JKSSB Patwari 2024 Previous Year Questions

Q: The term gigabyte refers to

Correct Answer: Option C - 1024 megabytes Explanation: In computer storage, units of measurement typically follow a binary progression where each level is 1024 times larger than the previous one ($2^{10}$).• 1024 Megabytes (MB) = 1 Gigabyte (GB).• 1024 Bytes = 1 Kilobyte (KB).• 1024 Kilobytes (KB) = 1 Megabyte (MB).• 1024 Gigabytes (GB) = 1 Terabyte (TB).

Q: In MS Power Point, to insert a new slide in the current presentation, we press the following command.

Correct Answer: Option A - Ctrl + M Explanation: In Microsoft PowerPoint, Ctrl + M is the specific shortcut used to insert a new slide into your existing presentation. It is a common point of confusion for many users.• Ctrl + N (Option B): This creates an entirely New presentation file (a new window).• Ctrl + O (Option C): This is the shortcut to Open an existing presentation file.• Ctrl + F (Option D): This opens the Find dialog box to search for specific text within your slides.

Q: This peripheral device is mostly used in financial institutions to process a large number of cheques by recognizing the magnetic encoding number printed at the bottom of the cheque?

Correct Answer: Option B - MICR Explanation: MICR stands for Magnetic Ink Character Recognition. It is a technology used primarily by the banking industry to streamline the processing and clearance of cheques and other documents.• The Process: The numbers and characters at the bottom of a cheque (which include the cheque number, sorting code, and account number) are printed using a special ink or toner that contains magnetic material (usually iron oxide).• The Device: The MICR reader senses these magnetic charges. Because it relies on magnetic properties rather than just optical shape, it is highly secure and can still read the characters even if they are covered by stamps, signatures, or ink.• OCR (Option A): Optical Character Recognition; used for converting printed/handwritten text into digital data.• OMR (Option C): Optical Mark Recognition; used for processing multiple-choice tests (like the ones you are taking!).• Bar code reader (Option D): Used for reading universal product codes (UPC), commonly seen in retail.

Q: The function of Format Painter is

Correct Answer: Option B - To copy formatting from one object or piece of text and then apply elsewhere Explanation: The Format Painter is a highly efficient tool found in Microsoft Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint). Its purpose is to save time by allowing you to "copy" the look—such as font style, size, color, and borders—of a specific piece of text or an object and "paste" that exact same formatting onto another piece of text or object.• Pro Tip: Single-clicking the Format Painter allows you to apply formatting once. Double-clicking the Format Painter button keeps the tool "active," allowing you to apply the same formatting to multiple different areas until you press the Esc key.

Q: Which of the following devices converts computer output data into an analog form that can be transmitted over a telephone line?

Correct Answer: Option D - Modem Explanation: A Modem (short for Modulator-Demodulator) is a hardware device that bridges the gap between digital and analog signals.• Modulation: It converts the digital data from a computer (0s and 1s) into analog signals (waveforms) so they can travel over telephone lines or cable systems.• Demodulation: At the receiving end, it converts those analog signals back into digital data for the computer to understand.• Multiplexer (Option A): Combines multiple signals into one signal over a shared medium.• Modulator (Option B): While modulation is part of the process, the device itself that performs both functions in this context is the Modem.• Teleport (Option C): This is not a standard networking hardware term in this context.

Q: In MS Power Point, the following is not an option when printing handouts?

Correct Answer: Option B - Five slides per page Explanation: In Microsoft PowerPoint, the "Handouts" print settings allow you to print multiple slides on a single sheet of paper to save space or provide a reference for the audience. The available layouts are preset to specific numbers:• 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, and 9 slides per page.• 5 slides per page is not a standard option because the software organizes these in a grid (like $2 \times 2$ or $3 \times 3$) or a list. A 5-slide layout would result in an asymmetrical or awkward empty space in the standard grid system.

Q: For what purpose, the joystick is used?

Correct Answer: Option B - computer gaming Explanation: A joystick is an input device consisting of a stick that pivots on a base and reports its angle or direction to the device it is controlling. While they are used in various applications like controlling cranes, trucks, and underwater unmanned vehicles, their most common use in a computing context is for computer gaming (especially flight simulators) and controlling industrial robots.• Option A: Scanning is done by a Scanner.• Option C: Entering text is primarily done with a Keyboard.• Option D: Sound is usually controlled via software sliders or dedicated volume keys/knobs.

Q: A virus famous for making multiple copies of itself, spreads and infects the other computers over a network is called _____.

Correct Answer: Option A - Worm Explanation: A Worm is a type of malware that is distinct because of its ability to self-replicate and spread independently. Unlike a standard virus, which usually requires a user to run an infected file, a worm can travel across networks and through security vulnerabilities to infect other computers without any human interaction.• Trojan horse (Option B): Disguises itself as legitimate software but does not self-replicate.• Macro virus (Option C): Specifically infects documents (like Word or Excel) using "macros" or embedded scripts.• Adware (Option D): Software that automatically displays or downloads advertising material.

Q: Ransomware virus is developed for ___.

Correct Answer: Option C - Encrypting files and demanding payment for decryption Explanation: Ransomware is a specific type of malicious software (malware) designed to block access to a computer system or its data. It typically does this by encrypting the victim's files, making them unreadable. The attackers then demand a "ransom" payment (often in cryptocurrency like Bitcoin) in exchange for the decryption key needed to restore the data.• Option A: While some ransomware also threatens to leak data (double extortion), the primary historical purpose is the ransom for decryption.• Option B: This is usually a side effect of viruses or "bloatware," not the primary goal.• Option D: Deleting files is the behavior of "wiper" malware, which aims to destroy data rather than profit from it.

Q: In MS Word, using CTRL+SHIFT with any of the arrow keys

Correct Answer: Option A - Highlights a block of text Explanation: In Microsoft Word, using the CTRL + SHIFT + Arrow Keys combination allows you to select (highlight) text more efficiently than using just the Shift key:• CTRL + SHIFT + Left/Right Arrow: Highlights one full word at a time.• CTRL + SHIFT + Up/Down Arrow: Highlights one full paragraph at a time.• By contrast, using just SHIFT + Arrow Keys highlights only one character or one line at a time.

Practice authentic exam questions with answers and explanations

Questions

Subjects

2024

Year

Computer 16 questions

2024 Prelims Computer

The term gigabyte refers to

A 1024 bytes

B 1024 kilobytes

C 1024 megabytes

D 1024 GB

Correct Answer: Option C

In computer storage, units of measurement typically follow a binary progression where each level is 1024 times larger than the previous one ($2^{10}$).

• 1024 Megabytes (MB) = 1 Gigabyte (GB).

• 1024 Bytes = 1 Kilobyte (KB).

• 1024 Kilobytes (KB) = 1 Megabyte (MB).

• 1024 Gigabytes (GB) = 1 Terabyte (TB).

2024 Prelims Computer

In MS Power Point, to insert a new slide in the current presentation, we press the following command.

A Ctrl + M

B Ctrl + N

C Ctrl + O

D Ctrl + F

Correct Answer: Option A

In Microsoft PowerPoint, Ctrl + M is the specific shortcut used to insert a new slide into your existing presentation. It is a common point of confusion for many users.

• Ctrl + N (Option B): This creates an entirely New presentation file (a new window).

• Ctrl + O (Option C): This is the shortcut to Open an existing presentation file.

• Ctrl + F (Option D): This opens the Find dialog box to search for specific text within your slides.

2024 Prelims Computer

This peripheral device is mostly used in financial institutions to process a large number of cheques by recognizing the magnetic encoding number printed at the bottom of the cheque?

A OCR

B MICR

C OMR

D Bar code reader

Correct Answer: Option B

MICR stands for Magnetic Ink Character Recognition. It is a technology used primarily by the banking industry to streamline the processing and clearance of cheques and other documents.

• The Process: The numbers and characters at the bottom of a cheque (which include the cheque number, sorting code, and account number) are printed using a special ink or toner that contains magnetic material (usually iron oxide).

• The Device: The MICR reader senses these magnetic charges. Because it relies on magnetic properties rather than just optical shape, it is highly secure and can still read the characters even if they are covered by stamps, signatures, or ink.

• OCR (Option A): Optical Character Recognition; used for converting printed/handwritten text into digital data.

• OMR (Option C): Optical Mark Recognition; used for processing multiple-choice tests (like the ones you are taking!).

• Bar code reader (Option D): Used for reading universal product codes (UPC), commonly seen in retail.

2024 Prelims Computer

The function of Format Painter is

A To paint pretty pictures on your slides

B To copy formatting from one object or piece of text and then apply elsewhere

C To change the background colour of your slides

D To paint pretty pictures on background of slides

Correct Answer: Option B

The Format Painter is a highly efficient tool found in Microsoft Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint). Its purpose is to save time by allowing you to "copy" the look—such as font style, size, color, and borders—of a specific piece of text or an object and "paste" that exact same formatting onto another piece of text or object.

• Pro Tip: Single-clicking the Format Painter allows you to apply formatting once. Double-clicking the Format Painter button keeps the tool "active," allowing you to apply the same formatting to multiple different areas until you press the Esc key.

2024 Prelims Computer

Which of the following devices converts computer output data into an analog form that can be transmitted over a telephone line?

A Multiplexer

B Modulator

C Teleport

D Modem

Correct Answer: Option D

A Modem (short for Modulator-Demodulator) is a hardware device that bridges the gap between digital and analog signals.

• Modulation: It converts the digital data from a computer (0s and 1s) into analog signals (waveforms) so they can travel over telephone lines or cable systems.

• Demodulation: At the receiving end, it converts those analog signals back into digital data for the computer to understand.

• Multiplexer (Option A): Combines multiple signals into one signal over a shared medium.

• Modulator (Option B): While modulation is part of the process, the device itself that performs both functions in this context is the Modem.

• Teleport (Option C): This is not a standard networking hardware term in this context.

2024 Prelims Computer

In MS Power Point, the following is not an option when printing handouts?

A Six slides per page

B Five slides per page

C Three slides per page

D Two slides per page

Correct Answer: Option B

In Microsoft PowerPoint, the "Handouts" print settings allow you to print multiple slides on a single sheet of paper to save space or provide a reference for the audience. The available layouts are preset to specific numbers:

• 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, and 9 slides per page.

• 5 slides per page is not a standard option because the software organizes these in a grid (like $2 \times 2$ or $3 \times 3$) or a list. A 5-slide layout would result in an asymmetrical or awkward empty space in the standard grid system.

2024 Prelims Computer

For what purpose, the joystick is used?

A scanning hardcopy text to computer

B computer gaming

C entering text

D controlling sound on the screen

Correct Answer: Option B

A joystick is an input device consisting of a stick that pivots on a base and reports its angle or direction to the device it is controlling. While they are used in various applications like controlling cranes, trucks, and underwater unmanned vehicles, their most common use in a computing context is for computer gaming (especially flight simulators) and controlling industrial robots.

• Option A: Scanning is done by a Scanner.

• Option C: Entering text is primarily done with a Keyboard.

• Option D: Sound is usually controlled via software sliders or dedicated volume keys/knobs.

2024 Prelims Computer

A virus famous for making multiple copies of itself, spreads and infects the other computers over a network is called _____.

A Worm

B Trojan horse

C Macro virus

D Adware

Correct Answer: Option A

A Worm is a type of malware that is distinct because of its ability to self-replicate and spread independently. Unlike a standard virus, which usually requires a user to run an infected file, a worm can travel across networks and through security vulnerabilities to infect other computers without any human interaction.

• Trojan horse (Option B): Disguises itself as legitimate software but does not self-replicate.

• Macro virus (Option C): Specifically infects documents (like Word or Excel) using "macros" or embedded scripts.

• Adware (Option D): Software that automatically displays or downloads advertising material.

2024 Prelims Computer

Ransomware virus is developed for ___.

A Stealing sensitive information

B Slowing down computer performance

C Encrypting files and demanding payment for decryption

D Deleting system files

Correct Answer: Option C

Ransomware is a specific type of malicious software (malware) designed to block access to a computer system or its data. It typically does this by encrypting the victim's files, making them unreadable. The attackers then demand a "ransom" payment (often in cryptocurrency like Bitcoin) in exchange for the decryption key needed to restore the data.

• Option A: While some ransomware also threatens to leak data (double extortion), the primary historical purpose is the ransom for decryption.

• Option B: This is usually a side effect of viruses or "bloatware," not the primary goal.

• Option D: Deleting files is the behavior of "wiper" malware, which aims to destroy data rather than profit from it.

2024 Prelims Computer

In MS Word, using CTRL+SHIFT with any of the arrow keys

A Highlights a block of text

B Deletes something

C Pastes something

D None of the above

Correct Answer: Option A

In Microsoft Word, using the CTRL + SHIFT + Arrow Keys combination allows you to select (highlight) text more efficiently than using just the Shift key:

• CTRL + SHIFT + Left/Right Arrow: Highlights one full word at a time.

• CTRL + SHIFT + Up/Down Arrow: Highlights one full paragraph at a time.

• By contrast, using just SHIFT + Arrow Keys highlights only one character or one line at a time.

2024 Prelims Computer

What is the minimum number of rows and columns that a table in MS Word can have?

A 0 row and 0 column

B 2 rows and 1 column

C 2 rows and 2 columns

D 1 row and 1 column

Correct Answer: Option D

In Microsoft Word, a table must contain at least one cell. A single cell is formed by the intersection of one row and one column. You cannot create a table with "zero" rows or columns because, by definition, the table would not exist. When you go to the "Insert Table" menu, the smallest grid selection possible is a $1 \times 1$ square.

2024 Prelims Computer

In MS Word, which of the following shortcut key is used to check spelling?

A F1

B F2

C F7

D F9

Correct Answer: Option C

The F7 key is the standard shortcut in Microsoft Word (and other Microsoft Office programs like Excel and PowerPoint) to launch the Spelling and Grammar check tool.

• F1 is typically used for "Help."

• F2 is used to move text or objects.

• F9 is used to update selected fields.

2024 Prelims Computer

In MS Excel, which of the following is an absolute cell reference?

A !A1!

B $A$1

C #A$1

D #A#1

Correct Answer: Option B

An absolute cell reference in Excel is a cell address that contains dollar signs ($) before the column letter and the row number. This tells Excel to keep the reference locked to that specific cell, even if the formula is copied or moved to a different location.

• $A$1 locks both the column (A) and the row (1).

• The other symbols (!, #) are used for different purposes in Excel, such as sheet references or error indicators, but not for locking cell coordinates.

2024 Prelims Computer

McAfee is an example of

A Photo Editing Software

B Quick Heal

C Virus

D Antivirus

Correct Answer: Option D

McAfee is a well-known global computer security software company. Its primary product is an antivirus program designed to detect, prevent, and remove malware, including viruses, spyware, and Trojans, from computers and networks.

• Quick Heal (Option B) is another brand of antivirus, not a category that McAfee falls into.

• Photo Editing Software (Option A) would include programs like Adobe Photoshop.

2024 Prelims Computer

In which year India's IT Act came into existence?

A 2000

B 2001

C 2002

D 2003

Correct Answer: Option A

The Information Technology Act, 2000 (also known as ITA-2000 or the IT Act) was enacted by the Indian Parliament and received the assent of the President on June 9, 2000. It was officially notified and came into force on October 17, 2000. It is the primary law in India dealing with cybercrime and electronic commerce, providing legal recognition for electronic records and digital signatures.

2024 Prelims Computer

Which of the following does not belong to the category of system software?

A BIOS software

B Device drivers

C DOS

D Microsoft Office

Correct Answer: Option D

• System Software: This refers to programs that manage the computer hardware and provide a platform for other software to run. It acts as an intermediary between the hardware and the user's applications.

o BIOS (A): The Basic Input/Output System is the first software that runs when you turn on a computer, identifying and initializing hardware components.
o Device Drivers (B): These are specialized programs that allow the operating system to communicate with specific hardware devices (like printers or graphics cards).
o DOS (C): Disk Operating System is a type of operating system, which is the most fundamental piece of system software.

• Application Software: Unlike system software, Microsoft Office is designed to help the user perform specific tasks—such as word processing (Word), data analysis (Excel), or presentations (PowerPoint). Therefore, it belongs to the category of Application Software.

English 21 questions

2024 Prelims English

Change the below sentence into passive voice.

Please help the needy and poor people.

A You are advised to help the needy and poor people.

B You are requested to help the needy and poor people.

C Let the needy and the poor people be helped.

D The needy and poor people must be helped.

Correct Answer: Option B

The original sentence is an imperative sentence that begins with the word "Please," indicating a request. When converting such sentences into passive voice:

• The word "Please" is replaced with the phrase "You are requested to."

• The rest of the sentence follows in the infinitive form ("to help...").

While "advised" or "must be helped" convey a similar sentiment of duty, they change the original tone of the "request" to "advice" or "command."

2024 Prelims English

Fill in the blank with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below.

He inserted a needle ____ the close petals of a flower.

A in

B upon

C at

D between

Correct Answer: Option D

The preposition "between" is used when referring to a position in the middle of two or more distinct objects. Since a flower has multiple "close petals," the needle is being placed in the space separating them.

• In would imply the needle is inside a single petal.

• Upon suggests it is resting on top.

• At indicates a specific point but doesn't capture the relationship with the surrounding petals.

2024 Prelims English

Fill in the blank with appropriate prepositions from the alternatives given below.

We should prevent damage ____ and theft of public property.

A to

B of

C at

D on

Correct Answer: Option A

In English, certain nouns are followed by specific prepositions (this is called a "dependent preposition"). The noun "damage" is followed by the preposition "to" when indicating what has been harmed (e.g., damage to the car, damage to the building).

The sentence uses two different nouns that require different prepositions:

1. Damage to (public property)

2. Theft of (public property)

Because "damage" and "theft" do not share the same preposition, "to" must be explicitly stated after "damage" to make the sentence grammatically complete.

2024 Prelims English

Pick out the correct meaning of the given idiom:

Break the ice

A To remove the tension at a first meeting

B To avoid a difficult conversation.

C To face an awkward situation.

D To confront an adversary in a hostile situation.

Correct Answer: Option A

To "break the ice" means to say or do something to relieve tension or get a conversation started in a strained or unfamiliar social situation. It is commonly used when people meet for the first time and feel shy or uncomfortable. The phrase originates from the practice of "icebreaker" ships clearing a path for other vessels, symbolizing the clearing of a path for communication.

2024 Prelims English

Pick out the correct meaning of the given idiom:

To show the white feather

A To act as a plucky

B To act as stout-hearted.

C To act as a cowardice

D To act as dauntless

Correct Answer: Option C

The idiom "to show the white feather" means to behave in a cowardly fashion or to show signs of fear. Its origin comes from cockfighting; a pure-bred gamecock was said to have no white feathers, so a bird with a white feather in its tail was seen as a crossbreed that would not fight well and would instead back down.

• Plucky, Stout-hearted, and Dauntless are all synonyms for being brave and courageous, which is the exact opposite of this idiom.

2024 Prelims English

Choose the pair of words that will make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

She described that those responsible for _____ are connected with _____ like drugs or gaming.

A accomplishments, virtues

B compliance, vice

C misconduct, benefits

D offenses, vice

Correct Answer: Option D

• The sentence links a specific behavior to "drugs or gaming." In this context, "gaming" likely refers to illegal gambling or addictive betting. Both drugs and gambling are categorized as vices (immoral or wicked behavior).

• Since the second blank connects to negative behaviors (vices), the first blank must describe something negative that people are "responsible for." "Offenses" (illegal acts) fits perfectly.

• "Accomplishments" and "virtues" are positive; "compliance" and "benefits" do not logically connect to the negative connotation of drug-related activity.

2024 Prelims English

Choose the pair of words that will make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

The mournful _____ of the grieving widow _____ through the empty halls of the old mansion.

A wail, echoed

B cries, filled

C sobs, resounded

D whispers, echoed

Correct Answer: Option A

• The first blank: While "cries" and "sobs" are also sounds of grief, "wail" is a singular noun that fits perfectly with the singular article "The" and the adjective "mournful." A wail is specifically a long, high-pitched cry of pain or grief.

• The second blank: "Echoed" is the most evocative verb for a sound traveling through "empty halls." While "resounded" is a close synonym, the combination in option A creates the most cohesive and atmospheric imagery for the sentence. "Whispers" (Option D) contradicts the adjective "mournful" in this intense context of a grieving widow.

2024 Prelims English

Select the Synonyms of the word:

Soliloquy

A Taciturnity

B Reticence

C Inarticulateness

D Monologue

Correct Answer: Option D

A soliloquy is an act of speaking one's thoughts aloud when by oneself or regardless of any hearers, especially by a character in a play. A monologue is the closest synonym as it also refers to a long speech by one person.

• Taciturnity and Reticence both refer to being reserved or saying very little (the opposite of a long speech).

• Inarticulateness refers to an inability to speak distinctly or express oneself clearly.

2024 Prelims English

Select the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in bold letters) and mark your response accordingly.

The school principal showed leniency to the students who arrived late for class, understanding the challenges they faced with transportation.

A Vengeance

B Altruism

C Commiseration

D Philanthropy

Correct Answer: Option A

Leniency means the quality of being more merciful or tolerant than expected (forgiveness or mildness). An antonym is a word with the opposite meaning.

• Vengeance (punishment inflicted or retribution exacted for an injury or wrong) serves as the best opposite here, as it implies a desire for strict punishment or revenge rather than mercy.

• Altruism and Philanthropy relate to selfless concern for others, while Commiseration means sympathy, making them closer to synonyms or unrelated terms.

2024 Prelims English

Pick out the relative clause in the following sentence:

The cat, which scratched my mum, is wild.

A The cat which

B which scratched my mum

C is wild.

D Scratched my mum

Correct Answer: Option B

A relative clause is a type of subordinate clause that starts with a relative pronoun (such as which, who, whom, whose, or that) and functions as an adjective to provide more information about a noun. In this sentence, the clause "which scratched my mum" gives extra detail about "the cat." Because it is non-essential information (the sentence "The cat is wild" still makes sense without it), it is set off by commas.

2024 Prelims English

Pick out the subordinate clause in the below sentence:

If you work on Sunday, I will look after the children.

A If you work

B on Sunday, I will look after the children.

C I will look after the children.

D If you work on Sunday

Correct Answer: Option D

A subordinate clause (also known as a dependent clause) is a group of words that contains a subject and a verb but cannot stand alone as a complete sentence. It usually begins with a subordinating conjunction—in this case, "If." While "I will look after the children" is an independent clause that makes sense on its own, "If you work on Sunday" leaves the thought unfinished and depends on the rest of the sentence for meaning.

2024 Prelims English

Fill in the blanks using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options.

_____ recent survey indicates that _____ number of drug addicts is growing day by day.

A A, the

B No article, the

C The, the

D A, no article

Correct Answer: Option A

• The first blank: Use "A" because the sentence introduces a "recent survey" for the first time. It is an indefinite, non-specific mention of one survey among many possible surveys.

• The second blank: Use "the" because the phrase "the number of" is a specific grammatical structure used to indicate a total or a quantity that is changing (increasing or decreasing). In contrast, "a number of" would mean "several" or "many," which does not fit the singular verb "is growing."

2024 Prelims English

Fill in the blanks using suitable articles. When no article is required, select no article among the given options.

Mr. Agnihotri, who is _____ producer and _____ financier of _____ Nike company was present there.

A the, the, the

B the, no article, a

C the, the, no article

D the, no article, the

Correct Answer: Option D

• The first blank: Use "the" because "producer" refers to a specific person's role in this context.

• The second blank: Use no article because "producer" and "financier" refer to the same person (Mr. Agnihotri). In English, when two titles refer to the same individual, the article is typically only used before the first title. If you used "the" for both, it would imply two different people.

• The third blank: Use "the" because "Nike company" is a specific, named entity.

2024 Prelims English

Fill in the blank using a suitable modal:

I ______ run a mile in 10 minutes, when I was younger.

A would

B can

C will

D could

Correct Answer: Option D

The sentence refers to a physical ability in the past, as indicated by the phrase "when I was younger." "Could" is the past tense form of "can" and is specifically used to describe general abilities that a person possessed at a previous point in time.

2024 Prelims English

Fill in the blank using a suitable modal:

All company employees ______ abide by the rules and regulations provided.

A ought to

B would

C will

D could

Correct Answer: Option A

The sentence describes a moral or legal obligation within a professional setting. "Ought to" is used to express duty, correctness, or a strong recommendation. While "will" could indicate a future certainty, "ought to" specifically captures the sense of requirement and responsibility expected of employees regarding company policy.

2024 Prelims English

Select the most appropriate option to change the sentence from indirect speech to direct speech.

Surender asked Prashant whether he had watched the cricket match on television the previous night.

A Surender asked Prashant, "Have he watched the cricket match on television last night?"

B Surender said to Prashant, "Was he watching the cricket match on television last night?"

C Surender said to Prashant, "Did you watch the cricket match on television last night?"

D Surender asked Prashant, "Had you watch the cricket match on television the previous night?"

Correct Answer: Option C

The most appropriate option is C.

Why Option C is Correct

To convert from indirect to direct speech, you essentially "reverse" the standard rules of reported speech. Here is why C fits perfectly:

• Tense Reversion: In the indirect sentence, "had watched" is in the past perfect. When moving back to direct speech, this typically reverts to the simple past ("Did you watch").

• Time Expression: The phrase "the previous night" in indirect speech is the reported version of "last night" in direct speech.

• Pronoun Shift: The "he" in the indirect sentence refers to Prashant (the person being spoken to). Therefore, in the direct quote, Surender would address him as "you."

• Reporting Verb: "Asked" in a question format is often represented as "said to" in direct speech before the quotation marks.

________________________________________

Why the others don't work

• A: Uses "Have he," which is grammatically incorrect, and keeps the third-person "he" instead of addressing Prashant as "you."

• B: Changes the aspect to past continuous ("Was he watching"), which doesn't match the original "had watched."

• D: Uses "Had you watch," which is ungrammatical (it should be "had watched"), and fails to change "the previous night" back to "last night."

2024 Prelims English

Select the most appropriate option to change the sentence from direct speech to indirect speech.

My nephew said, "I have decided to take coaching in badminton".

A My nephew said that he had decided to take coaching in badminton.

B My nephew said that I have decided to take coaching in badminton.

C My nephew told that he is deciding to take coaching in badminton.

D My nephew told that he was deciding to take coaching in badminton.

Correct Answer: Option A

The correct option is (A).

The Correct Indirect Speech

My nephew said that he had decided to take coaching in badminton.

To convert from direct to indirect speech, we follow specific rules for tense and pronouns:

• Reporting Verb: Since "said" is not followed by an object (to whom he said it), it remains "said". (Note: "Told" is usually used when an object is present, e.g., My nephew told me).

• Conjunction: The comma and inverted commas are replaced by "that".

• Pronoun Change: The first-person pronoun "I" changes to the third-person "he" to refer back to the nephew.

• Tense Change: The Present Perfect ("have decided") changes to the Past Perfect ("had decided") because the reporting verb "said" is in the past tense.

Why the other options are incorrect

• B) My nephew said that I...: This incorrectly keeps the pronoun "I," which would mean the speaker (you) decided to take coaching, not the nephew.

• C) My nephew told... he is deciding: This incorrectly uses the Present Continuous tense.

• D) My nephew told... he was deciding: This incorrectly uses the Past Continuous tense.

Correct Option: A

2024 Prelims English

Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

P. was laid with fruit

Q. the tree,

R. the branches of which

S. overhung the street,

The correct sequence should be

A PQRS

B QRSP

C SPRQ

D QRPS

Correct Answer: Option B

The correct sequence to assemble the segments is (B) QRSP.

The Completed Sentence

"The tree, (Q) the branches of which (R) overhung the street, (S) was laid with fruit (P)."

• Q (The tree,): This is the Main Subject of the sentence. The comma indicates a descriptive clause is about to follow.

• R (the branches of which): This is a Relative Clause modifying "The tree." It identifies which part of the tree we are discussing.

• S (overhung the street,): This provides the location/action of the branches. The closing comma signals the end of the parenthetical description.

• P (was laid with fruit): This is the Main Predicate that completes the statement about the subject ("The tree").

Correct Option: B

2024 Prelims English

Given below are five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the correct sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

P. who secures

Q. will receive a trophy

R. the highest marks

S. the child

The correct sequence should be

A PQRS

B QRSP

C SPRQ

D QRPS

Correct Answer: Option C

The correct sequence to assemble the segments is (C) SPRQ.

The Completed Sentence:

"The child (S) who secures (P) the highest marks (R) will receive a trophy (Q)."

• S (The child): Serves as the Subject of the entire sentence.

• P (who secures): This is a Relative Clause that must immediately follow the noun it qualifies ("The child").

• R (the highest marks): Acts as the Object for the verb "secures" within that clause.

• Q (will receive a trophy): Provides the Main Predicate (the action the child will perform/receive) to complete the statement.

Correct Option: C

2024 Prelims English

In this question, the sentence is broken into four parts. Find out the error part in the sentence from the given options and mark your answer.

She taste (a)/ the sauce to (b)/ find out whether (c)/ it is tasteful or not (d).

A She taste

B the sauce to

C find out whether

D it is tasteful or not

Correct Answer: Option A

The error is in part (A).

The Correction

The subject "She" is a third-person singular pronoun. In the simple present tense, the verb must agree with the subject by adding an -s or -es.

• Incorrect: She taste...

• Correct: She tastes the sauce...

Why the other parts are correct

• (B) the sauce to: This correctly identifies the object and uses the infinitive "to" to introduce the purpose.

• (C) find out whether: "Whether" is the appropriate conjunction to use when expressing an investigation between two possibilities (tasty or not).

• (D) it is tasteful or not: While "tasty" is more common for food, "tasteful" can occasionally be used to mean having a pleasant flavor, though the primary grammatical error remains in the subject-verb agreement of part A.

The correct option is A.

2024 Prelims English

Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.

My father assured me that he will buy a bike for me.

A he is buying

B he would buy

C he bought

D he is going to buy

Correct Answer: Option B

• Sequence of Tenses: This sentence follows the rules of Indirect Speech. When the principal clause is in the past tense (indicated by the word "assured"), the verb in the subordinate clause must also be in a past form.

• Future in the Past: In English grammar, when we talk about the future from a point of view in the past, "will" changes to "would".

o Direct: My father said, "I will buy a bike for you."

o Indirect: My father assured me that he would buy a bike for me.

• Why others are incorrect:

o (A) and (D): These use present forms ("is buying" and "is going to"), which create a tense clash with the past-tense "assured."

o (C) "he bought": This changes the meaning entirely, suggesting the bike was already purchased in the past rather than being a promise for the future.

Polity 3 questions

2024 Prelims Polity

According to the J&K Reorganisation Act 2019, the number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of UT of Jammu and Kashmir to be filled by direct election is

A 114

B 107

C 89

D 87

Correct Answer: Option B

• Original Provision (2019 Act): According to Section 14(4) of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir was initially fixed at 107.

• Seats for PoK: Out of these 107 seats, 24 seats are officially reserved for the areas of the Union Territory currently under the occupation of Pakistan (PoK). These seats remain vacant and are not taken into account for calculating the quorum of the Assembly.

• Effective Seats: This meant that, as per the original 2019 Act, only 83 seats were to be filled by direct election.

• Delimitation Update: It is important to note that following the Delimitation Commission's report (2022), the total number of seats was later increased to 114 (with 90 seats to be filled by direct election and 24 still reserved for PoK). However, looking strictly at the primary text of the 2019 Act before subsequent amendments/delimitation, the number cited is 107.

2024 Prelims Polity

After the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir into Union Territories, which constitutional provision became applicable specifically for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir?

A Article 239

B Article 239A

C Article 240

D Article 356

Correct Answer: Option B

• The Transition: Following the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the erstwhile state was reconstituted into two Union Territories: Jammu & Kashmir (with a legislature) and Ladakh (without a legislature).

• Article 239A: This specific article of the Indian Constitution allows for the creation of a Local Legislature or a Council of Ministers (or both) for certain Union Territories. Originally created for Puducherry, the 2019 Act explicitly made the provisions of Article 239A applicable to the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

• Distinction from other Articles:

o Article 239: Deals with the general administration of Union Territories by the President through an administrator.
o Article 240: Gives the President the power to make regulations for certain Union Territories (like Andaman and Nicobar Islands or Lakshadweep).
o Article 356: Relates to the imposition of President's Rule in States; for Union Territories with a legislature like J&K, "President's Rule" is technically handled under the Reorganisation Act and Article 239AB.

2024 Prelims Polity

Arrange the following Chief Justice of India in chronological order of holding their office.

1. U.U. Lalit

2. D.Y. Chandrachud

3. Y.V. Chandrachud

4. Ranjan Gogoi

Choose the correct option:

A 1, 2, 4, 3

B 3, 4, 1, 2

C 2, 1, 4, 3

D 3, 1, 4, 2

Correct Answer: Option B

To arrange these Chief Justices of India (CJIs) chronologically, we look at their terms of office:

1. Y.V. Chandrachud (3): Served as the 16th CJI from 1978 to 1985. He holds the record for the longest tenure in the history of the Supreme Court of India.

2. Ranjan Gogoi (4): Served as the 46th CJI from 2018 to 2019. He was the first CJI from Northeast India.

3. U.U. Lalit (1): Served as the 49th CJI in 2022. His tenure was relatively short, lasting 74 days.

4. D.Y. Chandrachud (2): Served as the 50th CJI from 2022 to 2024. Notably, he is the son of Y.V. Chandrachud, making them the only father-son duo to have held the position of CJI.

Geography 20 questions

2024 Prelims Geography

Which glacier lies in the Karakoram Range system of Kashmir near the India-Pakistan border?

A Siachen Glacier

B Gangotri Glacier

C Zanskar Glacier

D Pindari Glacier

Correct Answer: Option A

• Location: The Siachen Glacier is located in the eastern Karakoram Range in the Himalayas, just northeast of the point NJ9842 where the Line of Control between India and Pakistan ends.

• Physical Features: It is approximately 76 km long, making it the longest glacier in the Karakoram and the second-longest in the world's non-polar areas.

• Strategic Importance: Often referred to as the "Highest Battlefield in the World," it has been under the administrative control of India (as part of the Union Territory of Ladakh) since Operation Meghdoot in 1984.

• Comparison with other options:

o Gangotri Glacier (B): Located in the Uttarkashi District of Uttarakhand; it is the source of the River Ganges.

o Zanskar Glacier (C): Located in the Zanskar Range of Ladakh, south of the Indus Valley.

o Pindari Glacier (D): Located in the Kumaon Himalayas of Uttarakhand.

2024 Prelims Geography

Which one of the following mountain peaks of the Himalayas is NOT in India?

A Annapurna

B Nanda Devi

C Kamet

D Kanchenjunga

Correct Answer: Option A

• Annapurna (A): The Annapurna massif is located entirely within Nepal. It is a 55 km-long (34 miles) section of the Himalayas, with its highest peak, Annapurna I, reaching an elevation of 8,091 meters.

• Nanda Devi (B): This is the second-highest mountain in India and the highest located entirely within the country (in the state of Uttarakhand).

• Kamet (C): Located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand, India, Kamet is the second-highest peak in the Garhwal region after Nanda Devi.

• Kanchenjunga (D): This is the highest mountain peak in India and the third-highest in the world. It is situated on the border between Sikkim, India, and Nepal.

2024 Prelims Geography J&K

Which region of Jammu & Kashmir is known for its sericulture and cold-water fisheries?

A Jammu

B Ladakh

C Kashmir

D Leh

Correct Answer: Option C

• Sericulture: The Kashmir Valley has a centuries-old tradition of silk production. Its temperate climate is ideal for the growth of high-quality mulberry trees, which are essential for rearing silkworms (Bombyx mori). The region is particularly famous for producing premium Bivoltine silk, which is known for its superior strength and shine.

• Cold-Water Fisheries: The valley's perennial rivers, high-altitude lakes, and spring-fed streams provide the perfect habitat for cold-water fish. Kashmir is internationally renowned for its Trout (both Brown and Rainbow), which were originally introduced by the British. The Department of Fisheries has established numerous hatcheries, such as the one at Dachigam, to support this industry.

Geographical Advantage: While the Jammu region also practices sericulture, the specific combination of high-grade silk and extensive trout-filled cold-water bodies is a hallmark of the Kashmir region. Ladakh and Leh are too arid and cold for large-scale mulberry cultivation.

2024 Prelims Geography

What is the total length of the Jhelum River?

A 245 km

B 960 km

C 710 km

D 725 km

Correct Answer: Option D

• The Jhelum River originates from the Verinag Spring at the foot of the Pir Panjal range in the southeastern part of the Kashmir Valley. It flows through Srinagar and the Wular Lake before entering a deep ravine in the Himalayas.

• The total length of the Jhelum is approximately 725 km (about 450 miles). Out of this, nearly 400 km of its course lies within India (Jammu and Kashmir), while the remaining portion flows through Pakistan.

•It is the westernmost of the five rivers of the Punjab region and is a major tributary of the Chenab River. It meets the Chenab at Trimmu in the Jhang District of Pakistan.

• In ancient Greek records, the river was known as the Hydaspes, famous for the Battle of the Hydaspes between Alexander the Great and King Porus in 326 BCE. In Sanskrit, it is called the Vitasta.

2024 Prelims Geography

Which river is known as the “Moon River”?

A Chenab

B Jhelum

C Ravi

D Tawi

Correct Answer: Option A

• Etymology: The name Chenab is derived from the Persian words Chan (meaning Moon) and Ab (meaning Water). In local folklore and historical texts, it is frequently referred to as the "Moon River."

• Mythological Roots: In ancient India (Vedic period), the river was known as Asikni, which means "dark-colored water." However, the connection to the moon comes from its two primary headwaters in the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh: the Chandra (Moon) and the Bhaga.

• The Confluence: The river is formed by the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers at Tandi. The combined stream is initially called the Chandrabhaga before it enters Jammu and Kashmir and becomes known as the Chenab.

• Cultural Significance: The Chenab is deeply embedded in the romantic folklore of the Punjab region, most notably serving as the setting for the tragic love story of Heer Ranjha.

2024 Prelims Geography

Two volcanic islands in Indian territory are

A Kavaratti and New Moor

B Great Andaman and Little Nicobar

C Pamban and Barren

D Narcondam and Barren

Correct Answer: Option D

• Barren Island: Located in the Andaman Sea, it is the only active volcano in South Asia. Its first recorded eruption was in 1787, and it has shown recent activity as of 2017.

• Narcondam Island: Also located in the Andaman Sea (north of Barren Island), it is a dormant volcano. The name is derived from the Tamil word Naraka-kundam, meaning "a pit of hell."

• Geological Context: Both islands are part of the volcanic arc that runs between the Indian Plate and the Burmese Microplate.

2024 Prelims Geography

Arrange the following states in ascending order as per their coastline.

1. Odisha

2. Kerala

3. Gujarat

4. Andhra Pradesh

5. Tamil Nadu

Choose the correct option:

A 1, 2, 5, 4, 3

B 2, 1, 5, 4, 3

C 3, 5, 4, 1, 2

D 3, 4, 1, 2, 5

Correct Answer: Option A

To arrange these states in ascending order (from the shortest coastline to the longest), we look at the official maritime data for mainland India:

1. Odisha (1): Has a coastline of approximately 480 km.

2. Kerala (2): Has a coastline of approximately 590 km.

3. Tamil Nadu (5): Has a coastline of approximately 907 km.

4. Andhra Pradesh (4): Has a coastline of approximately 974 km (the second-longest in India).

5. Gujarat (3): Has the longest coastline in India, stretching approximately 1,215 km (excluding islands).

2024 Prelims Geography Environment & Ecology

Consider the following statements.

1. The Sundarbans are mangrove forest, on the delta of the Ganges, Brahmaputra and Meghna rivers on the Bay of Bengal.

2. The Sundarban National Park is listed under the World Heritage Marine Programme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option C

• Statement 1 (Correct): The Sundarbans constitute the largest contiguous mangrove forest in the world. They are formed by the confluence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers in the Bay of Bengal, spanning across both India (West Bengal) and Bangladesh.

• Statement 2 (Correct): The Sundarban National Park is indeed part of the UNESCO World Heritage Marine Programme. While it was originally inscribed as a World Heritage site in 1987 for its unique terrestrial and aquatic biodiversity (especially the Royal Bengal Tiger), its vast network of tidal waterways, mudflats, and salt-tolerant mangrove forests qualifies it for inclusion in the Marine Programme, which focuses on conserving the world’s most outstanding marine and coastal areas.

2024 Prelims Geography

What are duns in the context of geography?

A Mountain peaks

B Fertile plains at the foothills

C Deep valleys

D Glacial lakes

Correct Answer: Option B

• Definition: In the context of Himalayan geography, Duns are longitudinal valleys that lie between the Lesser Himalayas (Himachal) and the Outer Himalayas (Shiwaliks).

• Formation: These are not typical river valleys. They were formed when rivers were temporarily blocked by the rising Shiwalik ranges, creating massive lakes. Over time, these lakes deposited thick layers of gravel and alluvium. When the rivers finally cut through the mountains, the lakes drained, leaving behind flat, fertile structural valleys.

• Characteristics: Because they are filled with alluvial deposits, Duns are highly fertile and have become densely populated centers for agriculture and settlement.

• Examples: * Dehra Dun (the largest and most famous)

o Kotli Dun
o Patli Dun

2024 Prelims Geography

Which of the following physical divisions of India has the oldest landmass?

A The Himalayas

B The Northern Plains

C The Peninsular Plateau

D The Indian Desert

Correct Answer: Option C

• The Peninsular Plateau is considered the oldest landmass of India because it was once a part of the ancient Gondwanaland. Unlike the Himalayas or the Northern Plains, it has remained a stable shield for millions of years.

• It is primarily composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks that were formed through volcanic activity and intense heat/pressure during the Precambrian era.

• Comparison with Other Divisions:

o The Himalayas (A): These are "Young Fold Mountains" formed much later by the collision of the Indian and Eurasian plates.
o The Northern Plains (B): This is a relatively recent alluvial deposit formed by the silt brought down by the Himalayan rivers.
o The Indian Desert (D): This is also a more recent physiographic feature compared to the ancient crystalline rocks of the southern plateau.

• Due to its ancient origin, the Peninsular Plateau is one of the most stable geological blocks on Earth and is rarely affected by major tectonic shifts compared to the Himalayan region.

2024 Prelims Geography

In which of the following towns does the LMT (Local Meridian Time) show the greatest deviation from the IST (Indian Standard Time)?

A Kolkata

B Cochin

C Mumbai

D Kohima

Correct Answer: Option D

• IST Reference: Indian Standard Time (IST) is calculated based on the 82.5° E longitude, which passes through Mirzapur (near Allahabad). This is the "mean" time for the entire country.

• The further a town is located (either East or West) from the 82.5° E meridian, the greater its Local Meridian Time (LMT) will deviate from the IST.

• Geographical Analysis:

o Kolkata: Approximately 88° E (Difference: ~5.5°)
o Cochin: Approximately 76° E (Difference: ~6.5°)
o Mumbai: Approximately 72° E (Difference: ~10.5°)
o Kohima: Approximately 94° E (Difference: ~11.5°)

• Conclusion: Since Kohima is the easternmost point among the given options, it has the highest longitudinal displacement from the standard meridian, resulting in the greatest time deviation (roughly 46 minutes ahead of the 82.5° E mean).

2024 Prelims Geography Polity

India sovereignty in sea extends up to ______ nautical miles.

A 8

B 10

C 12

D 20

Correct Answer: Option C

• According to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), a country's sovereignty extends to its territorial sea, which is a belt of coastal waters extending at most 12 nautical miles (approximately 22.2 km) from the baseline (usually the mean low-water mark).

• Within these 12 nautical miles, the coastal state (India) exercises full sovereignty over the air space, the water column, the seabed, and the subsoil. This is treated similarly to the country's land territory, although foreign vessels are allowed "innocent passage" through these waters.

• Other Zones for Comparison:

o Contiguous Zone: Extends up to 24 nautical miles from the baseline (used for customs, fiscal, immigration, or sanitary laws).
o Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ): Extends up to 200 nautical miles, where the state has rights over natural resources but does not have full sovereignty.

2024 Prelims Geography

In which one of the following places is the headquarters of the North-Eastern Railway located?

A Guwahati

B Kolkata

C Bhubaneswar

D Gorakhpur

Correct Answer: Option D

• The North-Eastern Railway (NER) is one of the 19 railway zones in India. Its headquarters is located in Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh. This zone primarily serves the areas of western Bihar and eastern and central Uttar Pradesh.

• The NER was formed in 1952 by combining the Oudh and Tirhut Railway and the Assam Railway. While it originally covered a larger area, several parts were later carved out to form the Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR).

• Clarification of Distractors:

o Guwahati (Maligaon): This is the headquarters of the Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR), which serves the "Seven Sister" states and parts of West Bengal/Bihar.
o Kolkata: This city serves as the headquarters for three zones: Eastern Railway, South Eastern Railway, and the Kolkata Metro.
o Bhubaneswar: This is the headquarters of the East Coast Railway (ECoR).

2024 Prelims Geography

HBJ/HVJ pipeline transports

A Crude Oil

B Natural Gas

C Petroleum

D Iron Ore in slurry form

Correct Answer: Option B

• The acronym stands for Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur. It was India's first cross-state gas pipeline, laid by GAIL (Gas Authority of India Limited).

• The pipeline starts at Hazira in Gujarat, passes through Vijaipur in Madhya Pradesh, and terminates at Jagdishpur in Uttar Pradesh. It connects the gas fields in Western India to the demand centers in the North.

• The primary purpose of this pipeline is to transport Natural Gas to supply fuel for power plants and feedstock for various fertilizer plants located along its route (such as those in Sawai Madhopur, Babrala, and Shahjahanpur).

• Over time, the pipeline has been extended to Delhi and other parts of Haryana and Rajasthan, forming the backbone of the National Gas Grid.

2024 Prelims Geography

Which of the following statements about National Highway 27 (NH 27) in India is correct?

A NH 27 runs from Delhi to Kolkata.

B NH 27 is the longest highway in India.

C NH 27 connects Porbandar in Gujarat to Silchar in Assam.

D NH 27 covers only three states.

Correct Answer: Option C

• NH 27 is the backbone of the East-West Corridor of the Golden Quadrilateral project. It starts from Porbandar (Gujarat) on the western coast and terminates at Silchar (Assam) in the east.

• The highway running from Delhi to Kolkata is primarily NH 19 (formerly part of the old NH 2). NH 27 does not pass through Delhi.

• NH 27 is the second-longest National Highway in India (approximately 3,507 km). The title of the longest highway belongs to NH 44, which runs North-South from Srinagar to Kanyakumari.

• NH 27 is a massive trans-national route that passes through seven states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, and Assam.

2024 Prelims Geography

Consider the following statements:

1. Devika river originates in Himachal Pradesh.

2. It holds religious significance as it is revered as the sister of river Ganga.

3. It flows towards western Punjab where it merges with the Ravi River.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A 1 and 2 only

B 2 and 3 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: Option B

• Statement 1 (Incorrect): The Devika River originates in the Udhampur district of Jammu and Kashmir, specifically from the hilly ranges of Sudhmahadev. It does not originate in Himachal Pradesh.

• Statement 2 (Correct): The river holds immense religious importance in Hindu mythology and is traditionally revered as the elder sister of the Holy River Ganga. It is believed that the Ganga itself manifests in the Devika once a year.

• Statement 3 (Correct): The river flows in a southwesterly direction towards Western Punjab (now in Pakistan), where it eventually merges with the Ravi River.

• Current Relevance: The river has been in the news due to the North India's first River Rejuvenation Project (the Devika Project), modeled after the 'Namami Gange' initiative to restore its ecology and ghats.

2024 Prelims Geography

With reference to the Dams and Rivers, consider the following pairs: Dam/Reservoir — River.Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Column I		Column II
1.	Gobind Sagar Reservoir	a.	Satluj
2.	Maharana Pratap Sagar Reservoir	b.	Beas
3.	Chamera Dam	c.	Ravi

A 1 only

B 1 and 2 only

C 2 and 3 only

D 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: Option D

• Pair 1 (Correct): The Gobind Sagar Reservoir is formed by the Bhakra Dam on the Satluj River in Himachal Pradesh. It is one of the largest man-made lakes in India and is named after the tenth Sikh Guru, Guru Gobind Singh.

• Pair 2 (Correct): Maharana Pratap Sagar, also known as the Pong Dam Lake, is a large reservoir created by an earth-fill dam on the Beas River in the Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a well-known wetland and a Ramsar site.

• Pair 3 (Correct): The Chamera Dam is built on the Ravi River in the Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is a major hydroelectric project in the region, utilizing the water of the Ravi for power generation.

2024 Prelims Geography

Arrange the following states in descending order on the basis of area.

1. Rajasthan

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Karnataka

4. Maharashtra

Choose the correct option:

A 2, 3, 4, 1

B 1, 2, 4, 3

C 3, 2, 4, 1

D 3, 1, 2, 4

Correct Answer: Option B

To arrange these states in descending order (from largest to smallest) by land area, we look at the official geographic data of India:

1. Rajasthan (1): With an area of approximately 342,239 sq km, it is the largest state in India.

2. Madhya Pradesh (2): It holds the second position with an area of about 308,245 sq km.

3. Maharashtra (4): It is the third-largest state, covering approximately 307,713 sq km.

4. Karnataka (3): Among the options provided, Karnataka is the smallest, with an area of roughly 191,791 sq km (ranking 6th nationally).

2024 Prelims Geography

Consider the following statements.

1. Thadou is a group of people inhabiting Assam.

2. Boro (Bodo) is a group of people inhabiting Manipur.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A Only 1

B Only 2

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option D

• Statement 1 (Incorrect): The Thadou people are a major ethnic group primarily inhabiting the state of Manipur. They are one of the largest tribes within the Kuki-Zomi community. While there are small populations in neighboring states, their primary cultural and geographical identity is rooted in Manipur, not Assam.

• Statement 2 (Incorrect): The Bodo (Boro) people are an ethnolinguistic group primarily inhabiting the state of Assam. They are the largest minority group in Assam and have a dedicated autonomous region known as the Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR). They are not a primary indigenous group of Manipur.

2024 Prelims Geography

Which of the following was NOT considered by Milankovitch in his mathematical model of climate change?

A Change in the angle of inclination of the earth

B Change in the eccentricity of the earth's orbit

C Precession of equinoxes

D Changes in the rate of rotation of earth on its axis

Correct Answer: Option D

The Milankovitch Theory explains the cyclical variations in Earth's climate (specifically the onset of Ice Ages) based on three specific geometric changes in Earth's orbit and orientation. These are:

• (Option B): This refers to the shape of Earth's orbit around the Sun, which fluctuates between being more circular and more elliptical over a cycle of approximately 100,000 years.

• (Option A): This is the change in the angle of inclination of Earth's axis. It varies between 22.1° and 24.5° over a 41,000-year cycle, affecting the intensity of the seasons.

• (Option C): This is the "wobble" of Earth's axis (like a spinning top), which changes the orientation of the axis relative to the stars over a 26,000-year cycle. This is often referred to as the Precession of Equinoxes.

Why D is Incorrect: While the rate of rotation (how fast the Earth spins on its axis) can be affected by tidal friction or mass redistribution over millions of years, it was not one of the three orbital parameters used by Milutin Milankovitch to build his mathematical model of long-term climate change.

J&K 14 questions

2024 Prelims J&K Art & Culture

The Subar Dhar Mela takes place in which of the following locations of Jammu and Kashmir?

A Doda

B Kishtwar

C Srinagar

D Jammu

Correct Answer: Option A

• Location: The Subar Dhar Mela is a prominent annual religious and cultural festival held at the Subar Dhar meadow, located in the Bhaderwah region of the Doda district.

• The Deity: The mela is dedicated to Lord Subar Nag (a serpent deity). The ancient Subar Nag Temple, situated at a high altitude, serves as the primary site for the pilgrimage and rituals.

• Timing: It usually takes place in the month of April (during the Baisakhi festival period). It marks the end of the harsh winter and the beginning of the spring season in the mountains.

• Cultural Tradition: Thousands of devotees from across the Jammu division trek to the hilltop to perform the traditional Dhekku dance. The atmosphere is filled with local folk music, and it is considered a symbol of the unique "Pahari" culture of the Doda region.

2024 Prelims J&K Geography

Arrange the following districts of J&K in ascending order on the basis of the number of blocks.

1. Kupwara

2. Anantnag

3. Shopian

4. Pulwama

5. Kathua

Choose the correct option:

A 1, 2, 5, 4, 3

B 3, 4, 2, 5, 1

C 3, 5, 4, 1, 2

D 3, 4, 1, 2, 5

Correct Answer: Option B

To arrange these districts in ascending order (smallest to largest) based on the number of administrative blocks, we look at the official data from the Department of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj, Jammu & Kashmir:

• Shopian (3): As one of the smaller districts in terms of area and population, it has the fewest blocks in this list, totaling 9 blocks.

• Pulwama (4): Located in the Kashmir division, Pulwama follows with 11 blocks.

• Anantnag (2): A major district in South Kashmir, it has a significantly higher number of administrative units, with 16 blocks.

• Kathua (5): This large district in the Jammu division has 19 blocks.

• Kupwara (1): Located in North Kashmir, Kupwara is one of the most densely divided districts for rural administration, containing 24 blocks.

2024 Prelims J&K Geography

Jammu and Kashmir falls under which postal zonal code in India?

A Zone 1

B Zone 2

C Zone 3

D Zone 4

Correct Answer: Option A

• Indian Postal Zones: India is divided into nine postal zones. The first eight are geographical regions, and the ninth is reserved for the Army Postal Service.

• Zone 1 Coverage: Zone 1 covers the northern states and union territories of India, specifically:

o Jammu and Kashmir

o Ladakh

o Delhi

o Haryana

o Punjab

o Himachal Pradesh

o Chandigarh

• PIN Code Structure: The first digit of a PIN (Postal Index Number) indicates the zone. Because Jammu and Kashmir falls under Zone 1, all PIN codes in the region begin with the number 1 (e.g., Srinagar is 190xxx, Jammu is 180xxx).

2024 Prelims J&K Art & Culture

Consider the following statements:

1. Mahjoor (Ghulam Ahmad Mahjoor) was a 16th-Century Kashmiri poetess known for her romantic and mystical poetry.

2. Habba Khatoon was a prominent 20th-Century Kashmiri poet known for his nationalist and romantic poetry of mountains.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option C

Both statements are incorrect because the descriptions of the two iconic Kashmiri poets have been swapped and their historical periods are misrepresented:

• Statement 1 (Incorrect): Mahjoor (Ghulam Ahmad Mahjoor) was a 20th-century male poet (1887–1952). He is celebrated as the "Poet of Kashmir" and is famous for introducing a new style of nationalist, romantic, and socially conscious poetry. He is not a 16th-century poetess.

• Statement 2 (Incorrect): Habba Khatoon was a 16th-century Kashmiri Muslim poetess (also known as the "Nightingale of Kashmir"). She was the queen of Yusuf Shah Chak and is renowned for her romantic and mystical "Lol" lyrics (short love poems). She is not a 20th-century male poet.

2024 Prelims J&K Geography

What is the scientific name of the saffron plant cultivated in Jammu and Kashmir?

A Crocus sativus

B Rosa damascena

C Lavandula angustifolia

D Jasminum grandiflorum

Correct Answer: Option A

• Taxonomy: The saffron plant belongs to the family Iridaceae. Its scientific name is Crocus sativus. It is a triploid, sterile plant that is propagated through underground bulbs called corms.

• The Spice: The world-famous spice is actually the dried, vivid crimson stigmata (and sometimes styles) of the saffron flower. Each flower typically contains only three stigmas.

• Regional Significance: In Jammu and Kashmir, it is primarily cultivated in the Pampore highlands (Karewas), which are world-renowned for producing some of the highest-quality saffron due to the unique soil and climatic conditions.

• Comparison with other options:

o Rosa damascena (B): The Damask Rose, used for making rose water and perfumes.
o Lavandula angustifolia (C): Common Lavender, often grown for its essential oil.
o Jasminum grandiflorum (D): Spanish Jasmine, a species of jasmine used in the fragrance industry.

2024 Prelims J&K History

Which ruler of Jammu and Kashmir signed the Treaty of Amritsar in 1846, ceding Kashmir to Gulab Singh?

A Maharaja Ranjit Singh

B Bahadur Shah II

C Raja Gulab Singh

D Raja Hari Singh

Correct Answer: Option C

• The Treaty of Amritsar (1846): This treaty was signed on March 16, 1846, between the British East India Company and Gulab Singh. It followed the First Anglo-Sikh War and the Treaty of Lahore.

• The Transaction: Through this treaty, the British transferred (sold) the territory of Kashmir to Gulab Singh for a sum of 75 lakh Nanakshahee rupees. This act effectively created the modern Princely State of Jammu and Kashmir.

• Founder of the Dynasty: With this acquisition, Gulab Singh became the first Maharaja of the integrated state of Jammu and Kashmir, marking the beginning of the Dogra Dynasty.

• Comparison with other options:

o Maharaja Ranjit Singh (A): The leader of the Sikh Empire who died in 1839, seven years before this treaty.
o Bahadur Shah II (B): The last Mughal Emperor, who had no role in the administrative transfer of Kashmir.
o Raja Hari Singh (D): The last ruling Maharaja of the Dogra Dynasty, who signed the Instrument of Accession to India in 1947.

2024 Prelims J&K Geography

Which lake, located in the Doda district of Jammu region, is known for its religious significance and is surrounded by pine forests?

A Dal Lake

B Pangong Lake

C Mansar Lake

D Tso Moriri Lake

Correct Answer: Option C

• Mansar Lake is situated in the Jammu region, approximately 62 km from Jammu city. While the district boundaries in older texts sometimes reference Udhampur/Doda, it is a primary religious and ecological site for the Jammu hills, surrounded by dense pine forests.

• The lake is considered a holy site, often associated with the legend of Sheshnag (the serpent deity). A temple dedicated to Sheshnag is located on its eastern bank. It is a popular destination for pilgrims who perform holy circumambulations (Parikrama) around the lake.

• Along with its twin lake, Surinsar, it is designated as a Ramsar Site (Wetland of International Importance) due to its unique biodiversity, including several species of turtles and seasonal migratory birds.

• Comparison with other options:

o Dal Lake (A): Located in Srinagar, Kashmir Valley (not Jammu).
o Pangong Lake (B): A high-altitude saline lake in Ladakh.
o Tso Moriri Lake (D): Another high-altitude lake located in the Changthang plateau of Ladakh.

2024 Prelims J&K Art & Culture

Consider the following pairs. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Column I		Column II
1.	Folk Music	a.	Bhand Pather
2.	Wedding Dance	b.	Chakri
3.	Theater Dance	c.	Basohli
4.	Painting	d.	Hafiza

A i - 1, ii - 2, iii - 3, iv - 4

B i - 2, ii - 4, iii - 1, iv - 3

C i - 4, ii - 3, iii - 1, iv - 2

D i - 4, ii - 1, iii - 2, iv - 3

Correct Answer: Option B

Folk Music – Chakri: One of the most popular forms of traditional folk music in Kashmir, performed using instruments like the harmonium, sarangi, and nout.

Wedding Dance – Hafiza: A traditional dance performed by Kashmiri women at weddings and festivals, usually accompanied by Sufiana Kalam.

Theater Dance – Bhand Pather: A traditional folk theatre of Kashmir that blends dance, music, and satire, performed by the “Bhand” community.

Painting – Basohli: A renowned school of Pahari miniature painting from the Basohli region of Jammu, famous for its bold colors and geometric patterns.

2024 Prelims J&K Geography

Which of the following national highways passes through Jammu and Kashmir?

A NH-1

B NH-2

C NH-44

D NH-27

Correct Answer: Option C

• NH-44: This is the longest North-South National Highway in India. It begins in Srinagar (Jammu and Kashmir) and terminates in Kanyakumari (Tamil Nadu). It is the primary artery connecting the Kashmir Valley and Jammu to the rest of the country.

• NH-1: While the old NH-1 ran through J&K (connecting Uri to Leh), under the new numbering system adopted by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, the major longitudinal highway traversing the Union Territory is designated as NH-44.

• Other Options:

o NH-2: Connects Dibrugarh in Assam to Tuipang in Mizoram (Northeast India).
o NH-27: The East-West corridor connecting Porbandar (Gujarat) to Silchar (Assam).

2024 Prelims J&K Economy

What is the predominant economic activity in Jammu & Kashmir?

A Handicrafts

B Manufacturing

C Agriculture

D Tourism

Correct Answer: Option C

• While Jammu & Kashmir is world-famous for its tourism and handicrafts, Agriculture remains the predominant economic activity, providing a livelihood for about 70% of the population.

• The sector contributes roughly 15% to 20% of the Union Territory's Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP). It is the primary source of income in rural areas across both the Jammu and Kashmir divisions.

• A major part of the agricultural economy is Horticulture. J&K is the leading producer of Apples and Walnuts in India. The "Saffron" cultivation in Pampore is also a globally recognized agricultural activity.

• Comparison with other options:

o Handicrafts (A) and Tourism (D): These are vital sectors that generate significant foreign exchange and employment, but they are considered "allied" or "service-based" and do not employ as large a percentage of the total population as agriculture.
o Manufacturing (B): This sector is relatively small in J&K due to the mountainous terrain and historical connectivity challenges.

2024 Prelims J&K Geography

Consider the following statements:

1. Jammu and Kashmir covers an area of 101387 Sq. Kms and lies between Latitude 28°17’ and 35°05’ North.

2. The higher regions are covered by Pir Panjal, Karakoram, and inner Himalayan ranges of mountains.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option B

• Statement 1 (Incorrect): * Area: The figure of 101,387 sq. km refers to the area of the erstwhile State of Jammu and Kashmir under Indian administration prior to 2019 (the total area including PoK was 222,236 sq. km). Following the 2019 Reorganisation, the area of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is approximately 42,241 sq. km (mainland area) or ~55,538 sq. km (including PoK areas mapped to the UT).

o Coordinates: The latitude for the region is generally cited between 32°17’ N and 37°05’ N. The statement's "28°17’" is too far south (near Delhi/Rajasthan latitudes).

• Statement 2 (Correct): The topography of the region is defined by its massive mountain systems. The Pir Panjal range encloses the Kashmir Valley from the south and west, while the Karakoram range dominates the northern frontier (now primarily in Ladakh and Gilgit-Baltistan but historically and geographically part of the broader J&K mountain system). The Inner Himalayas (Great Himalayas) run through the center, separating the valley from the high-altitude cold deserts.

2024 Prelims J&K Environment & Ecology Geography

Which of the following statements accurately describes the biodiversity and flora of Jammu and Kashmir?

1. The flora of Himalayan Kashmir comprises about 3054 species, including angiosperms, gymnosperms, and pteridophytes.

2. Only 5% of Indian mammals are found in Jammu and Kashmir.

3. Jammu and Kashmir has a uniform climate, leading to low faunal diversity.

Choose the correct option:

A 1 only

B 2 only

C 1 and 2 only

D 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: Option A

• Statement 1 (Correct): The flora of the Himalayan region of Jammu and Kashmir is remarkably diverse due to its varied altitudinal zones. It consists of approximately 3,054 species, which include a wide array of angiosperms (flowering plants), gymnosperms (like deodar and pine), and pteridophytes (ferns).

• Statement 2 (Incorrect): Jammu and Kashmir is actually a biodiversity hotspot for mammals. It hosts a significant percentage of India's mammalian species (much higher than 5%), including rare and iconic animals like the Hangul (Kashmir Stag), Snow Leopard, Markhor, and Tibetan Antelope.

• Statement 3 (Incorrect): Jammu and Kashmir does not have a uniform climate. The region's topography ranges from the subtropical plains of Jammu to the temperate alpine valleys of Kashmir and the cold arctic-like desert of Ladakh. This extreme climatic variation leads to high faunal diversity, not low.

2024 Prelims J&K Art & Culture

Which traditional textile art of Jammu and Kashmir involves weaving fine wool or silk threads into exquisite shawls that are often adorned with paisley and floral patterns?

A Ikat

B Jamawar

C Bandhani

D Kantha

Correct Answer: Option B

• Jamawar is a sophisticated form of shawl weaving that originated in Kashmir. The name comes from Jama (robe) and War (yard), as it was traditionally used to make royal robes and long gowns.

• Unlike many other shawls where the pattern is embroidered onto the fabric, Jamawar involves weaving the intricate designs—often using Pashmina wool or silk—directly into the base fabric. Small shuttles called Tojis are used to create the patterns.

• It is world-renowned for its dense, all-over patterns, particularly the Paisley (locally known as Buta or Kalka) and various floral motifs inspired by the natural beauty of the Kashmir Valley.

• Comparison with other options:

o Ikat (A): A resist-dyeing technique primarily associated with Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Gujarat.
o Bandhani (C): A tie-and-dye art practiced mainly in Rajasthan and Gujarat.
o Kantha (D): A traditional embroidery style from West Bengal and Odisha, typically using old saris to create quilts.

2024 Prelims J&K Geography

Arrange the following places of Kashmir region from North to South.

1. Kargil.

2. Gilgit.

3. Banihal.

4. Sri Nagar.

Choose the correct option :

A 3, 2, 1, 4

B 3, 1, 2, 4

C 2, 1, 4, 3

D 2, 4, 1, 3

Correct Answer: Option C

To arrange these locations from North to South, we look at their latitudinal positions within the Greater Kashmir region:

1. Gilgit (2): Located in the northernmost part of the region (currently in Pakistan-administered Kashmir), it sits at approximately 35.9° N latitude.

2. Kargil (1): Situated in the Ladakh Union Territory, southeast of Gilgit but north of the Kashmir Valley, it sits at approximately 34.5° N latitude.

3. Srinagar (4): Located in the heart of the Kashmir Valley, south of the main Himalayan range relative to Kargil, it sits at approximately 34.1° N latitude.

4. Banihal (3): Located at the southern end of the Kashmir Valley near the Pir Panjal range, it serves as the gateway to the Jammu region and sits at approximately 33.5° N latitude.

Current Affairs 8 questions

2024 Prelims Current Affairs

When was the Banihal-Qazigund section of the railway project inaugurated?

A June 2012

B June 2013

C July 2013

D July 2014

Correct Answer: Option B

• Inauguration Date: The Banihal-Qazigund section of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project was officially inaugurated on June 26, 2013.

• Key Significance: This 18-km stretch was a landmark achievement because it connected the Jammu region (Banihal) to the Kashmir Valley (Qazigund) through the formidable Pir Panjal mountain range.

• The Pir Panjal Tunnel: The highlight of this section is the 11.2 km long Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel (also known as Tunnel T-80). At the time of its inauguration, it was India's longest railway tunnel, significantly reducing the travel time between Banihal and Qazigund from 35 km by road to just 18 km by rail.

• Connectivity: Before this section opened, the rail line in the valley was isolated; this inauguration was the first major step in linking the valley's internal rail network to the rest of the Indian railway system.

2024 Prelims Current Affairs

What percentage of the 48-km railway line between Banihal to Sangaldan passes through tunnels?

A 50%

B 70%

C 90%

D 100%

Correct Answer: Option C

• The Project: The Banihal-Sangaldan section is a critical 48.1 km stretch of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail Link (USBRL) project. It was inaugurated in February 2024.

• Engineering Marvel: Due to the extremely rugged and mountainous terrain of the Pir Panjal range, the vast majority of this rail line is constructed underground.

• Tunnel Statistics: Approximately 43.37 km of the 48.1 km stretch consists of tunnels. This equates to roughly 90% of the total length.

• Notable Feature: This section includes Tunnel T-50, which is currently the longest transportation tunnel in India, stretching over 12.77 km.

2024 Prelims Current Affairs

Which oil company has rolled out special winter-grade diesel for Ladakh?

A HP

B IOCL

C BPCL

D GAIL

Correct Answer: Option B

• The Company: Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) was the first company to develop and roll out a specialized winter-grade diesel specifically for high-altitude regions like Ladakh and Kargil.

• Standard diesel contains paraffin wax that begins to crystallize (gel) at extremely low temperatures, which can lead to clogged fuel filters and engine failure. In regions like Ladakh, temperatures often drop below -30°C.

• The Solution: The winter-grade diesel developed by IOCL features a significantly lower "pour point" and is designed to remain fluid and usable even at temperatures as low as -33°C.

• Launch Details: This fuel was first introduced in late 2019 and is produced at IOCL's Panipat Refinery. It meets the BS-VI (Bharat Stage VI) emission standards, ensuring it is also environment-friendly.

2024 Prelims Current Affairs

Consider the following statements.

1. P20 is a congregation of Presidents of G20 nations.

2. The P20 group was set up during the G20 Presidency of Canada in 2010.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option B

• Statement 1 (Incorrect): The P20 (G20 Parliamentary Speakers' Summit) is a congregation of Speakers of Parliaments from the G20 nations, not their Presidents (Heads of State). Its goal is to bring a parliamentary dimension to global governance and help implement G20 decisions at the national level.

• Statement 2 (Correct): The P20 group was indeed established during the G20 Presidency of Canada in 2010. The inaugural summit was held in Ottawa to foster cooperation among the legislative bodies of the world's largest economies.

• Recent Context: The 9th P20 Summit was hosted by India in October 2023 at the Yashobhoomi (India International Convention and Expo Centre) in New Delhi, with the theme "Parliaments for One Earth, One Family, One Future."

2024 Prelims Current Affairs

Arrange the following G20 hosts in chronological order.

1. Japan

2. Italy

3. China

4. Germany

5. India

Choose the correct option:

A 2, 3, 4, 1, 5

B 2, 4, 1, 3, 5

C 3, 2, 4, 1, 5

D 3, 4, 1, 2, 5

Correct Answer: Option D

To arrange these G20 summits in chronological order, we look at the host years:

1. China (3): Hosted the G20 Summit in 2016 in Hangzhou.

2. Germany (4): Hosted the G20 Summit in 2017 in Hamburg.

3. Japan (1): Hosted the G20 Summit in 2019 in Osaka. (Note: Argentina hosted in 2018).

4. Italy (2): Hosted the G20 Summit in 2021 in Rome. (Note: Saudi Arabia hosted virtually in 2020).

5. India (5): Hosted the G20 Summit in 2023 in New Delhi.

2024 Prelims Current Affairs

Consider the following statements.

1. Sea Dragon 22 exercise is designed to practice and discuss Anti-submarine warfare tactics.

2. It is a bilateral annual exercise between India and the US.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A 1 only

B 2 only

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option A

• Statement 1 (Correct): The Sea Dragon 22 exercise was a multinational exercise specifically focused on Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW). The primary objective was to practice and discuss tactics for tracking and targeting silent submarines in the Indo-Pacific region using long-range maritime patrol aircraft.

• Statement 2 (Incorrect): Sea Dragon is not a bilateral exercise between India and the US. It is a multinational exercise. In the 2022 edition, the participating nations included six countries: India, the US, Australia, Canada, Japan, and South Korea. It is typically led by the United States Navy and conducted at Andersen Air Force Base in Guam.

2024 Prelims Current Affairs

Consider the following pairs: Nobel Prize 2021 — Recipients. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Column I		Column II
1.	Physics	a.	Drew Weissman
2.	Chemistry	b.	Alexey Ekimov
3.	Literature	c.	Jon Fosse
4.	Physiology or medicine	d.	Ferenc Krausz

A i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4

B i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4

C i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1

D i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3

Correct Answer: Option C

The names provided in the list actually correspond to the 2023 Nobel Prize winners, not 2021. Here is the correct mapping based on the 2023 laureates:

• i. Physics — 4. Ferenc Krausz: He won (alongside Pierre Agostini and Anne L’Huillier) for experimental methods that generate attosecond pulses of light to study electron dynamics in matter.

• ii. Chemistry — 2. Alexey Ekimov: He was awarded (alongside Moungi Bawendi and Louis Brus) for the discovery and synthesis of quantum dots.

• iii. Literature — 3. Jon Fosse: The Norwegian author won for his innovative plays and prose which give voice to the unsayable.

• iv. Physiology or Medicine — 1. Drew Weissman: He won (alongside Katalin Karikó) for discoveries concerning nucleoside base modifications that enabled the development of effective mRNA vaccines against COVID-19.

To clear up any confusion with the year mentioned, here were the actual 2021 winners:

• Physics: Syukuro Manabe, Klaus Hasselmann, and Giorgio Parisi.

• Chemistry: Benjamin List and David MacMillan.

• Literature: Abdulrazak Gurnah.

• Physiology or Medicine: David Julius and Ardem Patapoutian.

2024 Prelims Current Affairs Science and Technology

The term 'Worldcoin' which was recently seen in news, is a/an?

A Global digital currency backed by a consortium of central banks.

B Non-profit organization working to provide internet access in remote areas.

C Blockchain-based social media platform aiming to compete with existing giants.

D Initiative to create a digital network in which everyone can claim some kind of stake, and join the digital economy.

Correct Answer: Option D

• Worldcoin (now rebranded as World Network) is a crypto-project co-founded by OpenAI CEO Sam Altman. Its primary goal is to build the world’s largest identity and financial network by providing a reliable way to distinguish humans from AI bots online.

• The project uses a biometric imaging device called the "Orb" to scan a person's iris. This creates a unique "World ID" (a digital passport) that proves the user is a real and unique human without revealing their actual identity.

• In exchange for joining the network and verifying their humanity, users in many regions receive a "stake" in the form of WLD tokens (cryptocurrency). This mechanism is designed to enable universal access to the global digital economy.

• Unlike Option A, it is not backed by central banks; rather, it is a decentralized private initiative. It also differs from Option C as its focus is on identity and finance rather than being a social media platform.

History 5 questions

2024 Prelims History J&K

Which ruler of the Dev Dynasty defeated Mahmud of Ghazni with the combined strength of Jammu hill chiefs?

A Vajar Dev

B Bhuj Dev

C Avtar Dev

D Dhruv Dev

Correct Answer: Option B

• According to local chronicles and the Rajdarshani (a history of the Dogra rulers of Jammu), Raja Bhuj Dev is credited with leading a confederacy of hill chiefs from the Jammu region to resist the invasions of Mahmud of Ghazni.

• When Mahmud of Ghazni was retreating from one of his Indian expeditions (often associated with the period following the raid on Somnath or during his campaigns in the Punjab/Northwest), he was harassed and defeated by the combined forces of the Jammu hill tribes and chiefs led by Bhuj Dev.

• This victory is a significant point of pride in the regional history of Jammu, representing a successful resistance against the Ghaznavid forces by the local Dev Dynasty rulers.

The Dev dynasty ruled the Jammu region for centuries before the eventually better-known Dogra branch (the Jamwals) rose to prominence under the same lineage.

2024 Prelims History

Consider the following pairs. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Column I		Column II
1.	Moplah Revolt	a.	Bihar
2.	Ekta Movement	b.	Awadh
3.	Birsa Munda Revolt	c.	Bengal
4.	Pabna Revolt	d.	Kerala

A 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i

B 1-i, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii

C 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv

D 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv

Correct Answer: Option A

None of the options are correctly matched.

The question is flawed or has no correct option.

If this appears in an exam, go with the closest match (A) only if forced—but conceptually, none is correct.

2024 Prelims History

Arrange the following Social Legislations of British rule in chronological order:

1. Abolition of infanticide by British Regulation

2. Abolition of Sati by Lord William Bentinck

3. Abolition of infanticide by Lord Wellesley

4. Abolition of slavery under Regulation X by the Bengal Government

Choose the correct option:

A 1, 2, 3, 4

B 1, 3, 4, 2

C 2, 1, 3, 4

D 3, 1, 4, 2

Correct Answer: Option B

To arrange these social legislations chronologically, we look at the specific years and regulations enacted during the British Raj:

• 1. Abolition of infanticide by British Regulation (1795 & 1804): Female infanticide was first declared illegal by the Bengal Regulation XXI of 1795 and later by the Regulation III of 1804. These were the earliest formal steps taken against this social evil.

• 3. Abolition of infanticide by Lord Wellesley (1802): While the general regulations were passing, Lord Wellesley specifically issued a ban on the custom of sacrificing the first-born child in the Ganges (specifically at Sagar Island) through a regulation in 1802.

• 4. Abolition of slavery under Regulation X by the Bengal Government (1811): The Bengal Government passed Regulation X in 1811, which prohibited the importation of slaves into the territories of the Presidency of Fort William from foreign countries. (Note: Total abolition of slavery in India came later via the Act of 1843).

• 2. Abolition of Sati by Lord William Bentinck (1829): One of the most famous social reforms, the Sati Abolition Act (Regulation XVII), was passed by Lord William Bentinck in December 1829, initially applying to the Bengal Presidency and later extended to Madras and Bombay.

2024 Prelims History

Arrange the following Indian newspapers in chronological order based on their founding years.

1. Kesari

2. Amrita Bazar Patrika

3. Hindustan

4. Mathrubhumi

Choose the correct option:

A 2, 3, 4, 1

B 1, 2, 3, 4

C 3, 2, 4, 1

D 2, 3, 1, 4

Correct Answer: Option D

To arrange these newspapers in chronological order (from the earliest founded to the latest), we look at their historical launch dates during the Indian freedom struggle and beyond:

Amrita Bazar Patrika (2): Founded in 1868 by Sisir Ghosh and Moti Lal Ghosh in Jessore (now in Bangladesh). It started as a Bengali weekly but turned into an English daily overnight to bypass the Vernacular Press Act of 1878.

Hindustan (3): The Hindustan Times (English) was founded in 1924 by Sunder Singh Lyallpuri. Its Hindi counterpart, Hindustan, followed shortly after as part of the same media group.

Kesari (1): Founded in 1881 by Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak. It was a Marathi newspaper that served as a powerful voice for the Indian national movement, particularly in the Bombay Presidency.

Mathrubhumi (4): Founded in 1923 by K. P. Kesava Menon in Kerala. It played a significant role in the Vaikom Satyagraha and the overall independence movement in South India.

2024 Prelims History

The term 'apabhramsa' was used in medieval Sanskrit texts to denote:

A Outcastes among the Rajputs

B Deviations from Vedic rituals

C Early forms of some of the modern Indian language

D Non-Sanskrit verse metres

Correct Answer: Option C

Etymological Meaning: The word 'Apabhramsa' literally translates to "corrupt" or "decayed" in Sanskrit. In a linguistic context, it was used by Sanskrit grammarians to describe languages that had "deviated" from the standard grammatical norms of Sanskrit.
Linguistic Evolution: It represents a specific stage in the development of Indo-Aryan languages, acting as a transitional bridge between the Prakrits (Middle Indo-Aryan) and the modern Indo-Aryan languages (like Hindi, Bengali, Gujarati, and Marathi) that began to emerge around 1000 AD.
Literary Usage: While Sanskrit remained the language of the elite and formal scholarship, Apabhramsa was widely used in medieval texts to capture the evolving dialects spoken by the common people, eventually forming the foundation of many regional mother tongues in India.

Science and Technology 2 questions

2024 Prelims Science and Technology

New Horizons’ spacecraft was launched by NASA to study which of the following planet?

A Pluto

B Mars

C Jupiter

D Mercury

Correct Answer: Option A

• Launched in January 2006, the New Horizons spacecraft was the first mission specifically designed to explore the Pluto system and the Kuiper Belt (a region of icy objects beyond Neptune).

• It made its closest approach to Pluto on July 14, 2015, providing the first-ever close-up images of the dwarf planet and its moons (Charon, Styx, Nix, Kerberos, and Hydra).

• The mission revealed Pluto to be a geologically active world with nitrogen ice plains, mountain ranges, and a thin atmosphere, famously capturing the "heart-shaped" glacier known as Tombaugh Regio.

• Current Status: After the Pluto flyby, the spacecraft continued further into the Kuiper Belt and performed a successful flyby of the object Arrokoth in 2019. It remains operational and is currently traveling toward interstellar space.

2024 Prelims Science and Technology

Assertion (A): Artificial Satellites are always launched from the earth in the eastwards direction.

Reason (R): The earth rotates from west to east and so the satellite attains the escape velocity.

Choose the correct option:

A Both A and R are individually correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

B Both A and R are individually correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C A is correct, but R is incorrect.

D A is incorrect but R is correct.

Correct Answer: Option C

• Assertion (A) is Correct: Satellites are generally launched in the eastward direction to take advantage of the Earth's natural rotation. By launching in the same direction the planet rotates, the rocket gains an initial "boost" in speed, which saves a significant amount of fuel.

• Reason (R) is Incorrect: While it is true that the Earth rotates from west to east, this rotation does not help the satellite attain escape velocity.

o Escape velocity is the speed required to break free from Earth's gravitational pull entirely (approx. 11.2 km/s).
o Most satellites are launched into Orbit, which requires orbital velocity, not escape velocity.
o The Earth's rotational boost at the equator is only about 0.46 km/s, which is a helpful head start for reaching orbital speed but is nowhere near enough to achieve escape velocity on its own.

• Logical Conclusion: The assertion describes a real practice (eastward launches), but the reason provided misidentifies the physical goal (attaining escape velocity) as the result of that rotation.

Environment & Ecology 3 questions

2024 Prelims Environment & Ecology

Which of the following are toxic air pollutants?

1. Arsenic

2. Asbestos

3. Benzene

4. Potassium Chloride

Choose the correct option:

A 2 and 3 only

B 2 and 4 only

C 1, 2 and 3

D 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: Option C

• Arsenic (1): This is a heavy metal and a highly toxic air pollutant, often released into the atmosphere through smelting, coal combustion, and the use of certain pesticides. Long-term inhalation is linked to various cancers.

• Asbestos (2): Asbestos consists of microscopic mineral fibers. When these become airborne (usually during construction or demolition), they are classified as hazardous air pollutants because they can cause severe lung diseases and mesothelioma.

• Benzene (3): This is a volatile organic compound (VOC) found in gasoline fumes, tobacco smoke, and industrial emissions. It is a well-known carcinogen and is strictly monitored as a primary toxic air pollutant.

• Potassium Chloride (4): Unlike the others, this is a non-toxic salt commonly used as a fertilizer or a salt substitute. It is not considered an atmospheric toxin or a hazardous air pollutant. It is generally stable and does not pose the same inhalation risks as the first three.

2024 Prelims Environment & Ecology Geography

Where is the Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve located in India?

A Uttarakhand

B Himachal Pradesh

C Ladakh in J&K

D Sikkim

Correct Answer: Option B

• The Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve is located in the western Himalayas, specifically within the state of Himachal Pradesh. It encompasses the Pin Valley National Park and its surroundings, including the Chandratal and Sarchu areas in the Lahaul and Spiti districts.

• While Ladakh is a famous cold desert and contains the Hemis National Park, it is not officially designated as a "Biosphere Reserve" under the Indian government’s list of 18 Biosphere Reserves. This is a common point of confusion in competitive exams.

• This reserve is a high-altitude ecosystem (3,000 to 6,000 meters) and provides a critical habitat for the endangered Snow Leopard. It is also home to the Tibetan Wolf and the Himalayan Ibex.

• Due to the extreme cold and arid conditions, the vegetation is sparse and consists mainly of medicinal plants, shrubs, and alpine grasses.

2024 Prelims Environment & Ecology

Arrange the following in chronological order.

1. Kyoto Protocol

2. Montreal Protocol

3. Vienna Convention

4. Basel Convention

Choose the correct option:

A 2, 3, 4, 1

B 2, 4, 1, 3

C 3, 2, 4, 1

D 3, 1, 2, 4

Correct Answer: Option C

To arrange these environmental agreements chronologically, we look at the years they were adopted:

1. Vienna Convention (1985): This was the first major international framework for the protection of the Ozone Layer. It acted as a precursor to the more specific Montreal Protocol.

2. Montreal Protocol (1987): Signed shortly after the Vienna Convention, this landmark treaty specifically targeted the phase-out of Ozone-Depleting Substances (ODS) like CFCs.

3. Basel Convention (1989): This treaty was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations, specifically preventing the transfer of dangerous waste from developed to less developed countries.

4. Kyoto Protocol (1997): Adopted much later under the UNFCCC, this was the first international agreement to set binding targets for industrialized countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

Economy 1 questions

2024 Prelims Economy

Which of the following is NOT an objective of NPCI?

A To provide safe, secure, and efficient retail payment systems in India.

B To regulate the payment and settlement systems in India.

C To promote digital payments and financial inclusion in the country.

D To provide a range of products and services to banks and financial institutions.

Correct Answer: Option B

• The Regulator: In India, the power to regulate and supervise payment and settlement systems rests solely with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. The NPCI is an "umbrella organization" for operating these systems, not the regulator.

• Role of NPCI (Options A, C, & D): The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) was set up as a specialized division by the RBI and Indian Banks' Association (IBA). Its objectives include:

o Operating retail payment systems like UPI, IMPS, RuPay, and AePS.
o Providing safe and efficient infrastructure to banks (Option D).
o Driving the "less-cash" society initiative and enhancing financial inclusion (Option C).

• Key Distinction: While the NPCI creates the technology and rules for its own products (like UPI protocols), it remains an implementing body that must comply with the regulations set by the RBI.

General Science 2 questions

2024 Prelims General Science

Consider the following statements:

1. Malaria is a life-threatening mosquito-borne blood disease caused by Protozoa.

2. Malaria spreads through infected female Anopheles mosquito bites.

3. The R21/Matrix-M vaccine became the first malaria vaccine to achieve WHO prequalification.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A 1 and 2 only

B 2 only

C 3 only

D 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: Option A

• Statement 1 (Correct): Malaria is indeed a life-threatening blood disease caused by Plasmodium parasites, which are single-celled microorganisms known as Protozoa. It specifically targets the red blood cells of the host.

• Statement 2 (Correct): The disease is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito. This mosquito acts as a vector, carrying the parasite from one person to another.

• Statement 3 (Incorrect): While the R21/Matrix-M vaccine is a significant breakthrough, it was not the first to achieve WHO prequalification. The RTS,S/AS01 (Mosquirix) vaccine was the first malaria vaccine to receive WHO recommendation (2021) and prequalification (2022). The R21 vaccine is the second such vaccine to be recommended.

• Since statements 1 and 2 are scientifically accurate and statement 3 contains a factual error regarding the "first" status, only the first two are correct.

2024 Prelims General Science

Consider the following pairs: Which of the below pairs are correctly matched?

Column I		Column II
1.	Chocolate	a.	Phenylethylamine
2.	Oysters	b.	Aspartic acid
3.	Spanish Fly	c.	Formic acid
4.	Nutmeg	d.	Myristicin

A 2, 3 and 4

B 1, 3 and 4

C 1, 2 and 3

D 1, 2 and 4

Correct Answer: Option D

• Pair 1 (Correct): Chocolate contains Phenylethylamine, often called the "love chemical." It is a natural alkaloid that acts as a central nervous system stimulant in humans and is associated with the "feel-good" sensation after eating chocolate.

• Pair 2 (Correct): Oysters are high in Aspartic acid (specifically D-aspartic acid) and NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate). These compounds are believed to aid in the release of sex hormones like testosterone and estrogen, supporting the oyster's reputation as an aphrodisiac.

• Pair 3 (Incorrect): Spanish Fly does not contain Formic acid. It contains a toxic substance called Cantharidin, derived from blister beetles. Formic acid is actually the primary chemical found in the venom of ants and bee stings.

• Pair 4 (Correct): Nutmeg contains Myristicin, a natural compound that has psychoactive properties. In large doses, it can act as a deliriant, though it is primarily responsible for the distinct aroma and flavor of the spice.

Art & Culture 2 questions

2024 Prelims Art & Culture

Kalyana Mandapas was a notable feature in the temple construction of:

A Chalukya Kingdom

B Chandela Kingdom

C Rashtrakuta Kingdom

D Vijayanagara Kingdom

Correct Answer: Option D

• Architectural Innovation: The construction of Kalyana Mandapas (marriage halls) was a unique and prominent feature of the Vijayanagara style of architecture. These were ornate, pillared pavilions within the temple complex dedicated to the ceremonial marriage of the presiding deity.

• Distinctive Pillars: These Mandapas are famous for their exquisitely carved pillars, which often feature "Yalis" (mythical creatures) and intricate sculptures of soldiers, horses, and floral patterns.

• Cultural Context: The Vijayanagara rulers (14th–16th century) expanded temple complexes to include secular and communal spaces, reflecting the grandeur and the socio-religious importance of temple festivals during their reign.

• Famous Examples: The most celebrated examples of Kalyana Mandapas can be found in the Vitthala Temple at Hampi and the Virupaksha Temple.

2024 Prelims Art & Culture

Consider the following statements:

1. Chakiarkoothu dance's theater form is known as Koothambalam.

2. Mizhavu is the accompanying instrument.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A Only 1

B Only 2

C Both 1 and 2

D Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: Option C

• Statement 1 (The Venue): Chakiarkoothu is a traditional performance art from Kerala. It is traditionally performed only within the precincts of Hindu temples in a specially designed theater known as the Koothambalam. This space is architecturally optimized for the acoustic and visual requirements of the performance.

• Statement 2 (The Instrumentation): The primary musical accompaniment for Chakiarkoothu is the Mizhavu, a large copper drum played with the palms. The performer (the Chakiar) narrates stories from the epics, while a drummer (the Nambiar) provides the rhythmic support on the Mizhavu.

• Artistic Context: The performance is characterized by its blend of social satire, humor, and mime, where the Chakiar has the traditional liberty to poke fun at the audience or current events while narrating Puranic stories.

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