand-new threats that haven't been cataloged yet) and human error.

History 5 questions

2026 Prelims History
The "Doctrine of Basic Structure" of the Indian Constitution was established in which landmark case?
A Golaknath v. State of Punjab
B Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C Minerva Mills v. Union of India
D SR Bommai v. Union of India
Correct Answer: Option B
The correct option is B) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala.

Key Details
Year: 1973 (decided by a 13-judge Constitutional Bench with a 7–6 majority)

Significance: The Supreme Court ruled that while Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter or destroy its "Basic Structure" (such as democracy, secularism, rule of law, and judicial review).

Overview of Other Options
A) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967): Ruled that Fundamental Rights were "sacrosanct" and could not be curtailed by Constitutional amendments (a ruling later modified by the Kesavananda Bharati case).

C) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980): Reaffirmed and applied the Basic Structure doctrine, striking down provisions that gave Parliament unlimited power to amend the Constitution.

D) SR Bommai v. Union of India (1994): Laid down guidelines against the arbitrary imposition of President's Rule (Article 356) and held that secularism is part of the Basic Structure.
2026 Prelims History
What is the name of the empire that ruled the Middle East from 883 to 627 BC?
A The Babylonian Empire
B The Merovingian Empire
C The Persian Empire
D The Assyrian Empire
Correct Answer: Option D
The Neo-Assyrian Empire expanded aggressively under King Ashurnasirpal II (whose reign began in 883 BC) and dominated the Ancient Near East through advanced military tactics, administrative networks, and iron weaponry until its decline began around the death of its last strong ruler, Ashurbanipal, around 627 BC.

The Babylonian Empire: The Neo-Babylonian Empire came immediately after the Assyrians, rising around 626 BC and lasting until 539 BC.

The Persian Empire (Achaemenid): Founded later by Cyrus the Great around 550 BC.

The Merovingian Empire: A Frankish dynasty that ruled parts of modern-day France and Germany much later, from the 5th to 8th century AD.
2026 Prelims History
Which among the following steel plants of India is sometimes called India's First Swadeshi Steel Plant?
A Bengal Iron Works Company
B TISCO
C IISCO
D Bokaro Steel Plant
Correct Answer: Option D
The correct answer is D) Bokaro Steel Plant.

Explanation
Bokaro Steel Plant (located in Jharkhand) is often called India's First Swadeshi Steel Plant.

Although it was built with technical and financial assistance from the former Soviet Union (USSR) starting in 1965, it earned the title "Swadeshi" because:

It was designed to maximize the use of indigenous (Indian) equipment, raw materials, and expertise.

Unlike earlier public sector steel plants (like Bhilai, Rourkela, and Durgapur), which relied heavily on imported equipment, a vast majority of the machinery, engineering design, and refractory materials for Bokaro were sourced locally from Indian organizations such as HEC (Heavy Engineering Corporation) and MECON.

Other Options Overview
Bengal Iron Works Company (1870): Located at Kulti, West Bengal, it was one of the earliest attempts at modern iron production in India under British colonial initiative.

TISCO (Tata Iron and Steel Company, 1907): Founded by Jamsetji Tata in Jamshedpur, it was India's first successful private integrated steel plant.

IISCO (Indian Iron & Steel Company, 1918): Established at Burnpur, West Bengal, it was another major early iron and steel production unit before being nationalized later.
2026 Prelims History
Which treaty in 1846 led to the formal establishment of the princely state of Jammu & Kashmir?
A Treaty of Sugauli
B Treaty of Lahore
C Treaty of Amritsar
D Treaty of Shimla
Correct Answer: Option C
The correct answer is C) Treaty of Amritsar.

Explanation
Signed on March 16, 1846, between the British East India Company and Maharaja Gulab Singh, the Treaty of Amritsar formally established the princely state of Jammu & Kashmir. Under this agreement, Gulab Singh acquired the Kashmir Valley along with parts of Ladakh and Gilgit from the British for a sum of 75 lakh Nanakshahi rupees, following the defeat of the Sikh Empire in the First Anglo-Sikh War.

Treaty of Lahore (1846): Signed a week earlier (March 9, 1846) to conclude the First Anglo-Sikh War, forcing the Sikh Empire to cede Kashmir and other territories to the British in lieu of war indemnity.

Treaty of Sugauli (1815–1816): Ended the Anglo-Nepalese War and established the boundary line of Nepal.

Treaty of Shimla (1972): A peace treaty signed between India and Pakistan following the 1971 war.
2026 Prelims History
Find the correct statement:

Statement 1: Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757.
Statement 2: It was fought between British and French.
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both
D Neither
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Battle of Plassey took place on June 23, 1757.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The main battle was fought between the British East India Company (led by Robert Clive) and the Nawab of Bengal (Siraj-ud-Daulah). While a small contingent of French artillery supported the Nawab, the battle was not fought directly between the British and French forces. (The conflicts fought primarily between the British and French in India were the Carnatic Wars.)

J&K 4 questions

2026 Prelims J&K
Which of the following is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir?
A Snow Leopard
B Brown Bear
C Hangul
D Musk Deer
Correct Answer: Option C
Key Details
Common Name: Hangul (also known as the Kashmir Stag)

Scientific Name: Cervus hanglu hanglu

Habitat: Primarily found in the Dachigam National Park near Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.

Status: It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List due to habitat loss and population decline, making strict conservation efforts essential.
2026 Prelims J&K
Which historical text is the primary source for the early history of Kashmir?
A Nilamata Purana
B Rajatarangini
C Ain-i-Akbari
D Baharistan-i-Shahi
Correct Answer: Option B
Key Details
Text: Rajatarangini (literally meaning "The River of Kings")

Author: Kalhana

Language: Sanskrit

Period Written: 12th Century CE (c. 1148–1149)

Significance: It is regarded as one of the earliest and most systematic works of historical writing (historiography) in ancient India, detailing the legendary and historical rulers of Kashmir from the earliest times up to the author's own era.
2026 Prelims J&K
Which river is known as the lifeline of Kashmir?
A Ravi
B Jhelum
C Chenab
D Indus
Correct Answer: Option B
The Jhelum River (known locally as Vyeth in Kashmiri and Vitasta in Sanskrit) flows through the heart of the Kashmir Valley, passing through key cities including Anantnag, Srinagar, and Baramulla, before flowing into Pakistan.

It is called the lifeline of Kashmir because it historically provided the primary transportation route through the valley, powers major hydroelectric projects, supports the region's agriculture and fishing, and feeds major lakes like Wular Lake and Dal Lake.

Other Rivers Overview
Ravi: Originates in Himachal Pradesh and flows through Jammu's Kathua district and Punjab.

Chenab: Originates in Himachal Pradesh (as Chandra and Bhaga) and flows through the Jammu region (Kishtwar, Doda, Ramban, Reasi) before entering Pakistan.

Indus: Flows through the Ladakh region north of the Kashmir Valley.
2026 Prelims J&K
Which one is recognised as the state flower of Jammu and Kashmir?
A Lotus
B Daisy
C Rose
D Lily
Correct Answer: Option A
State Flower: The Lotus is officially recognized as the state flower of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

Cultural & Regional Significance: The lotus holds deep cultural and spiritual significance in Kashmir. It grows abundantly in the region's prominent water bodies, such as Dal Lake and Wular Lake, where its edible stem—known locally as Nadru—is also a staple part of Kashmiri cuisine.

Polity 4 questions

2026 Prelims Polity
From which year was the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir adopted?
A 1956
B 1965
C 1935
D 1947
Correct Answer: Option A
The Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir formally adopted the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir on November 17, 1956.

It subsequently came into effect on January 26, 1957.

The constitution remained in force until August 5, 2019, when Article 370 was abrogated and the special status of the state was revoked by the Indian Parliament.
2026 Prelims Polity
Statement 1: G20 is a permanent organization.
Statement 2: India held G20 Presidency in 2023.

Which statement is correct?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both
D Neither
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The G20 is not a permanent organization and does not have a permanent secretariat or staff. Instead, its leadership rotates annually among its member countries (known as the G20 Presidency), supported by a "Troika" consisting of the previous, current, and incoming host countries.

Statement 2 is correct: India held the G20 Presidency from December 1, 2022, to November 30, 2023, successfully hosting the 18th G20 Heads of State and Government Summit in New Delhi in September 2023 under the theme "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam" ("One Earth, One Family, One Future").
2026 Prelims Polity
Find the correct statement:

Statement 1: Kyoto Protocol deals with climate change.
Statement 2: It was adopted under UNFCCC
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both
D Neither
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty aimed at combating climate change by committing industrialized countries and economies in transition to limit and reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions.

Statement 2 is correct: It was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, in December 1997 as an extension of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and officially entered into force in 2005.
2026 Prelims Polity
Find the correct statement:

Statement 1: Right to Constitutional Remedies is guaranteed under Article 32.
Statement 2: It can be suspended during Emergency in all cases.
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both
D Neither
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Article 32 of the Constitution of India guarantees the Right to Constitutional Remedies, allowing citizens to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of their Fundamental Rights. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar famously called Article 32 the "Heart and Soul of the Constitution."

Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 32 is not suspended in all cases during a National Emergency:

Under Article 359, the President can issue an order suspending the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

However, following the 44th Amendment Act of 1978, the enforcement of Articles 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offenses) and Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency. Therefore, Article 32 remains operational to protect these specific rights.

Geography 4 questions

2026 Prelims Geography
New Moore island disappeared in the sea after many years of its creation. This island was claimed by which of the following two neighbours?
A India & Pakistan
B India & Sri Lanka
C India & Bangladesh
D India & Myanmar
Correct Answer: Option C
New Moore Island (also known as South Talpatti in Bangladesh or Purbasha in India) was a small, uninhabited offshore sandbar island located in the Bay of Bengal off the coast of the Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta. It emerged after the 1970 Bhola cyclone near the mouth of the Hariabhanga River, which demarcates the maritime border between India and Bangladesh. Both India and Bangladesh claimed sovereignty over the island due to potential oil and natural gas reserves in the surrounding seabed and its strategic impact on maritime boundary claims. Around 2010, satellite imagery confirmed that the island had completely submerged beneath the sea due to sea-level rise and coastal erosion, resolving the physical dispute.
2026 Prelims Geography
Which company designed the ICC Cricket World Cup Trophy?
A Chappell & Co
B Garrard & Co
C Marylebone & Co
D Adelaide & Co
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The current perpetual ICC Cricket World Cup Trophy was designed and manufactured in London by Garrard & Co (the royal jewellers) and was first presented at the 1999 World Cup.

Features: Made from silver and gilt, it features a golden globe supported by three silver columns representing the three fundamental aspects of cricket: batting, bowling, and fielding.
2026 Prelims Geography
Who among the following named the Indus valley civilization as the 'Harappan civilization' after the name of the Indus site of Harappa?
A Dr Sankhalia
B Dr SR Rao
C Sir M E M Wheeler
D Sir John Marshall
Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Sir John Marshall, who served as the Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) from 1902 to 1928, oversaw the excavations of both Harappa (discovered by Daya Ram Sahni in 1921) and Mohenjo-daro (discovered by R.D. Banerjee in 1922).  

Following the archaeological convention of naming a culture after its type-site (the first excavated site of a culture), he named the newly discovered civilization the 'Harappan civilization' (and coined the term 'Indus Valley civilization') in his publications.  
2026 Prelims Geography
Find the correct statement:

Statement 1: Ozone layer is found in the stratosphere.
Statement 2: It protects Earth from UV radiation.
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both
D Neither
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: About 90% of Earth's atmospheric ozone is located in the stratosphere (approximately 10 to 50 km above the surface), forming what is commonly known as the ozone layer.

Statement 2 is correct: The ozone layer acts as a protective shield by absorbing the majority of the sun's harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation (specifically UV-B and UV-C rays), preventing them from reaching Earth's surface and causing skin cancer, cataracts, and damage to ecosystems.

Art & Culture 1 questions

2026 Prelims Art & Culture Current Affairs
The "Doctrine of Basic Structure" of the Indian Constitution was established in which landmark case?
A Tamil Nadu
B Andhra Pradesh
C Karnataka
D Maharashtra
Correct Answer: Option C
A rare 16th-century Kannada inscription (dated August 18, 1539 CE) was discovered at Guttala in the Haveri district of Karnataka. Significance: It is considered one of India's earliest known epigraphic records documenting a large-scale humanitarian disaster. Details Recorded: The stone inscription explicitly records that 6,307 people died due to a severe drought (bara) during the Vijayanagara period. Humanitarian Act: The inscription, accompanied by a rare sculptural depiction, honors a local named Marulaih Odeya, who carried the bodies in baskets to perform their last rites.  

Current Affairs 6 questions

2026 Prelims Current Affairs
Which Indian Enterprise used the slogan - 'Improving the quality of Life'?
A Reliance
B TATA
C Birla
D ITC
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation
"To improve the quality of life of the communities we serve globally" is the core purpose statement and long-standing corporate mission of the Tata Group.  
TATA Projects

Rooted in the philosophy of group founder Jamsetji Tata, this statement reflects Tata's commitment to returning value to society through corporate social responsibility and sustainable community development.  
Tata Sustainability Group

Other Group Slogans/Taglines for Reference:
Aditya Birla Group: "Big in Your Life"  
PWOnlyIAS

Reliance Industries: "Growth is Life"  
The Growth File

ITC Limited: "Enduring Value"
2026 Prelims Current Affairs
Find the correct statement:

Statement 1: The Katra-Srinagar Vande Bharat train is part of USBRL.
Statement 2: It improves connectivity between Jammu and Kashmir regions.
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both
D Neither
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Katra-Srinagar route is a key section of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project, an ambitious all-weather rail initiative connecting the Kashmir Valley to the rest of India.

Statement 2 is correct: By running between Katra (located in the Jammu division) and Srinagar (located in the Kashmir division), the train significantly cuts down travel time and enhances seamless connectivity between the two regions.
2026 Prelims Current Affairs
Find the correct statement:

Statement 1: Winter Games in Kashmir were postponed in 2025 due to insufficient snowfall.
Statement 2: The region experienced abnormal weather conditions affecting snow availability.
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both
D Neither
Correct Answer: Option C
Breakdown of the Statements: Statement 1 is correct: The second leg of the 5th Khelo India Winter Games in Gulmarg (Kashmir), originally scheduled for late February 2025, was postponed due to a lack of adequate snow cover on the slopes. Statement 2 is correct: The region suffered from an unusually prolonged dry winter spell and abnormal weather patterns across early 2025, significantly impacting natural snowfall and snow persistence needed for winter sports.  
2026 Prelims Current Affairs
Find the correct statement:

Statement 1: In 2025, protests in Pakistan-administered Kashmir involved demands related to subsidies and governance reforms.
Statement 2: These protests were fully peaceful with no violence reported.
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both
D Neither
Correct Answer: Option A
Breakdown of the Statements:
Statement 1 is correct: The protests organized by civil society coalitions like the Jammu Kashmir Joint Awami Action Committee (JKJAAC) focused on demands regarding wheat and electricity subsidies, tax relief, governance reforms, and the removal of political privileges.  
Wikipedia

Statement 2 is incorrect: The demonstrations were not completely peaceful. Violent clashes broke out between security forces and demonstrators, resulting in casualties, injuries to hundreds of protesters and police personnel, and local internet/communications blackouts.  
Evrim Ağacı

Violent Protests in Pakistan-administered Kashmir
This video details the widespread demonstrations, demands for governance reforms, and clashes between civil groups and security forces in the region.
2026 Prelims Current Affairs
Find the correct statement:

Statement 1: The Darbar Move is a biannual shifting of offices between Jammu and Srinagar.
Statement 2: It was permanently discontinued after 2021.
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both
D Neither
Correct Answer: Option C
2026 Prelims Current Affairs
Find the correct statement:

Statement 1: Railway Bridge No. 17 over the Ravi River was damaged due to floods in 2025.
Statement 2: Its restoration helped resume rail services between Jammu and the rest of India.
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both
D Neither
Correct Answer: Option C
Breakdown of the Statements: Statement 1 is correct: In 2025, heavy rainfall and flash floods damaged Railway Bridge No. 17 over the Ravi River on the Kathua–Madhopur rail section.

Statement 2 is correct: Northern Railway restored Bridge No. 17, which allowed full rail connectivity to resume between Jammu (and Jammu & Kashmir) and the rest of India.  

Economy 1 questions

2026 Prelims Economy
Find the correct statement:
Statement 1: Inflation refers to sustained rise in general price level.
Statement 2: Deflation refers to increase in money supply.
A 1 only
B 2 only
C Both
D Neither
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Inflation is defined as a sustained, broad-based increase in the general price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time, which reduces the purchasing power of money.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Deflation is a sustained decrease in the general price level of goods and services (or negative inflation). An increase in the money supply usually contributes to inflation, not deflation.

English 30 questions

2026 Prelims English
Fill in the blanks with Correct Article:
"I need to buy ____ Milk."
A the
B an
C a
D no article
Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation:
"Milk" is an uncountable noun (mass noun).

In general contexts, uncountable nouns do not take indefinite articles like "a" or "an".

"The" is only used when referring to a specific batch or container of milk (e.g., "Pass me the milk on the table"). Since this sentence refers to milk in a general sense, no article is required.

Corrected sentence: "I need to buy milk."
2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom:

"The team decided to pull out all the stops for their upcoming presentation."

A Give up easily and without thinking much
B Keep things simple and straight forward
C Wait patiently for a more favourable time
D To do everything to make something successful.
Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The idiom "pull out all the stops" means to make every possible effort, use all available resources, or spare no expense to achieve maximum effort and success.

Origin: The phrase comes from pipe organs, where pulling out all the "stops" (knobs that control airflow through organ pipes) allows every pipe to sound simultaneously, producing the maximum volume and power possible.
2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the segment in the given sentence:

"Edward II is tragic than some other plays by the dramatist."

A as least tragic as
B No substitution required
C the most tragic
D less tragic than
Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The presence of the word "than" indicates that a comparison is being made between "Edward II" and "some other plays."

Therefore, the adjective must be in its comparative form. Since "tragic" is a multi-syllable word, its comparative forms are "more tragic" or "less tragic".

The original segment ("tragic than") is grammatically incorrect because it uses the base/positive form of the adjective instead of the comparative form.

Corrected sentence: "Edward II is less tragic than some other plays by the dramatist."
2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the given word - Altruistic:
A Phenomenal
B Philanthropic
C Standard
D Fashion
Correct Answer: Option B
Altruistic means showing a disinterested and selfless concern for the well-being of others; unselfish.

Philanthropic means seeking to promote the welfare of others, especially by the generous donation of money to good causes; benevolent.

Why the other options are incorrect:
Option A (Phenomenal): Remarkable or extraordinary (e.g., a phenomenal achievement).

Option C (Standard): Used as a measure, norm, or model; regular.

Option D (Fashion): A popular trend, style, or manner of doing something.
2026 Prelims English
Replace the underlined word with its synonym to make the sentence more meaningful:

"Narcotic drug addiction is in vogue these days, as it is the most popular form of substance abuse."
A demand
B obscurity
C Standard
D Fashion
Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation:
"In vogue" means to be popular, trendy, or currently in fashion.

Fashion is a direct synonym for "vogue" in this context (i.e., "Narcotic drug addiction is in fashion these days...").

Meanings of other options:
Demand: The desire or need for something.

Obscurity: The state of being unknown or inconspicuous.

Standard: A level of quality or an accepted norm.
2026 Prelims English
Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for:
"A sudden and violent change or upheaval"
A Equanimity
B Turbulence
C Tranquility
D Serenity
Correct Answer: Option B
Breakdown of Options:
Turbulence: A state of conflict, confusion, or sudden and violent change/upheaval.

Equanimity: Mental calmness, composure, and evenness of temper, especially in a difficult situation.

Tranquility: The state of being calm, peaceful, and quiet.

Serenity: The state of being calm, peaceful, and untroubled.
2026 Prelims English
Which of the following sentences is correctly punctuated?
A The student wrote that "Each of the experiments was successful."
B The student wrote "Each of the experiments was successful."
C The student wrote that each of the experiments was successful.
D None of the above
Correct Answer: Option A
The correct option is A) The library lost all its books.ExplanationOption A is correct: "Its" (without an apostrophe) is the possessive form of "it." (Note: "It's" with an apostrophe is a contraction for "it is" or "it has").Why the Other Options Are IncorrectB) That's anyones' guess. $\rightarrow$ Incorrect. The singular indefinite pronoun "anyone" takes an apostrophe before the s. The correct form is anyone's.C) That car is not your's. $\rightarrow$ Incorrect. Possessive pronouns (yours, his, hers, ours, theirs, its) never use an apostrophe. The correct form is yours.D) That car is not their's $\rightarrow$ Incorrect. For the same reason, the correct possessive pronoun is theirs (no apostrophe).
2026 Prelims English
Which of the following possessives is correctly punctuated?
A The library lost all its books
B That's anyones' guess.
C That car is not your's.
D That car is not their's
Correct Answer: Option A
The correct option is A) The library lost all its books.

Explanation
Option A is correct: "Its" (without an apostrophe) is the possessive form of "it." (Note: "It's" with an apostrophe is a contraction for "it is" or "it has").

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
B) That's anyones' guess. → Incorrect. The singular indefinite pronoun "anyone" takes an apostrophe before the s. The correct form is anyone's.

C) That car is not your's. → Incorrect. Possessive pronouns (yours, his, hers, ours, theirs, its) never use an apostrophe. The correct form is yours.

D) That car is not their's → Incorrect. For the same reason, the correct possessive pronoun is theirs (no apostrophe).
2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word:
"The new Principal of the school is stern, yet he understands the needs of his subordinates."
A Flippant
B Lenient
C Desolate
D Noxious
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation
Stern means strict, severe, or uncompromising in attitude or behavior.

Lenient means merciful, tolerant, or permissive, making it the direct opposite (antonym) of stern.

Meaning of Other Options
Flippant: Lacking proper respect or seriousness (e.g., a flippant remark).

Desolate: Deserted, empty, or feeling wretched and lonely (e.g., a desolate landscape).

Noxious: Harmful, poisonous, or unpleasant (e.g., noxious fumes).
2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank:

"The friends decided to play cards to ____ time while waiting for the cab."
A ignore
B kill
C move
D Ease
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation
The idiom "kill time" means to do something repetitive or casual to pass the time while waiting for an event or someone to arrive.

To kill time: The friends played cards to pass the time while waiting.

Why the others don't fit:

Ignore time isn't a natural English idiom in this context.

Move time is grammatically incorrect for passing duration.

Ease time isn't a standard collocation (you can "ease tension" or "ease pain," but not "ease time").
2026 Prelims English
Fill in the Blanks with Correct Modals:
"Sheldon ____ to study more if he wants to pass the test."
A will
B may
C Ought
D shall
Correct Answer: Option C
The correct answer is C) Ought.

Explanation
Grammatical Structure: The blank is followed by "to study". Standard modal verbs like will, may, and shall take a bare infinitive (the base verb without "to"). For example, you would say "Sheldon will study" or "Sheldon may study".

Semi-Modal "Ought": Among the options given, ought is the only semi-modal verb that requires the preposition "to" after it (ought to), which expresses duty or advice.

The complete sentence is:

"Sheldon ought to study more if he wants to pass the test."
2026 Prelims English
Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for:
"A person who admires himself or herself too much, especially their appearance"
A Narcissist
B Egoist
C Selfish
D Dictator
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation
Narcissist: A person who has an excessive admiration of or fascination with themselves, particularly their physical appearance or capabilities.

Meanings of the Other Options:
Egoist: A self-centered or arrogant person who is primary focused on their own self-interest and importance (though not necessarily obsessed with physical appearance).

Selfish: Lacking consideration for others; concerned chiefly with one's own personal profit or pleasure.

Dictator: A ruler who has total power over a country, typically one who has obtained control by force.
2026 Prelims English
Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given sentence:

"One part of the philosophy of life's meaning consists of the systemetic attempt to identify what people have in mind when they think about the topic."
A attempt
B philosophy
C think
D Systemetic
Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation
Incorrect Spelling: Systemetic

Correct Spelling: Systematic (spelled with an 'a' instead of an 'e' in the third syllable).

Meaning
Systematic means done according to a fixed plan or system; methodical and organized.
2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the given word - Confiscate:
A Titivate
B Restock
C Destroy
D Seize
Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation
Confiscate means to take or seize someone's property, usually by legal or official authority.

Seize is a direct synonym meaning to take hold of, capture, or take possession of something legally or by force.
2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined word:
"He walked leisurely towards the entrance."
A reassuringly
B hastily
C with a kickstart
D without haste
Correct Answer: Option D
The correct option is D) without haste.

Explanation
Leisurely means acting in an unhurried, relaxed, or calm manner (taking your time).

"Without haste" is a direct synonym, meaning moving slowly or without rushing.

Meaning of the Other Options:
Hastily: Done with excessive speed or urgency (the exact opposite/antonym).

Reassuringly: Done in a way that restores confidence or reduces anxiety.

With a kickstart: Done with a quick or forceful start.
2026 Prelims English
Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
"Everyone was surprised at his speech."
A His speech surprise everyone.
B His speech was surprising to everyone.
C His speech is surprising everyone.
D His speech surprised everyone
Correct Answer: Option D
The correct answer is D) His speech surprised everyone.

Explanation
Although the question prompt asks to transform the sentence, notice that the given sentence—"Everyone was surprised at his speech"—is already in the passive voice:

Subject (Receiver): Everyone

Verb: was surprised (past form of to be + past participle)

Prepositional Object (Doer): at his speech

Converting this sentence into the active voice:

The doer ("His speech") becomes the active Subject.

The passive verb construction ("was surprised") changes to the simple past form "surprised".

The receiver ("everyone") becomes the Object.

Active Voice:

"His speech surprised everyone."
2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank:

"Luck does not always favour us, so we must always depend ____ our own efforts for success."
A Upon
B For
C In
D At
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation
Fixed Preposition Rule: The verb "depend" takes the preposition "on" or "upon" when expressing reliance or trust on something/someone (depend on / depend upon).

Why the others are incorrect:

"For", "In", and "At" do not form a grammatically correct prepositional phrase with the verb "depend" in this context.

Completed Sentence:

"Luck does not always favour us, so we must always depend upon our own efforts for success."
2026 Prelims English
Fill in the Blanks with Correct Modals:
"Raj hasn't studied well. He ____ fail his exam."
A can
B may
C could
D shall
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation
May is used to express a strong possibility or likelihood based on present evidence ("Raj hasn't studied well").

Why not the others?

Can is used to show general ability or theoretical possibility, not a specific prediction based on a current situation.

Could implies a weaker or conditional possibility.

Shall is used for formal offers, promises, or future intentions, which doesn't fit a possibility of failing.
2026 Prelims English
Choose the sentence that requires an indefinite article before a noun.
A "He wants to be astronaut."
B "She is going to airport."
C "They visited temple."
D "I saw an elephant at zoo."
Correct Answer: Option A
The correct answer is A) "He wants to be astronaut."

Explanation
Indefinite Article Requirement (a / an): We use indefinite articles before singular, countable nouns when mentioning a profession, role, or job for the first time. Since "astronaut" begins with a vowel sound, it requires the indefinite article "an".

Corrected: "He wants to be an astronaut."

Why the other options are incorrect:
B) "She is going to airport." — Requires a definite article ("the") because it refers to a specific location destination ("going to the airport").

C) "They visited temple." — Typically requires a definite article ("the") when referring to a specific temple, though "a" is possible; however, option A strictly mandates an indefinite article by rule of professions.

D) "I saw an elephant at zoo." — Requires the definite article ("the") for common public places ("at the zoo").
2026 Prelims English
The following sentence has been divided into parts. Select the part that contains the error:

"Nine tenths / of the pillar / have rotted away. / No error."
A Nine tenths
B of the pillar
C have rotted away
D No error.
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation
Subject-Verb Agreement Rule: When fractions (like nine tenths, two thirds, half) or percentages are followed by an "of" phrase, the verb agrees with the noun that comes after "of":

If the noun is singular or uncountable, use a singular verb.

If the noun is plural, use a plural verb.

In this sentence, the noun following "of" is "the pillar" (singular).

Therefore, the singular verb "has" should be used instead of the plural verb "have".

Correct Sentence:

"Nine tenths of the pillar has rotted away."
2026 Prelims English
Select the option to improve the underlined segment:
"If I had played well, I would have won the match."

A I played well
B I play well
C I am playing will
D No improvement
Correct Answer: Option D
The correct answer is D) No improvement.

Explanation
This sentence is a textbook example of a Third Conditional, which is used to talk about impossible past situations and their hypothetical outcomes.

The standard structure for the third conditional is:

If-clause: If + Past Perfect (If I had played well)

Main clause: would have + Past Participle (I would have won the match)

Since the sentence already follows this grammatical rule perfectly, no changes are needed.
2026 Prelims English
Select the most appropriate meaning of the highlighted idiom:
"The youth involved in the accident escaped by the skin of his teeth."

A Barely managed to escape
B Very arrogant
C Always taking calculated decisions
D Deficiency of funds
Correct Answer: Option A
"By the skin of one's teeth" is an idiom that means barely or narrowly managing to do or avoid something, usually by a very small margin or distance.
2026 Prelims English
The following sentence has been divided into parts. Select the part that contains the error:

"He lived close to / the train station, / yet travelled by bus."
A yet travelled by bus
B No error
C He lived close to
D the train station
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The complete sentence—"He lived close to the train station, yet travelled by bus."—is grammatically correct.

"He lived close to": Correct use of the prepositional phrase "close to" indicating proximity.

"the train station,": Correct noun phrase acting as the object of the preposition.

"yet travelled by bus.": Correct use of the conjunction "yet" to show contrast, followed by the past tense verb "travelled" (maintaining tense agreement with "lived") and the correct preposition for modes of transport ("by bus").
2026 Prelims English
Select the option that expresses the given sentence in reported speech.
Raghav said to Meera, "Are you upset with me?"
A Raghav asked Meera if she was upset with her.
B Raghav asked Meera if she was upset with him.
C Raghav asked Meera if she was upset with me.
D Raghav asked Meera why she was upset with him.
Correct Answer: Option B
Why this is correct:
Reporting Verb: "said to" changes to "asked" because it's a question.

Conjunction: A Yes/No question in direct speech uses "if" (or "whether") in indirect speech (eliminating option D).

Pronoun Changes:

"you" refers to Meera, so it changes to "she".

"me" refers to Raghav, so it changes to "him" (eliminating options A and C).

Tense Change: Present simple ("Are") shifts to past simple ("was").
2026 Prelims English
Complete the dialogue for Person B using the correct idiom:

Person A: I am so nervous. I don't think I should make the speech tomorrow.
Person B: No. You are just getting ____. You have prepared for this.
A cold feet
B hot feet
C cold foot
D cold hand
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation:
"To get cold feet" is a common idiom that means to become suddenly nervous or fearful about carrying out a planned action or undertaking (such as making a speech or getting married).

Idioms are fixed expressions, so variations like "cold foot" or "cold hand" are incorrect.
2026 Prelims English
Select the correct spelling of the incorrectly spelt word in the given sentence:

"The trainer tried to guage the learners' understanding of the subject by asking several new questions."
A Gauge
B Gaage
C Gaugg
D Gaaug
Correct Answer: Option A
The word misspelled in the sentence is "guage".

The correct spelling is "gauge" (with the a before the u), which means to measure, estimate, or judge a amount, degree, or capacity.
2026 Prelims English
Correct the underlined phrase:
"When we are came out of the restaurant it was half past eleven."
A When we had come out
B After we came out of the restaurant
C When we have come out of the restaurant
D No improvement
Correct Answer: Option A
"When we had come out of the restaurant it was half past eleven."

Why this is correct:
Grammar Error in Original: The phrase "are came" combines a present tense helping verb (are) with a past tense main verb (came), which is grammatically invalid.

Past Perfect Tense (had + V3): When talking about two past events or states, the action that happened first ("coming out of the restaurant") is expressed using the past perfect tense (had come), while the subsequent past state ("it was half past eleven") uses simple past.
2026 Prelims English
Fill in the Blanks with Correct Modals:
"____ you show me the road to the market?"

A might
B could
C may
D shall
Correct Answer: Option B
Why "could" is correct:
Polite Request: "Could you..." is standard English for making a polite, respectful request or asking someone for assistance.

Why other options don't fit:

May: Used for asking or giving permission (typically with "I" or "we", e.g., "May I..."), not usually to ask someone else to do something ("May you" is grammatically incorrect in standard requests).

Might: Extremely formal and tentative, rarely used to make direct polite requests.

Shall: Typically used for offers or suggestions involving the first person ("Shall I help you?" or "Shall we go?").
2026 Prelims English
Fill in the blanks with Correct Article.
"He is ____ captain of ____ team."

A the
B an
C a
D no article
Correct Answer: Option A
Why "the" is used in both places:
"the captain": Refers to a specific, unique title/role within a specific group.

"the team": Refers to a specific, contextually known team rather than any random team in general.
2026 Prelims English
Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.
"Did you hear that noise?"
A Was that noise heard by you?
B Wasn't that noise heard by you?
C Has that noise been heard by you?
D Is that noise heard by you?
Correct Answer: Option A
Why this is correct:
Original Tense: "Did you hear..." is in the Simple Past Tense.

Passive Formula for Past Simple Questions: Was/Were + Subject (Object of Active) + Past Participle (V3) + by + Object (Subject of Active)?

Breakdown:

"Did" becomes Was (since "that noise" is singular).

The object "that noise" becomes the subject.

"hear" becomes its past participle, heard.

"you" becomes the object following by.

More JKSSB Previous Year Questions

High Court 2026

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