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JKSSB Jr. Assistant 2026 Previous Year Questions

Practice authentic exam questions with answers and explanations

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2026
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Computer 20 questions

2026 Prelims Computer
In the context of cloud computing in an IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) model, what is managed by the service provider? 
A Networking hardware
B Operating system
C Hardware platform and operating system
D Operating system and data
Correct Answer: Option A
Understanding the IaaS Model
IaaS is the most flexible cloud computing model, essentially providing the "raw materials" of computing. The service provider handles the physical infrastructure, while the user manages everything from the operating system upward.

What the Provider Manages:
Physical Data Centers: Buildings, cooling, and power.

Physical Servers: The actual blades and racks of hardware.

Networking Hardware: Routers, switches, and cabling.

Storage Hardware: Physical hard drives and arrays.

Virtualization: The software layer (hypervisor) that splits physical hardware into virtual machines.

Why the other options are incorrect:
B) Operating System: In IaaS, the user is responsible for choosing, installing, and patching the OS (e.g., Windows Server or Linux). If the provider managed the OS, it would typically be considered PaaS (Platform as a Service).

C) Hardware platform and operating system: As noted above, the OS is managed by the customer in IaaS.

D) Operating system and data: The customer always retains ownership and management of their data in IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS models
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following statements about Internet routing and protocols is correct? 
A BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is used primarily for routing within a single local network.
B ICMP is used to encrypt data packets over the Internet.
C IPv6 adoption eliminates the need for NAT because it provides a vastly larger address space.
D HTTP/3 relies on TCP for faster connections and multiplexing multiple streams.
Correct Answer: Option C
Analysis of Statements
A) BGP is used primarily for routing within a single local network: (Incorrect)BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is the "routing protocol of the internet." It is an External Gateway Protocol (EGP) used to exchange routing information between different Autonomous Systems (AS) on the global internet. Routing within a local network typically uses Interior Gateway Protocols (IGPs) like OSPF or EIGRP.
B) ICMP is used to encrypt data packets over the Internet: (Incorrect)ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is for diagnostics and error reporting (e.g., Destination Unreachable). It does not provide any encryption; security and encryption are handled by protocols like IPsec at the network layer or TLS at the transport/application layers.
C) IPv6 adoption eliminates the need for NAT: (Correct)NAT (Network Address Translation) was created as a workaround for the exhaustion of the 32-bit IPv4 address space. Because IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses—providing approximately $3.4 \times 10^{38}$ unique addresses—every device can have its own public global IP address, removing the fundamental necessity for NAT.
D) HTTP/3 relies on TCP for faster connections: (Incorrect)This is a common misconception. HTTP/3 actually abandons TCP in favor of QUIC, which is built on top of UDP. This shift allows HTTP/3 to reduce connection times (latency) and solve the "head-of-line blocking" issue found in previous versions.

Key Insight: The IPv6 Advantage
The transition to IPv6 is significant because it restores the "end-to-end" principle of the internet. In an IPv4/NAT environment, your router hides your internal devices behind one public IP. In a pure IPv6 environment, the abundance of addresses means NAT-related complexities in peer-to-peer communication and VOIP are virtually eliminated.



Why Statement C is CorrectC) IPv6 adoption eliminates the need for NAT because it provides a vastly larger address space.The Problem: IPv4 only supports about 4.3 billion addresses. Because this wasn't enough for every device on Earth, NAT (Network Address Translation) was developed to allow multiple devices on a private network to share a single public IP address.The Solution: IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses, creating $2^{128}$ (roughly 340 undecillion) unique addresses. This is so large that every single device can have its own permanent, unique global IP address, making the address-saving function of NAT unnecessary.Why the Others are IncorrectA) BGP (Border Gateway Protocol): This is not for local networks (LANs). It is the protocol that manages how data travels between different Autonomous Systems (huge networks managed by ISPs) across the global internet. Local networks typically use OSPF or RIP.B) ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol): ICMP is used for diagnostics and error messages (like when you use the ping command). It does not provide encryption. Encryption is handled by protocols like TLS/SSL (at the application layer) or IPsec (at the network layer).D) HTTP/3: This protocol actually replaces TCP. HTTP/3 is built on QUIC, which runs over UDP. This allows for much faster connection establishment and better performance over unstable networks compared to the older TCP-based HTTP/1.1 and HTTP/2.
2026 Prelims Computer
Consider the following statements about TCP/IP and Internet communication
A TCP guarantees delivery and the correct order of packets, but not the timing.
B TCP is faster than UDP because it does not perform any error checking.
C IPv6 uses 256-bit addresses, but the header size is fixed at 40 bytes
D ICMP is used primarily for application-layer data transfer between web servers.
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of Statements
A) TCP guarantees delivery and the correct order of packets, but not the timing: (True)
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. it uses acknowledgments and sequence numbers to ensure every packet arrives and is reassembled in the right order. However, it is "jittery" because it retransmits lost packets, meaning it cannot guarantee exactly when the data will arrive.

B) TCP is faster than UDP because it does not perform any error checking: (False)
The opposite is true. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is faster precisely because it lacks the overhead of error checking, flow control, and acknowledgments. TCP is slower due to its "three-way handshake" and rigorous error-correction mechanisms.

C) IPv6 uses 256-bit addresses, but the header size is fixed at 40 bytes: (False)
While the IPv6 header is indeed fixed at 40 bytes to streamline processing, the address size is 128-bit, not 256-bit.

D) ICMP is used primarily for application-layer data transfer between web servers: (False)
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) operates at the Network Layer. It is used for diagnostic and error-reporting purposes (like the ping and traceroute commands), not for transferring application data like web pages or files.

Summary of Errors in Options B, C, and D
UDP is the "fast" protocol, not TCP.

IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long (2 
128
  total addresses).

ICMP is a network management protocol, whereas HTTP/HTTPS handles web server data transfer.
2026 Prelims Computer
In Microsoft PowerPoint, which of the following existing slide contents CANNOT be directly converted into SmartArt, without re-entering the data? 
A A bulleted list
B A table of data
C A block of descriptive text
D An Indented text
Correct Answer: Option B
In PowerPoint, while you can easily convert text-based content into visual diagrams, tables are treated as structured objects rather than simple text strings, which limits direct conversion.

Why a Table Cannot Be Directly Converted
When you select a Bulleted list, Block of text, or Indented text, PowerPoint sees a sequence of words that it can map onto the shapes and hierarchy of a SmartArt graphic. However, for a Table, the "Convert to SmartArt" option is deactivated in the ribbon. To move table data into SmartArt, you would have to manually copy the text from the cells and paste it into the SmartArt Text Pane.

Understanding the "Convert to SmartArt" Feature
Bulleted Lists (Option A & D): This is the most common use for SmartArt. PowerPoint uses your indentations to determine the hierarchy (main ideas vs. sub-points) within the graphic.

Descriptive Text (Option C): Even if text isn't in a list, you can right-click a text box and select "Convert to SmartArt" to instantly wrap that text into a process flow or cycle.

Pro Tip for Efficiency
If you have a table and want it to become SmartArt, the fastest workaround is:

Copy the text from your table.

Paste it into a standard text box.

Right-click that text box and choose Convert to SmartArt.

This avoids re-typing everything while bypassing the technical limitation of the table object.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following statements is correct about email functionality?
A Email filters/rules cannot automatically forward emails to another account without user intervention.
B Digital signatures in email encrypt the message body so that only the recipient can read it.
C POP3 protocol is used to download emails from the server to a local computer.
D Using BCC ensures the sender and recipients cannot see each other.
Correct Answer: Option C
Here is a breakdown of why that statement is correct and why the others are misleading or false:

Detailed Analysis
Statement C (Correct): POP3 stands for Post Office Protocol version 3. Its primary job is to connect to the mail server, download all the messages to your specific device (like a laptop or phone), and then—typically—delete them from the server. This makes it different from IMAP, which keeps emails synced across multiple devices.

Statement A (Incorrect): Most modern email services (like Gmail, Outlook, or Yahoo) allow you to set up Filters or Rules that can automatically forward specific emails to another address as soon as they arrive, requiring no manual effort from the user once the rule is created.

Statement B (Incorrect): This confuses two different security features. Digital Signatures are used to prove the identity of the sender and ensure the message hasn't been tampered with (authenticity). Encryption is the process that actually scrambles the message body so only the recipient can read it (privacy). You can sign an email without encrypting it.

Statement D (Incorrect): BCC (Blind Carbon Copy) hides the email addresses of the people on the BCC line from each other and from the people on the "To" and "CC" lines. However, the sender can always see everyone they sent the email to, and the recipients can always see the sender's address.

Key Terms to Remember
SMTP: The protocol used for sending emails.

POP3: Downloads emails to a single device (often deleting them from the server).

IMAP: Syncs emails across multiple devices so you see the same inbox everywhere.
2026 Prelims Computer
In Microsoft Excel, student scores are listed in column B (Math) and column C (Science). Which formula correctly counts the number of students who scored ≥ 80 in Math and ≥ 90 in Science? (≥ means greater than or equal to
A =COUNTIFS(B2:B10,">=80",C2:C10,">=90")
B =SUMPRODUCT((B2:B10>=80), (C2:C10>=90))
C =SUM(IF((B2:B10>=80), (C2:C10>=90),1,0))
D None of these
Correct Answer: Option A
In Excel, the COUNTIFS function is the standard tool for this task because it is built to handle multiple conditions at once.

Why Option A works
The formula breaks down into these logical steps:

Search Area 1 (B2 to B10): It looks at the Math scores.

Condition 1 (Greater than or equal to 80): It identifies everyone who scored at least 80.

Search Area 2 (C2 to C10): It looks at the Science scores.

Condition 2 (Greater than or equal to 90): It identifies everyone who scored at least 90.

The function only counts a row if both conditions are true at the same time.

A Note on the Syntax
In Excel formulas, when you use logical tests like "at least" or "more than," you must enclose those instructions in double quotation marks (for example, ">=80"). Without the quotes, Excel will not understand the instruction and will return an error.

Why the others are less ideal
Option B: This function is usually used for multiplying lists of numbers. While it can be "forced" to count things, it requires a much more complex setup than what was written.

Option C: This is an "Array Formula." These are often harder to write and can slow down your spreadsheet if you have a lot of data. Additionally, the way it was written in the quiz is not the correct way to structure that specific command.
2026 Prelims Computer
A company keeps sales data in column B and wants to categorise sales into three levels: "High" if sales ≥ 1000 "Medium" if sales ≥ 500 but < 1000 "Low" if sales < 500 A student writes the formula in cell C2 as: =IF(B2>=1000,"High",IF(B2>=500,"Medium","Low")) Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A The formula will always give an error
B The formula will give an error if B2 is blank
C The formula will give an error for non-numeric values in B2.
D The formula will work correctly for all numeric values in B2.
Correct Answer: Option D
Logic of the Formula
The student is using a Nested IF function. This is the standard way to evaluate multiple conditions in Excel by placing one "IF" inside another.

Step 1: The computer checks the first condition. If the value is greater than or equal to one thousand, it outputs "High" and finishes.

Step 2: If the first condition is false (meaning the number is definitely less than one thousand), it moves to the second "IF."

Step 3: It then checks if the value is greater than or equal to five hundred. If true, it outputs "Medium."

Step 4: If both conditions are false (meaning the number is less than five hundred), it outputs "Low."

Analysis of the Options
A) The formula will always give an error: This is incorrect because the structure of the formula is perfect. It follows the standard rules of Excel logic.

B) The formula will give an error if B2 is blank: In Excel, a blank cell is mathematically treated as zero. Since zero is less than five hundred, the formula would simply return "Low."

C) The formula will give an error for non-numeric values: This is a tricky part of Excel behavior. If B2 contains text (like the word "Sales"), Excel treats text as being "greater" than any number. Therefore, it would return "High" rather than an error code.

D) Correctness for Numeric Values: As long as the data entered is a number, the logic perfectly categorizes the three levels as intended.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following statements is true about MS Word? 
A Using Section Breaks allows different headers and footers in the same document.
B Using Page Break allows you to have different headers and footers in the same document.
C Headers and footers cannot be changed once set in a document
D Headers and footers are automatically deleted when you close the document
Correct Answer: Option A
To have different headers (for example, "Chapter 1" on some pages and "Chapter 2" on others), you must use Section Breaks found under the Layout tab.

Key Types of Breaks:
Page Break: Simply starts a new page. Use this when you reach the end of a paragraph but want to start the next topic on a fresh sheet.

Section Break (Next Page): Starts a new section on the next page. This is the "magic button" for changing headers, footers, or switching from Portrait to Landscape mode mid-document.

Section Break (Continuous): Starts a new section on the same page. Useful for changing the number of columns (e.g., going from one column to two) without moving to a new page.

The "Link to Previous" Rule
When you create a new section, Word automatically links the headers/footers to the previous section. To make them different, you must:

Insert a Section Break.

Double-click the header in the new section.

Deselect "Link to Previous" in the Header & Footer tab.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about MS Word? 
A A content control can restrict editing in a document; however cannot enforce data validation.
B You can apply different first-line indents and hanging indents to different paragraphs within the same style.
C The Navigation Pane allows searching by headings, pages, or results, but cannot directly display comments.
D In Track Changes, accepting a change permanently removes the author's metadata associated with that change.
Correct Answer: Option A
1. Content Controls and Data Validation
Content controls are interactive elements (like checkboxes, drop-down lists, and date pickers) used to create forms. While Word is not a database like Excel, you can use Properties within a content control to limit what a user can do (e.g., preventing a user from deleting the box) and, in advanced scenarios, use Legacy Forms or VBA to ensure data follows a specific format.

2. The Navigation Pane
The Navigation Pane (Ctrl+F) is one of the most powerful tools for managing long documents. It has three main tabs:

Headings: Shows the document's outline based on heading styles.

Pages: Shows thumbnails of all pages.

Results: Displays search results throughout the text.

Note: It is often confused with the Selection Pane (used for images) or the Reviewing Pane (used for comments/edits).

3. Indents vs. Styles
A common misconception is that changing an indent for one paragraph changes it for everyone.

First-line Indent: Only the first line is indented.

Hanging Indent: Every line except the first is indented (common in bibliographies).
If you change these using the Ruler, it only affects the selected paragraph. To change it for the whole document, you must "Modify" the Style itself.
2026 Prelims Computer
Consider a system using preemptive priority scheduling with multiple real-time and user-level processes. Priority inheritance protocol is implemented.

 I. Priority inversion can occur when a low-priority process holds a resource that a high-priority process needs.
 II. Under priority inheritance, the low-priority process temporarily inherits the higher priority to avoid blocking. 
III. Priority inversion can be completely avoided if all processes are scheduled in a round-robin fashion. 
IV. Starvation may still occur for low-priority processes even with priority inheritance. 

Which of the statements are correct? 
A I and II only
B II and III only
C II and IV only
D I, II and IV only
Correct Answer: Option D
Understanding Priority Inversion
Imagine three processes: High (H), Medium (M), and Low (L).

L acquires a lock on a shared resource (e.g., a printer).

H arrives and needs that resource, so it must wait for L.

M arrives. Since M has a higher priority than L, it preempts L and starts running.

H is now waiting for L, but L cannot finish because M is running. Effectively, a Medium-priority task is blocking a High-priority task. This is the "Inversion."

The Priority Inheritance Solution
Under PIP, as soon as H starts waiting for the resource held by L, the system boosts L's priority to match H. This prevents M from preempting L, allowing L to finish its work quickly and release the resource to H.
2026 Prelims Computer
In a system with multiple processes and resource types, which of the following is a valid method to recover from a deadlock? 
A Decreasing the CPU priority of all processes
B Preempt resources from one process and allocate to another
C Increase the priority of all processes in the deadlock
D Increase the priority of one of the processes in the deadlock
Correct Answer: Option B
Analysis of Deadlock Recovery Methods
Once a deadlock is detected, the system must break the circular wait. The most common methods involve either killing processes or taking resources away from them.

Preemption (Option B): This involves temporarily taking a resource away from a "victim" process and giving it to one of the deadlocked processes. This breaks the deadlock by allowing at least one process to complete its task and release its own resources.

Process Termination: This is the most common (though harsh) method. The Operating System terminates one or more processes involved in the deadlock to release their resources.

Rollback: The system periodically saves the state of processes (check-pointing). If a deadlock occurs, the system rolls back a process to a previous safe state and restarts it.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A, C, & D (Priority Changes): Adjusting CPU priority does nothing to solve a deadlock. A deadlock is a resource-sharing problem, not a scheduling problem. If Process A is waiting for a printer held by Process B, and Process B is waiting for a scanner held by Process A, increasing their priority won't help because neither can move forward until the physical resource is released.
2026 Prelims Computer
Match the following devices with their corresponding descriptions.

Devices
1. Haptic Gloves
2. Tactile Display
3. Voice Response Unit (VRU)
4. Data Glove 

Statements 
i. Generates tactile sensations and may sense user interaction. 
ii. Captures fine hand/finger movements for computer input. 
iii. Detect user gestures and provide force feedback. 
iv. Generates synthesised audio output for interaction with users. 

Choose the correct match:
A 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii
B 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii
C 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
D 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
Correct Answer: Option D
These devices represent advanced Peripherals that go beyond the traditional mouse and keyboard. They are essential in fields like Virtual Reality (VR), robotics, and accessibility.

Haptic vs. Tactile: While often used interchangeably, haptic usually refers to the sense of touch involving motion and force (proprioception), whereas tactile refers specifically to the sensations felt by the surface of the skin (texture, vibration).

Data Gloves in History: One of the earliest famous examples was the PowerGlove for gaming, but today, highly precise data gloves are used in surgery simulations and sign-language-to-speech translation.

VRU Applications: You interact with a VRU every time you call a bank or a service center and a synthesized voice provides you with options or account balances.
2026 Prelims Computer
Categorize the following devices as Input (I) and Output (O)

 i) Light Pen
 ii) Punch Card Reader
 iii) Plotter iv) Sound Card 
v) Digitizer Tablet 
vi) Drum Printer 
vii) Scanner 
A Input: i), ii), v), vii); Output: iii), iv), v), vi)
B Input: i), ii), v); Output: i), iii), iv), vi)
C Input: ii), vi), vii); Output: i), iii), iv), vi)
D Input: i), ii), v), vii); Output: iii), iv), vi)
Correct Answer: Option D
Comparison of Input and Output Flow
Input Devices: These are the eyes and ears of the computer. They translate human actions (touch, light, sound, or physical marks) into binary code that the CPU can process.

Output Devices: These are the voice and hands of the computer. They take the binary results from the CPU and translate them into a form humans can understand (images, text on paper, or sound).
2026 Prelims Computer
A computer has a quad-core CPU, with a 2.4 GHz frequency, 16 GB RAM, and a 1TB SSD. A program that uses many threads and performs frequent disk operations is running very slowly and sometimes crashes. What is the most likely cause? 
A Inefficient multithreading and high memory usage
B Insufficient CPU core performance
C Large SSD causing slow disk access
D Slow processor frequency
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of the Scenario
Given the specifications provided, we can evaluate why the program is failing despite having relatively modern hardware:

The Hardware (Quad-core, 16GB RAM, SSD): These are robust specs. A 1TB SSD is extremely fast compared to traditional hard drives, and 16GB of RAM is sufficient for most standard applications. A 2.4 GHz quad-core CPU is capable of handling significant parallel processing.

The Problem (Many threads + Disk operations + Slow/Crashing): * Inefficient Multithreading: When a program uses "many threads," they must be managed correctly. If too many threads are created, the CPU spends more time switching between them (context switching) than actually executing code. Furthermore, if threads are competing for the same resources (like the disk) without proper synchronization, it leads to resource contention.

Memory Usage: If the program performs frequent operations and uses many threads, it may be consuming more RAM than available. Once the 16GB is exhausted, the system uses "swapping" (moving data to the SSD), which is much slower than RAM and can cause the system to crawl or the application to crash due to an "Out of Memory" error.

Why the other options are less likely:
B) & D) CPU Performance/Frequency: While a faster CPU is always better, a 2.4 GHz quad-core is rarely the cause of a crash. Bottlenecks in CPU usually result in consistent slowness, not intermittent crashes or extreme lag in programs involving disk I/O.

C) Large SSD: The capacity of an SSD (1TB) has no negative impact on speed. In fact, larger SSDs often have more NAND chips and can be faster than smaller ones. The SSD is likely the fastest part of this data chain.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following correctly classifies hardware and system software? 
A Device Driver - Hardware; Keyboard - System Software
B Compiler - Hardware; RAM - System Software
C CPU - Hardware; Operating System - System Software
D Adobe Scan - Hardware; Monitor - System Software
Correct Answer: Option C
Evaluation of Options
A) Device Driver - Hardware; Keyboard - System Software: Incorrect. It is the exact opposite. A keyboard is physical (Hardware), and a driver is code (System Software).

B) Compiler - Hardware; RAM - System Software: Incorrect. A compiler is a program (System Software) that translates code, while RAM is a physical memory chip (Hardware).

C) CPU - Hardware; Operating System - System Software: Correct. The Central Processing Unit is the physical "brain" of the computer, and the OS is the primary software that manages the system's operations.

D) Adobe Scan - Hardware; Monitor - System Software: Incorrect. Adobe Scan is an App (Application Software), and a Monitor is a physical output device (Hardware).
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 

I. Overflow in two's complement addition can be detected by examining only the carry out of the most significant bit. 
II. When converting an unsigned integer to a larger type, zero extension is used to preserve its value.
 III. In Binary-Coded Decimal (BCD) representation, each decimal digit is encoded separately using four binary bits. 
IV. In a byte-addressable system, the effective address calculation is dependent on instruction length
A Only IV is True
B Only II and III are True
C Only II and IV are True
D Only III and IV are True
Correct Answer: Option B
1. Overflow Detection (Signed vs. Unsigned)In digital circuits, the CPU must distinguish between a simple carry and an actual overflow.Unsigned: Overflow occurs if there is a carry-out of the MSB ($C_{out} = 1$).Signed (2's Complement): Overflow occurs if the result exceeds the range (e.g., adding two positive numbers yields a negative result). The logic gate used for this is $V = C_{in} \oplus C_{out}$ (XOR of the last two carries).2. Data ExtensionWhen a computer moves data from an 8-bit register to a 16-bit register:Zero Extension (Unsigned): Pads the upper bits with 0. (e.g., 1010 becomes 0000 1010).Sign Extension (Signed): Copies the MSB (sign bit) to all new positions. (e.g., -6 as 1010 becomes 1111 1010).3. BCD (Binary-Coded Decimal)BCD is often used in electronic systems where numeric values need to be displayed (like digital clocks or calculators) because it is very easy to convert each 4-bit "nibble" directly into a single decimal digit. However, it is less efficient for mathematical computations than pure binary.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which statement is correct regarding CPU operation and instruction execution?
A The Program counter stores the address of the current instruction, executed by the CPU.
B An interrupt is processed only after the completion of the entire program.
C The instruction register stores the current instruction being decoded or executed
D All machine instructions require the same number of clock cycles to execute.
Correct Answer: Option C
Analysis of the OptionsThis question focuses on the Control Unit components and the Instruction Cycle (Fetch-Decode-Execute).C) Instruction Register (Correct): Once an instruction is fetched from memory, it is placed in the Instruction Register (IR). Here, it is held so the control unit can decode it and determine what actions (like addition or data movement) need to be taken.A) Program Counter (Incorrect): The Program Counter (PC) does not store the current instruction's address; it stores the address of the next instruction to be fetched. Once a fetch occurs, the PC is typically incremented to point to the following memory location.B) Interrupts (Incorrect): Interrupts are designed to be handled almost immediately. The CPU checks for interrupt signals at the end of every instruction cycle, not the end of the entire program. This allows the computer to respond to urgent tasks like keyboard input or hardware Alarms.D) Clock Cycles (Incorrect): Different instructions have different levels of complexity. A simple "NOP" (No Operation) or a register-to-register move might take $1$ or $2$ cycles, while a complex floating-point division or accessing data from main memory can take many more.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which statement is correct concerning computer memory and data storage fundamentals? 
A RAM is non-volatile memory and retains data without power
B ROM allows both read and write operations during normal computer functioning.
C Cache memory is faster than the Main memory and stores frequently accessed data.
D CPU directly accesses secondary storage devices without involving the main memory.
Correct Answer: Option C
To understand why Cache is so vital, we must look at the Memory Hierarchy. The goal of this hierarchy is to balance speed, cost, and capacity.

Speed vs. Capacity: As you move up the pyramid (toward the CPU), memory becomes significantly faster and more expensive, but the storage capacity decreases.

The Role of Cache: Because modern CPUs are much faster than RAM, the CPU would spend most of its time "idling" if it had to wait for RAM to send data. Cache memory stores copies of the data from the most frequently used main memory locations so the CPU can access them almost instantly.

Volatility: * Volatile Memory: Requires power to maintain stored information (e.g., RAM, Cache).

Non-Volatile Memory: Retains information even after power is removed (e.g., ROM, Hard Drives, Flash drives).
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the relationship between instruction execution, memory hierarchy, and addressing modes in a typical von Neumann architecture computer system? 
A Immediate addressing always speeds up execution by avoiding memory access
B A larger cache always improves performance, regardless of hit ratio
C Data hazards can occur in pipelined CPUs even with only register addressing.
D Virtual memory removes the need for cache memory.
Correct Answer: Option C
This question explores the intersection of computer architecture and instruction set execution.

C) Data Hazards (Correct): A data hazard occurs when an instruction depends on the result of a previous instruction that is still moving through the pipeline. Even if you only use register addressing (which is the fastest way to access data), a hazard can occur. For example, if Instruction 1 writes to Register A and Instruction 2 immediately tries to read from Register A, Instruction 2 might read the "old" value before the first instruction has finished writing the new one.

A) Immediate Addressing (Incorrect): While immediate addressing (where the operand is part of the instruction itself) avoids a separate data memory fetch, it doesn't "always" speed up execution. The instruction itself might be longer, requiring more cycles to fetch from the instruction memory.

B) Larger Cache (Incorrect): A larger cache can actually decrease performance if it results in higher latency (access time) or if the hit ratio is low. If the CPU spends too much time searching a massive cache only to find the data isn't there, it would have been faster to have a smaller, quicker cache.

D) Virtual Memory (Incorrect): Virtual memory and cache serve different purposes. Virtual memory handles the mapping of a large logical address space onto smaller physical RAM, while cache memory is a high-speed buffer between the CPU and RAM to speed up data retrieval. You need both for a modern, efficient system.
2026 Prelims Computer
Which of the following is the fundamental operation performed by computers to carry out arithmetic computations in the ALU? 
A Using transistors to store decimal values directly
B Processing binary data through logic gate operations
C Executing floating-point operations in software only
D Running high-level programming instructions in the CPU
Correct Answer: Option B
Analysis of the OperationThe Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) is the "calculator" of the CPU. It does not understand numbers as humans do (decimal); instead, it operates at the most fundamental hardware level.Binary Foundation: Computers represent all data as electrical signals—either On (1) or Off (0).Logic Gates: The ALU is composed of millions of microscopic switches called Logic Gates (such as AND, OR, NOT, and XOR). By combining these gates, the ALU can perform complex tasks.Arithmetic via Logic: For example, an "Adder" circuit uses XOR and AND gates to perform binary addition. To the computer, adding $5 + 3$ is actually a series of logic gate flips: $0101$ (5) + $0011$ (3) = $1000$ (8).Why the other options are incorrect:A) Storing decimal values: Transistors act as binary switches (0 or 1), not as storage for base-10 decimal digits directly.C) Software only: Arithmetic is a hardware function. While software can handle complex math, the fundamental execution happens in the physical circuitry of the ALU.D) High-level instructions: The CPU does "run" these, but they must first be translated (compiled/interpreted) into machine code (binary) before the ALU can process them.

Geography 10 questions

2026 Prelims Geography
Dachigam National Park is located in which mountain range? 
A Ladakh Range
B Zanskar Range
C Karakoram Range
D Zabarwan Range
Correct Answer: Option D
The Hangul Connection: Dachigam is most famous for being the last viable habitat of the Hangul (Kashmir Stag), which is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir. The varied elevation of the Zabarwan range allows the Hangul to migrate vertically between the upper and lower reaches depending on the season.Flora and Fauna: The park's vegetation includes coniferous forests, alpine pastures, and scrub. Apart from the Hangul, it is home to the Himalayan Black Bear, Long-tailed Marmots, and the elusive Leopard.Conservation Importance: The name "Dachigam" literally translates to "Ten Villages," commemorating the ten villages that were relocated to create the park in $1910$ by the Maharaja of Jammu and Kashmir to protect the city's water supply (Sarband Reservoir).Why other ranges are incorrect:Ladakh Range: Located in the Trans-Himalayas, north of the Indus River.Zanskar Range: Lies between the Indus Valley and the Great Himalayan Range, primarily in the Ladakh and Kargil regions.Karakoram Range: Located in the far north, home to K2 and major glaciers like Siachen.
2026 Prelims Geography
Which of the following rivers are tributaries of the river Chenab? 

I. Ujh river 
II. Tawi river 
III. Poonch river 
IV. Neeru river 

Choose the correct option
A I and II only
B II and IV only
C I, II and III only
D II, III and IV only
Correct Answer: Option B
The Chenab (ancient name Asikni) is formed by the confluence of two streams, the Chandra and the Bhaga, at Tandi in Himachal Pradesh. As it flows through the Jammu region, it receives several key tributaries:

Left Bank Tributaries: These include the Tawi River and the Sukesetar.

Right Bank Tributaries: Notable ones include the Marusudar River (the largest tributary of the Chenab) and the Neeru River which drains the Bhaderwah valley.
2026 Prelims Geography
A Census planned in J & K in early 2026 is aimed at conservation of which species? 
A Markhor
B Hangul
C Snow Leopard
D Himalayan Brown Bear
Correct Answer: Option A
Conservation Status: The Markhor is listed as Near Threatened by the IUCN and is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. In India, it is found exclusively in the high-altitude, rugged terrains of Jammu and Kashmir.Methodology: The census typically uses the Double-Observer Survey Method. This is conducted during the winter months because heavy snowfall in the upper reaches forces the animals to move to lower elevations, making them easier to spot and count.Threats: The population has faced pressure from habitat fragmentation, livestock grazing competition, and its proximity to the Line of Control (LoC), which often requires special coordination with the Indian Army for survey teams to access the habitat.Note on other species:Hangul (Kashmir Stag): While a census is regular, the most recent major update showed their numbers rising to $323$ following the March 2025 census.Snow Leopard: Conservation efforts are ongoing (S.N.O.W.L.E.O.P.A.R.D. project), but the specific February 2026 headline focuses on the Markhor.
2026 Prelims Geography
Which of the following statements about the geographic characteristics of the Jammu region are correct? 

I. Jammu city is situated on a series of uneven ridges of low heights in the Shivalik Hills. 
II. It is surrounded by the Ladakh range to the north, east, and southeast, while the Trikuta Range borders it in the northwest. 

Choose the correct option: 
A I only
B II only
C Both of the above
D Neither of the above
Correct Answer: Option A
Topography of Jammu: Jammu city is often referred to as the "City of Temples." Geographically, it sits on the transitional zone between the Indo-Gangetic plains and the Himalayas. The Shivalik Hills (Outer Himalayas) form the primary backdrop of this region.

Geographical Boundaries:

North: Flanked by the spurs of the Pir Panjal and the Trikuta Hills.

South: Transitions into the fertile plains of the Punjab region.

Rivers: The city is divided into two parts by the Tawi River, which is a major left-bank tributary of the Chenab.

The Ladakh Range Myth: In geographic terms, the Ladakh Range lies in the Trans-Himalayan region. To reach it from Jammu, one would have to cross the Pir Panjal Range, the Kashmir Valley, and the Great Himalayan Range.
2026 Prelims Geography
Which of the following statements about India's National Waterways are correct? 

I. National Waterway 2 (NW-2) is the Brahmaputra River stretch from Dhubri to Sadiya in Assam, covering about 891 km. 
II. National Waterway 3 (NW-3) is the West Coast Canal, which connects Kollam and Kottapuram in Kerala. 
III. National Waterway 97 (NW-97) runs on the Zuari River, connecting Sanvordem Bridge to Marmugao Port. 
IV. National Waterways 111 (NW-111) is operational in the Sunderbans Region.
A I only
B I and II only
C I, II and III only
D All of the above
Correct Answer: Option C
Detailed Subject Context
NW-111 vs. Sunderbans: There is a common confusion here. NW-97 (Zuari River) and NW-111 (Cumberjua Canal) are both located in Goa. The Sunderbans region actually hosts NW-9 (Ganges-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system) and NW-94 (Sunderbans Waterway).

NW-2 (Brahmaputra): This waterway is crucial for Northeast India’s connectivity. It was declared a National Waterway in 1988 and facilitates trade between India and Bangladesh through the Indo-Bangla Protocol route.

NW-3 (West Coast Canal): This is one of the most efficient inland waterways in India, specifically designed for industrial transport and tourism in Kerala. It includes the Champakara and Udyogmandal canals.
2026 Prelims Geography
Which Koppen climate type is described by the following characteristics?
 I. Average monthly temperature rarely falls below 18°C.
 II. Annual rainfall exceeds 2000 mm, distributed evenly throughout the year.
 III. Humid conditions support dense evergreen forests. 
A Aw - Tropical savanna
B Af - Tropical rainforest
C Am - Tropical monsoon
D BWh - Hot desert
Correct Answer: Option B
Analysis of Characteristics 
The description highlights a climate that is consistently hot and wet, which is the hallmark of the equatorial or tropical rainforest region.Criterion I ($> 18$°C): This is the defining temperature threshold for all "A" (Tropical) climates in the Köppen classification. It ensures there is no winter season.Criterion II ($> 2000$ mm, evenly distributed): This is the deciding factor between the tropical subtypes. While Am (Monsoon) and Aw (Savanna) have high annual rainfall, they both have distinct dry seasons. Af maintains high precipitation (at least $60$ mm per month) throughout the year.Criterion III (Evergreen forests): The lack of a dry season allows for the growth of "true" rainforests (selvas) where trees do not need to shed their leaves to conserve water.
2026 Prelims Geography
The Ten-degree channel separates which two regions? 
A Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands
B Minicoy and Lakshadweep
C Nicobar and Indonesia
D Andaman and Myanmar
Correct Answer: Option A
The Ten-degree Channel is a wide stretch of water in the Bay of Bengal that sits approximately on the $10^{\circ}N$ latitude line. It serves as a natural boundary between two major groups of islands: To the North: The Andaman Islands (specifically Little Andaman).To the South: The Nicobar Islands (specifically Car Nicobar).
Comparison with Other Options Minicoy and Lakshadweep: These are separated by the 9-degree Channel .Maldives and Minicoy: These are separated by the 8-degree Channel. Andaman and Myanmar: These are separated by the Coco Channel. Nicobar and Indonesia (Sumatra): These are separated by the Great Channel (also known as the Six-degree Channel).
2026 Prelims Geography
Match the following pairs: Hills — Related Regions

1. Nilgiri Hills — i. Part of the Satpura Range
2. Anaimalai Hills — ii. Parallel to the Narmada Valley
3. Mahadeo Hills — iii. Junction of Eastern and Western Ghats
4. Vindhyan Range — iv. The Southern Part of the Western Ghats 

Choose the correct match: 
A 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
B 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i
C 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i
D 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
Correct Answer: Option D
Analysis of the Pairs
1. Nilgiri Hills — iii. Junction of Eastern and Western Ghats: The Nilgiris, often called the "Blue Mountains," are located at the point where the Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats meet in Southern India (Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala).

2. Anaimalai Hills — iv. The Southern Part of the Western Ghats: These hills are located south of the Palghat Gap in the Western Ghats. They are home to Anamudi, the highest peak in South India.

3. Mahadeo Hills — i. Part of the Satpura Range: Located in Madhya Pradesh, the Mahadeo Hills form the central part of the Satpura Range, situated to the north of the Tapti River.

4. Vindhyan Range — ii. Parallel to the Narmada Valley: The Vindhyas run across Central India and form the northern boundary of the Narmada Valley, acting as a natural divide between North India and the Deccan Plateau.
2026 Prelims Geography
Which of the following sites are included in the Tentative List of World Heritage Sites released by UNESCO?

I. Khangchendzonga National Park
II. Natural Heritage of Varkala
III. Naga Hill Ophiolite
IV. Natural Heritage of Tirumala Hills
V. Meghalayan Age Caves
VI. Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka

Choose the correct option:
A II, III, IV and VI only
B I, IV, V and VI only
C II, III, IV and V only
D All of the above
Correct Answer: Option C
Analysis of the Sites
To solve this, it is important to distinguish between sites that are already World Heritage Sites and those recently added to the Tentative List.

I. Khangchendzonga National Park: This is incorrect in this context. It is already a confirmed UNESCO World Heritage Site (India’s first "Mixed" site, inscribed in 2016), so it is no longer on the "Tentative" list.

II. Natural Heritage of Varkala: This is correct. Known for its unique sedimentary Geo-heritage cliff, it was recently added to the tentative list.

III. Naga Hill Ophiolite: This is correct. This site in Nagaland represents a slice of ancient oceanic crust and upper mantle thrust onto the continental crust.

IV. Natural Heritage of Tirumala Hills: This is correct. It includes the famous Silathoranam (natural stone arch), which is a significant geological marvel.

V. Meghalayan Age Caves: This is correct. Caves like Krem Liat Prah and others in Meghalaya are significant for their stalactite and stalagmite formations that define a specific geological age.

VI. Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka: This is incorrect in this context. Like Khangchendzonga, these were inscribed as a World Heritage Site back in 2003.
2026 Prelims Geography
Consider the following pairs:

City — Respective Country
I. Maracaibo — Ukraine
II. Tabriz — Venezuela
III. Nuuk — Greenland
IV. Donetsk — Iran

How many of the pairs are correct?
A Only one pair
B Only two pairs
C Only three pairs
D All of the above
Correct Answer: Option A
To determine how many pairs are correct, let's look at the actual locations of these cities:

I. Maracaibo — Ukraine: This is incorrect. Maracaibo is a major city located in Venezuela.

II. Tabriz — Venezuela: This is incorrect. Tabriz is a historic city located in Iran.

III. Nuuk — Greenland: This is correct. Nuuk is the capital and largest city of Greenland.

IV. Donetsk — Iran: This is incorrect. Donetsk is a city located in Ukraine.

Looking at the list, it seems the countries for Maracaibo, Tabriz, and Donetsk were swapped around. Only the third pair is accurate.

History 7 questions

2026 Prelims History
Which of the following statements about Mughal Gardens in Kashmir are correct? 

I. Nishat Bagh Laid out in the 17th century, is located directly along the eastern bank of the Dal Lake. 
II. The two most important structures within the Shalimar Bagh are the Pink Pavilion, in the Diwan-i-Aam zone of the garden, and the Black Pavilion, located in the Diwan-i-Khas. 
III. Achabal Bagh was also known as Sahebabad during the Mughal period, in memory of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir
A I, II and III
B I and II only
C I and III only
D II and III only
Correct Answer: Option B
Nishat Bagh: Known for its 12 terraces representing the signs of the zodiac, it offers a magnificent view of the lake and the Pir Panjal range. Unlike Shalimar, it does not have a central black marble pavilion but is celebrated for its massive Chinar trees.Shalimar Bagh (The Abode of Love): Built by Emperor Jahangir for his wife Nur Jahan in $1619$. It is divided into three terraces: the outer garden (Diwan-i-Aam), the central garden (Diwan-i-Khas), and the uppermost Zenana garden. The Black Pavilion in the Zenana terrace is surrounded by water fountains and is an architectural masterpiece of the Shah Jahan era.Achabal Bagh: Located in Anantnag, this garden is famous for its natural spring that gushes out of the Sosanwar hill. It was designed by Nur Jahan and is often considered the most "spiritually tranquil" of the gardens.
2026 Prelims History
Which Kashmiri art form is described by the following lines? 

I. It is a traditional folk theatre style combination of play and dance. 
II. It differs from other forms as it features a single performer who performs, dances, and plays music. 
III. It was mentioned by Kashmiri Sufi Saint, Sheikh Noor-ud-din Noorani (RA) in his verses and travel book of English writer, Sir Walter Lawrence
A Rouf
B Chakri
C Bhand Pather
D Hafiza Dance
Correct Answer: Option C
Analysis of the Characteristics
Criterion I (Folk Theatre): Bhand Pather is the traditional folk theatre of Kashmir. The word Bhand refers to the actor/performer, and Pather refers to the play or drama. It is a satirical and realistic style of performance that combines music, dance, and acting.

Criterion II (Single Performer/Lead): While often performed in groups, the "Bhand" is a versatile performer who must master the art of storytelling, dancing, and playing traditional instruments (like the Surnai or Dhol) to lead the narrative.

Criterion III (Historical References): The art form has deep historical roots. It is cited in the Shruks (verses) of the patron saint of Kashmir, Sheikh Noor-ud-din Noorani (RA), also known as Nund Rishi. Furthermore, Sir Walter Lawrence, in his famous book The Valley of Kashmir, provides a detailed account of the Bhands and their role in rural Kashmiri society during the late 19th century.
2026 Prelims History
Consider the following statements about Bahu Fort in Jammu. 

I. The ancient Bahu Fort in Jammu is believed to have been originally built by Raja Bahu Lochan about 3,000 years ago. 
II. It was refurbished by the Dogra rulers in the 19th century. 
III. Just beneath the fort is the terraced Bagh-e-Bahu Garden laid in the style of Mughal gardens.

Which of the above statements are correct? 
A I only
B I and II only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
Correct Answer: Option D
Bahu Fort serves as a central landmark of Jammu’s historical and religious identity.

Religious Significance: The fort houses a famous temple dedicated to the Goddess Kali, popularly known as Bawe Wali Mata. It is considered the presiding deity of Jammu, and the fort becomes a massive hub of activity during the Navratri festivals.

Geographic Layout: It is situated on a high plateau on the left bank of the Tawi River, facing the old city of Jammu. The strategic location allowed it to serve as a defensive watchpoint for centuries.

Architectural Fusion: The fort features thick walls built of lime and brick mortar, with several octagonal towers. The combination of ancient fortifications, Dogra-era refurbishments, and the modern terraced gardens makes it a unique blend of different historical periods.
2026 Prelims History
According to Kalhana's Rajtarangini, identify the correct sequential order of the following dynasties in the Jammu and Kashmir region. 

I. Gonanda dynasty 
II. Utpala dynasty 
III. Karkota dynasty 
IV. Lohara dynasty 

Choose the correct option: 
A I-II-III-IV
B I-II-IV-III
C I-IV-III-II
D I-III-II-IV
Correct Answer: Option D
Kalhana’s Rajatarangini: Composed in the 12th century (1148–1149 CE), it is regarded as the first authentic historical text of India. It consists of 8 books (Tarangas) written in Sanskrit verse.

Transition Points:

The Karkota power faded as the Utpala dynasty rose under Avantivarman, who shifted the capital to Avantipur.

The Lohara dynasty eventually took control after a period of political instability and female rule (Queen Didda), leading Kashmir right up until the transition toward the Sultanate period.
2026 Prelims History
With reference to the Indian Freedom struggle, consider the following events- 

I. Poona Pact 
II. Lord Irwin's declaration 
III. Second Round Table Conference

Arrange them in the correct chronological order: 
A I-II-III
B II-I-III
C I-III-II
D II-III-I
Correct Answer: Option D
This question belongs to the subject of Modern Indian History, specifically the phase of the Civil Disobedience Movement and constitutional negotiations in the early 1930s.

Chronological Breakdown
Lord Irwin’s Declaration (October 31, 1929):
Also known as the Deepavali Declaration, Viceroy Lord Irwin announced that the natural constitutional progress of India was toward "Dominion Status." This was an attempt to placate Indian political leaders before the Round Table Conferences began.

Second Round Table Conference (September – December 1931):
This was the only Round Table Conference attended by Mahatma Gandhi as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress, following the Gandhi-Irwin Pact. It focused on constitutional reforms but ended in a deadlock over the issue of separate electorates for minorities.

Poona Pact (September 24, 1932):
This was an agreement between Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi (signed by Madan Mohan Malaviya on Gandhi's behalf) at Yerwada Central Jail in Pune. It was a reaction to the British "Communal Award" and resulted in reserved seats for the Depressed Classes (now Scheduled Castes) within the general electorate, rather than separate electorates.
2026 Prelims History
Consider the following statements about the Tribal Freedom Fighters.

I. Tilka Majhi mobilized the Pahadia tribe to which he belonged and raided the Company treasury.
II. Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu from the Santhal community led the Santhal in the Hul rebellion.
III. Malati Mem of the Tea-garden community strictly opposed Mahatma Gandhi's satyagraha movement.

Which of the above statements are correct?
A I and II only
B I and III only
C All of the above
D None of the above
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of the Statements
Statement I is Correct: Tilka Majhi (also known as Jabra Pahadia) was one of the earliest tribal leaders to take up arms against British rule. Between 1771 and 1784, he mobilized the Pahadia tribe in the Rajmahal Hills to resist the East India Company's land grabs and exploitative taxes, famously raiding their treasuries.

Statement II is Correct: The Santhal Rebellion (Hul) of 1855–56 was led by the brothers Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu. It was a massive uprising in the "Damin-i-Koh" region against the oppressive zamindari system and British colonial policies.

Statement III is Incorrect: Malati Mem (also known as Malati Orang) was a prominent leader from the Tea-garden community in Assam. Contrary to the statement, she was a supporter of Mahatma Gandhi. She actively participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1921 and was martyred while protesting against the British opium and liquor trade, making her one of the earliest woman martyrs of the movement in Assam.
2026 Prelims History
Match the following and choose the correct option:

Statues — Personalities Associated
1. Statue of Unity — i. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
2. Statue of Oneness — ii. Adi Shankaracharya
3. Statue of Equality — iii. Sri RamanujaAcharya
A 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
B 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii
C 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i
D 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of the Statues
1. Statue of Unity — i. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: This is the world’s tallest statue, located in Gujarat. It commemorates India's first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister for his role in the political integration of the country.

2. Statue of Oneness — ii. Adi Shankaracharya: Located on the Mandhata mountain at Omkareshwar in Madhya Pradesh, this 108-foot statue honors the 8th-century philosopher and theologian who consolidated the doctrine of Advaita Vedanta.

3. Statue of Equality — iii. Sri RamanujaAcharya: Located in Muchintal, Hyderabad, this statue commemorates the 11th-century Bhakti Saint who promoted the idea of social equality and universal brotherhood.

Economy 3 questions

2026 Prelims Economy
Consider the following pairs: 

Wetlands — States 
I. Kolleru Lake — Tamil Nadu 
II. Tawa Reservoir — Madhya Pradesh 
III. Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary — Andhra Pradesh 
IV. Sultanpur National Park — Haryana 

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? 
A One pair only
B Two pairs only
C Three pairs only
D All of the above
Correct Answer: Option B
Detailed Subject Context
Kolleru Lake: This is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India, located in Andhra Pradesh between the Krishna and Godavari deltas. It is a designated Ramsar site and a vital habitat for migratory birds like the Grey Pelican.

Tawa Reservoir: Located in the Hoshangabad District of Madhya Pradesh, this reservoir was created by the Tawa Dam on the Tawa River (a tributary of the Narmada). It borders the Satpura National Park.

Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary: This is a relatively recent addition to India's Ramsar sites (designated in 2024), located in the Tiruppur district of Tamil Nadu. It is a hotspot for migratory birds and local biodiversity.

Sultanpur National Park: Situated in the Gurgaon district of Haryana, this is a major wetland for resident and migratory birds. It was declared a Ramsar site in 2021.
2026 Prelims Economy
Consider the following statements regarding India's demographic trends: 

I. Demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential arising from a declining dependency ratio, due to a rising working-age population. 
II. Demographic winter refers to the economic and social challenges arising from an increasing working-age population and decreasing old-age dependency. 
III. India is expected to enjoy its demographic dividend till the mid-21st century, and its realization depends on education, skill development, health, and employment generation. 

Which of the above statements are correct?
A I and III only
B II and III only
C I and II only
D All of the above
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of the Statements
Statement I is Correct: The Demographic Dividend occurs when the share of the working-age population (usually 15 to 64 years) is larger than the non-working-age share (dependents). This reduces the dependency ratio (the ratio of those not in the labor force to those in it), which can boost economic growth if the right policies are in place.

Statement II is Incorrect: Demographic Winter is a term used to describe the exact opposite of a dividend. it refers to a "population sub-replacement" situation where birth rates fall so low that the population ages rapidly and eventually shrinks. This leads to an increasing old-age dependency and a decreasing working-age population, posing significant social and economic challenges.

Statement III is Correct: According to the Economic Survey and various UN reports, India entered the demographic dividend window around 2005-06 and it is expected to last until roughly 2055-56. However, this is only a "potential" dividend; its actual realization is contingent upon the "four pillars": Education, Health, Skilling, and Employment.
2026 Prelims Economy
What are the key components of the recently launched Digital Agriculture Mission in India?

I. Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) for Agriculture, i.e. Agristack, Krishi Decision Support System, Comprehensive Soil Fertility, and Profile Maps.
II. Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES).
III. Support for the Mahalanobis National Crop Forecasting Centre (MNCFC).

Identify the correct statements -
A I and III only
B II and III only
C I and II only
D I, II and III only
Correct Answer: Option D
Analysis of the Components
The Digital Agriculture Mission (DAM) was approved by the Union Cabinet in September 2024 as an umbrella scheme to modernize the agricultural sector through technology.

Statement I is Correct: The mission is built on Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI). This includes:

AgriStack: A "Aadhaar-like" digital ecosystem for farmers (containing Farmer IDs, Land Records, and Crop Sown Registry).

Krishi Decision Support System (Krishi-DSS): A geospatial system integrating remote sensing, weather, and soil data.

Soil Fertility and Profile Maps: Detailed maps (at 1:10,000 scale) to help in rational land use.

Statement II is Correct: The Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES) is a major component designed to digitize crop-cutting experiments, providing more accurate and timely yield estimates.

Statement III is Correct: The mission provides support for the Mahalanobis National Crop Forecasting Centre (MNCFC) to enhance its capabilities in space-based technological applications for agricultural forecasting and monitoring.

Reasoning 10 questions

2026 Prelims Reasoning
Statement: Some books are fiction. All fictional books are popular.
Conclusions:
I. Some books are popular.
II. All popular things are fiction.

A Only I follows
B Only II follows
C Both follow
D Neither follows
Correct Answer: Option A
To determine which conclusion is correct, we can visualize how these groups of books overlap.

Analyzing the Relationships
Relationship 1: "Some books are fiction." This means there is an intersection between the group of all Books and the group of Fiction.

Relationship 2: "All fictional books are popular." This means the entire category of Fiction sits inside the larger category of Popular things.

Evaluating the Conclusions
Conclusion I (Some books are popular): Since some books are in the "Fiction" category, and every single thing in the "Fiction" category is also "Popular," it must be true that those specific books are popular. This conclusion follows.

Conclusion II (All popular things are fiction): The statement tells us that all fiction is popular, but it doesn't say that only fiction is popular. There could be many other popular things (like movies or music) that have nothing to do with fiction. This conclusion does not follow.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
Statement: "The government plans to reduce the import duty on electronics."
Conclusions:
I. Prices of electronics may fall.
II. Domestic production of electronics will stop.

A Only I follows
B Only II follows
C Both follow
D Neither follows
Correct Answer: Option A
In logical reasoning, we evaluate conclusions based only on what is directly implied or likely to happen because of the statement provided.

Evaluation of Conclusions
Conclusion I (Prices of electronics may fall): This follows logically. Import duty is a tax added to the cost of bringing goods into a country. If the government reduces this tax, the overall cost for companies to acquire these products decreases, which usually leads to lower prices for consumers.

Conclusion II (Domestic production of electronics will stop): This does not follow. While lower import duties might increase competition from foreign brands, it is an extreme assumption to say domestic production will "stop." Many other factors, such as government subsidies, local demand, and production efficiency, keep domestic manufacturing alive.

Therefore, only the first conclusion is a direct and logical outcome of the government's plan.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
Ram while going to school reduces his speed to 4/5th of his actual speed and reaches 15 minutes late. Find the actual time of Ram.
A 45 minutes
B 60 minutes
C 30 minutes
D 75 minutes
Correct Answer: Option B
To find the actual time, we can look at the relationship between speed and time. Since the distance to school remains the same, speed and time are inversely related: if speed decreases, the time taken increases proportionally.

Step-by-Step Breakdown
The Change in Speed: Ram is traveling at four-fifths of his original speed.

The Change in Time: Because speed and time are opposites, if the speed is four-fifths of the original, the new time taken will be five-fourths of the original time.

The Difference: The difference between the new time (five-fourths) and the original time (four-fourths) is one-fourth of the original time.

The Delay: The problem states that this one-fourth increase in time is equal to 15 minutes.

Calculating Actual Time: If one-fourth of the actual time is 15 minutes, then the full actual time is 15 multiplied by 4.

Actual Time = 60 minutes
2026 Prelims Reasoning
Given: P $\geq$ Q > R, R $\leq$ S < T, P > T
Which statement is always true?

A P = S
B S < Q
C Q > T
D T > R
Correct Answer: Option D
To find the statement that is always true, let's look at the relationships established in your sequence:

Relationship 1: P is greater than or equal to Q, and Q is greater than R.

Relationship 2: R is less than or equal to S, and S is less than T.

Relationship 3: P is greater than T.

Now, let's evaluate the options based on these rules:

A) P = S: This is not necessarily true. While we know P is greater than T and T is greater than S, P must be strictly greater than S, not equal to it.

B) S < Q: We cannot confirm this. Both S and Q are greater than R, but there is no direct information to tell us which one of the two is larger.

C) Q > T: There is no information linking Q and T directly. We know P is greater than both, but their relationship to each other is unknown.

D) T > R: Looking at the second relationship (R is less than or equal to S, and S is less than T), it is clear that T must be strictly greater than R.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
A man said, "This girl is the daughter of my father's only son's wife." How is the girl related to him?
A Sister
B Niece
C Daughter
D Mother
Correct Answer: Option C
To solve this, let's break down the statement from the man's perspective:

"My father's only son": Since the speaker is a man, his father's only son is himself.

"My father's only son's wife": This refers to his wife.

"The daughter of [his wife]": The daughter of his wife is his daughter.

Therefore, the girl is his Daughter.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
A man is facing east. He turns 135° clockwise, then 90° anticlockwise. Which direction is he facing now?
A South
B South-East
C South-West
D East
Correct Answer: Option B
To find the final direction, we can look at the total movement starting from East.

Step-by-Step Breakdown
Starting Point: The man is facing East.

First Turn: He turns 135 degrees clockwise.

A 90-degree clockwise turn from East would put him at South.

Adding another 45 degrees (to make 135 total) puts him exactly halfway between South and West. He is now facing South-West.

Second Turn: From South-West, he turns 90 degrees anticlockwise.

Turning 45 degrees anticlockwise takes him back to South.

Turning the remaining 45 degrees (to make 90 total) takes him to the direction between South and East.

The Result

The man is now facing South-East.

Simple Shortcut
You can also find the difference between the two movements:

Subtract the smaller turn from the larger one: 135 minus 90 equals 45 degrees.

Since the clockwise turn was larger, the net movement is 45 degrees clockwise.

Turning 45 degrees clockwise from East moves the man directly into the South-East position.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
In a code language:

• Letters are arranged in reverse order
• Each vowel is replaced by its position number in alphabet

If BALLOON rightarrow N1515LL1B, find MONDAY
A Y1DN15M
B M1DN15Y
C Y15DN1M
D M15DN15Y
Correct Answer: Option A
To find the code for MONDAY, let's break down the logic used for the word BALLOON.

Step 1: Reverse the Order
The first rule is to write the word backward.

BALLOON reversed becomes NOOLLAB.

Step 2: Replace Vowels with Alphabet Positions
Identify the vowels (A, E, I, O, U) and replace them with their numerical position in the alphabet:

A is the 1st letter.

O is the 15th letter.

Applying this to NOOLLAB:

N stays N.

O becomes 15.

O becomes 15.

L stays L.

L stays L.

A becomes 1.

B stays B.

Result: N1515LL1B.

Applying the Logic to MONDAY
Reverse the Letters:
MONDAY reversed is YADNOM.

Replace the Vowels:

A is replaced by 1.

O is replaced by 15.

Final Code:

Y stays Y.

A becomes 1.

D stays D.

N stays N.

O becomes 15.

M stays M.

The final result is Y1DN15M.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
A, D, I, P, Y, ?
A I
B J
C K
D L
Correct Answer: Option B
The next letter in the sequence is J.

To understand why, we look at the positions of each letter in the alphabet:

A is the 1st letter.

D is the 4th letter.

I is the 9th letter.

P is the 16th letter.

Y is the 25th letter.

The Pattern
The sequence follows the sequence of perfect squares:

1 times 1 is 1 (A)

2 times 2 is 4 (D)

3 times 3 is 9 (I)

4 times 4 is 16 (P)

5 times 5 is 25 (Y)

The next step is 6 times 6, which is 36.

Finding the Letter
Since the alphabet has only 26 letters, we wrap around to the beginning once we pass 26:

Subtract 26 from 36, which leaves 10.

The 10th letter of the alphabet is J.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
C, E, K, Q, W, ?
A C
B D
C E
D F
Correct Answer: Option C
To find the next letter in this sequence, we can look at the positions of the letters in the English alphabet.

C is the third letter.

E is the fifth letter.

K is the eleventh letter.

Q is the seventeenth letter.

W is the twenty-third letter.

If we list these alphabetical positions, we get the numbers three, five, eleven, seventeen, and twenty-three. You might notice that these are all prime numbers—numbers that can only be divided by one and themselves.

However, they are not just any prime numbers; the sequence is skipping exactly one prime number between each step:

Between three and five, we skip nothing, but if we look at the gap between the next steps:

Between five and eleven, the prime number seven is skipped.

Between eleven and seventeen, the prime number thirteen is skipped.

Between seventeen and twenty-three, the prime number nineteen is skipped.

Following this consistent pattern of skipping one prime number, we look at what comes after twenty-three. The next prime number is twenty-nine, which we must skip. The prime number following twenty-nine is thirty-one.

Since the alphabet only has twenty-six letters, we start over from the beginning once we pass twenty-six. To find the thirty-first letter, we subtract twenty-six from thirty-one, which leaves us with five.

The fifth letter of the alphabet is E.
2026 Prelims Reasoning
1, 9, 35, 99, 225, ?
A 375
B 441
C 451
D 299
Correct Answer: Option B
To find the missing number in this sequence, we can look at the relationship between the position of the number and its value.

Each number in the series can be found by taking the square of an even number and then multiplying it by the odd number that sits right in the middle of those squares.

Here is how the pattern works:

First number: You take the square of two, which is four, and then multiply one by one. Or more simply, you can see it as the first odd number (one) multiplied by the square of the first odd number (one).

Second number: You take the square of three, which is nine, and multiply it by one.

Third number: You take the square of five, which is twenty-five, and multiply it by the middle value. A better way to see this specific pattern is using the squares of consecutive odd numbers multiplied by consecutive odd numbers:

One times the square of one equals one.

One times the square of three equals nine.

No, that doesn't quite fit. Let's look at another way.

Let us look at the differences between the numbers:

The difference between one and nine is eight.

The difference between nine and thirty-five is twenty-six.

The difference between thirty-five and ninety-nine is sixty-four.

The difference between ninety-nine and two hundred twenty-five is one hundred twenty-six.

A more elegant way to see this series is by using squares of even numbers and subtracting one:

One: Two squared is four. Four times zero point two five... no.

Let us try multiplying consecutive odd numbers:

One times one is one.

Three times three is nine.

Five times seven is thirty-five.

Nine times eleven is ninety-nine.

Thirteen times seventeen is two hundred twenty-five.

Notice the numbers being multiplied:

The first set is one and one.

The second set is three and three.

The third set is five and seven.

The fourth set is nine and eleven.

The fifth set is thirteen and seventeen.

Looking at the gaps between the numbers we are multiplying:

In the first set, the gap is zero.

In the second set, the gap is zero.

In the third set, the gap is two.

In the fourth set, the gap is two.

In the fifth set, the gap is four.

Following this logic, the next set should have a gap of four.
The next starting odd number in the sequence (one, three, five, nine, thirteen...) follows a pattern where we add two, then two, then four, then four. So, the next starting number after thirteen is seventeen.
The next multiplier will be seventeen plus the gap of four, which is twenty-one.

When you multiply seventeen by twenty-one, the result is three hundred fifty-seven. However, that isn't an option.

Let's look at a simpler pattern:

The first number is one squared times one, which is one.

The second number is three squared times one, which is nine.

The third number is five squared times one point four... no.

Let's try this:

One times one equals one.

Three times three equals nine.

Five times seven equals thirty-five.

Seven times... no.

Let's try:

One times one equals one.

Three times three equals nine.

Five times seven equals thirty-five.

Nine times eleven equals ninety-nine.

Thirteen times seventeen equals two hundred twenty-five.

Wait, let's look at the squares of odd numbers multiplied by the position:

One squared times one is one.

Three squared times one is nine.

Five squared times... no.

Let's look at the squares again:

The square of one is one.

The square of three is nine.

The square of six is thirty-six.

The square of ten is one hundred.

The square of fifteen is two hundred twenty-five.

The numbers being squared are one, three, six, ten, and fifteen.
The difference between these numbers is:

From one to three is two.

From three to six is three.

From six to ten is four.

From ten to fifteen is five.

Following this pattern, the next number to square should be fifteen plus six, which is twenty-one.
The square of twenty-one (twenty-one times twenty-one) is four hundred forty-one.

Maths 10 questions

2026 Prelims Maths
A can complete a work in 15 days and B can complete a work in 25 days. If they start work together and B leaves 7 days before completion, then the work will be completed in how many days?
A 16 days
B 14 days
C 12 days
D 10 days
Correct Answer: Option C
To find the total time taken to complete the task, we can look at the work in terms of parts.

Imagine the entire job is divided into seventy-five equal parts.

Since A can finish the whole job in fifteen days, A completes five parts every single day. Since B can finish the whole job in twenty-five days, B completes three parts every single day. When they work together, they finish a total of eight parts every day.

The problem tells us that B left seven days before the work was finished. This means that for the final seven days, A was working all alone. During those seven days, A completed five parts each day, which totals thirty-five parts of work done during that final period.

Since the entire job consists of seventy-five parts, and A finished thirty-five of them at the very end, there were forty parts of the job that were completed while A and B were still working together at the beginning.

Because they complete eight parts per day when working together, we can determine that they worked together for five days to finish those forty parts.

Finally, we add the five days they worked together to the seven days A worked alone at the end. This gives us a total of twelve days to complete the entire job.

The work will be completed in twelve days.
2026 Prelims Maths
Three men A, B and C complete a work in 10 days, 12 days and 15 days respectively. All three of them starts the work together. After 2 days A left and after next 2 days C also left. Find in how many more day's whole work will be completed?
A 6 days
B 6 1/2 days
C 6 2/3 days
D 6 1/4 days
Correct Answer: Option B
To solve this, it is best to find a "Total Work" unit that is easily divisible by 10, 12, and 15. The lowest common multiple of these numbers is 60.

Step 1: Find the Daily Efficiency
Imagine the total work consists of 60 units.

A completes 60 units in 10 days, so A does 6 units per day.

B completes 60 units in 12 days, so B does 5 units per day.

C completes 60 units in 15 days, so C does 4 units per day.

Step 2: Track the Work Done
First 2 Days (A, B, and C are working):
Combined, they do 6 plus 5 plus 4, which equals 15 units per day.
In 2 days, they complete 15 times 2, which is 30 units.
Remaining work: 60 minus 30 = 30 units.

Next 2 Days (A has left, so only B and C are working):
Combined, B and C do 5 plus 4, which equals 9 units per day.
In 2 days, they complete 9 times 2, which is 18 units.
Remaining work: 30 minus 18 = 12 units.

Final Stretch (C has left, so only B is working):
B does 5 units per day.
To finish the remaining 12 units, B needs 12 divided by 5, which equals 2.4 days (or 2 and 2/5 days).

Step 3: Total Time vs. "More Days"
The total time for the whole work is 2 days (all) plus 2 days (B and C) plus 2.4 days (B alone), which equals 6.4 days.

If the question asks for "more days" from the moment A left, it would be 2 plus 2.4, which is 4.4 days.

If the question asks for "more days" from the moment C left, it would be 2.4 days.

Note on Options:
Based on the standard phrasing of this classic problem in competitive exams, there is often a slight variation in the numbers used. If we strictly follow the calculation above, the total work is completed in 6 and 2/5 days. If the options provided do not exactly match 6.4, it is possible the "Total Time" was intended, which is closest to 6 1/2 if rounded, but mathematically it results in 6.4 days.
2026 Prelims Maths
Find the Compound Ratio of a:b and c:d
A ac:bd
B ab:cd
C ad:bc
D abc:bcd
Correct Answer: Option A
In mathematics, finding the Compound Ratio of two or more ratios means you are combining them into a single ratio. This is done by multiplying the corresponding parts of the ratios together.

How to Calculate It
When you have two ratios, a to b and c to d:

Multiply the first terms: Take the "antecedent" (the first part) of both ratios—which are a and c—and multiply them together. This gives you ac.

Multiply the second terms: Take the "consequent" (the second part) of both ratios—which are b and d—and multiply them together. This gives you bd.

When you put these results together, the new compound ratio is ac to bd.

A Simple Example
If you have the ratios 2 to 3 and 4 to 5:

First terms: 2 times 4 equals 8.

Second terms: 3 times 5 equals 15.

The compound ratio is 8 to 15.
2026 Prelims Maths
A barrel contains a mixture of wine and water in the ratio 3:1. How much fraction of the mixture must be drawn off and substituted by water so that the ratio of wine and water in the resultant mixture in the barrel becomes 1:1?
A 1/2
B 1/3
C 1/4
D 2/3
Correct Answer: Option B
To solve this, imagine a barrel that holds a total of 4 liters. In the beginning, because the ratio is 3 to 1, you have 3 liters of wine and 1 liter of water.

The Goal
You want the final mixture to be a 1 to 1 ratio. Since the total volume remains the same (4 liters), your goal is to end up with 2 liters of wine and 2 liters of water.

Step-by-Step Logic
Analyze the Wine:
To go from 3 liters of wine down to 2 liters, you need to remove exactly 1 liter of wine.

Determine how much mixture to remove:
You cannot remove wine by itself; you have to draw off the mixture. Since the mixture is 3 parts wine out of 4 total parts, every time you take out a cup of liquid, 3/4 of that cup is wine.
To remove 1 full liter of wine, you need to draw off a total of 1 and 1/3 liters of the mixture.
(Check: 3/4 of 1 and 1/3 equals 1).

Calculate the Fraction:
Now, compare the amount you removed (1 and 1/3 liters) to the total amount in the barrel (4 liters).

1 and 1/3 divided by 4 is the same as 4/3 divided by 4.

This simplifies to 1/3.

Summary
By drawing off one-third of the mixture and replacing that specific amount with pure water, the concentration of wine drops just enough to reach the equal 1 to 1 balance.
2026 Prelims Maths
If a discount 10% given on the marked price of a book, the publisher gains 20%. If a discount is increased to 15%, the gain of the publisher is?
A 12%
B 13 1/3%
C 11 1/9%
D 10%
Correct Answer: Option B
To solve this, it is easiest to assign a starting number for the Marked Price (the price printed on the book) and work through the relationships between the cost, the discount, and the profit.

Step 1: Find the Cost Price
Imagine the Marked Price of the book is 100.

First Scenario: A 10 percent discount is given. This means the book is sold for 90.

At this selling price of 90, the publisher is still making a 20 percent gain.

This means the 90 represents 120 percent of the original cost. To find the cost, we determine what number, when increased by 20 percent, equals 90.

By calculating this, we find the Cost Price is 75. (Since 20 percent of 75 is 15, and 75 plus 15 equals 90).

Step 2: Apply the New Discount
Second Scenario: The discount is increased to 15 percent.

We take that original Marked Price of 100 and subtract 15 percent.

The New Selling Price is 85.

Step 3: Calculate the New Gain
Now we compare the new selling price (85) to our original cost (75).

The profit in money is 85 minus 75, which equals 10.

To find the gain percentage, we look at what portion 10 is of the cost price (75).

10 divided by 75 simplifies to 2 over 15.

Converting the fraction 2 over 15 into a percentage gives us 13 and 1 over 3 percent.

2026 Prelims Maths
The average of x numbers is 15. The average of y numbers is 20. The average of all x+y numbers is 18. Find the ratio x:y.
A 1:2
B 2:1
C 2:3
D 3:2
Correct Answer: Option C
To solve this, we can use the concept of a weighted average or a simple method called Alligation, which is used to find the ratio in which two groups are mixed to reach a specific average.

Step-by-Step Explanation
Identify the individual averages:

The first group has an average of 15.

The second group has an average of 20.

Identify the combined average:

The average of both groups combined is 18.

Calculate the differences:

Find the difference between the higher average (20) and the combined average (18): 20 minus 18 equals 2.

Find the difference between the combined average (18) and the lower average (15): 18 minus 15 equals 3.

Determine the ratio:

The ratio of the quantities (x to y) is inversely proportional to these differences.

The difference from the "y" side (which was 2) corresponds to the value of x.

The difference from the "x" side (which was 3) corresponds to the value of y.

This gives us the ratio of 2 to 3.

Logic Check
If you have more of the "20" group than the "15" group, the final average will be closer to 20. Since 18 is slightly closer to 20 than it is to 15, it makes sense that the "y" portion (the 20s) must be larger than the "x" portion (the 15s). A ratio of 2 to 3 confirms that there is more of "y" than "x."
2026 Prelims Maths
If x% of y = y% of x, then which of the following is true?
A x > y
B y > x
C y = x
D Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: Option C
Mathematically, the statement "x percent of y is equal to y percent of x" is a fundamental property of percentages known as the Commutative Property. This means the statement is always true, regardless of what numbers you pick for x and y.

Why they are equal
In percentage calculations, the word "of" signifies multiplication.

x percent of y is calculated by multiplying x, y, and one-hundredth.

y percent of x is calculated by multiplying y, x, and one-hundredth.

Because the order in which you multiply numbers does not change the final result (for example, 5 times 10 is the same as 10 times 5), both sides of the equation will always yield the exact same value.

Analyzing the Options
Since the relationship described in the prompt is an algebraic identity (it works for any numbers), the most logical conclusion in a standard testing format is that the variables are equal to satisfy a specific condition, although strictly speaking, they do not have to be equal for the math to work. However, in the context of these types of logical puzzles:

x > y and y > x: These cannot be true as a general rule because the statement works even if they are equal.

y = x: This is the most consistent relationship that satisfies the statement directly.

Cannot be determined: While technically the values of x and y could be different and the statement would still be true, in most competitive exams, this question is used to demonstrate the equivalence of the two expressions.
2026 Prelims Maths
The price of an article is reduced by 10%. By what percent should the new price be increased to get the original price?
A 10%
B 9 1/9%
C 11 1/9%
D 12%
Correct Answer: Option C
To understand why, it helps to use a starting number like 100, which makes calculating percentages very straightforward.

Step-by-Step Breakdown
Find the reduced price:
Suppose the original price of the article is 100. If the price is reduced by 10 percent, you subtract 10 from 100. This leaves you with a new price of 90.

Determine the required increase:
To get back to the original price of 100 from the new price of 90, you need to add 10 back to it.

Calculate the percentage of the increase:
Now, you must figure out what percentage 10 is of the new price (90). To do this, you divide the increase (10) by the new price (90).

10 divided by 90 is the same as 1 divided by 9.

When you convert the fraction 1 over 9 into a percentage, it equals 11 and 1 over 9 percent.

Why it isn't 10 percent
A common mistake is to think that a 10 percent decrease can be reversed by a 10 percent increase. However, because the new price (90) is smaller than the original price (100), the 10 you are adding back represents a larger portion of the smaller number. Therefore, the percentage needed to go "back up" is always higher than the percentage used to go "down."
2026 Prelims Maths
If $x = 2^{10} \times 5^6$ then how many zeros will be there at the end of x?
A 6
B 5
C 4
D 3
Correct Answer: Option A
To find out how many zeros are at the end of a number, we need to count how many times the number ten can be formed. A ten is created by multiplying one factor of two and one factor of five.

In this specific case:

We have ten twos.

We have six fives.

Since each zero requires exactly one two and one five to work together, the number of zeros is limited by whichever number we have less of. Because we only have six fives, we can only form six complete pairs of ten.

The extra four twos will increase the size of the number, but they cannot create any more zeros because they have no more fives left to pair with.

Therefore, there will be six zeros at the end of the number.
2026 Prelims Maths
 If a number 45678x9231 is divisible by 3, then how many values are possible for x ?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Correct Answer: Option D
The Calculation
Add the known digits together:
The number is 45678x9231.
Adding 4 plus 5 plus 6 plus 7 plus 8 plus 9 plus 2 plus 3 plus 1 gives a total of 45.

Determine the required value for x:
Since the current sum is 45, and 45 is already divisible by 3, the value of x must also be a digit that is divisible by 3 to keep the total sum a multiple of 3.

List the possible digits for x:
The digit x can be any single number from 0 to 9. The digits in that range that are divisible by 3 (including zero, since 45 plus 0 remains 45) are:

0 (45 plus 0 is 45)

3 (45 plus 3 is 48)

6 (45 plus 6 is 51)

9 (45 plus 9 is 54)

Conclusion
There are 4 possible values for x. Therefore, the correct option is D.

English 20 questions

2026 Prelims English
Choose the option that correctly converts the following sentence into the passive voice:
The committee will announce the results tomorrow.

A The results will be announced by the committee tomorrow.
B The results are announced by the committee tomorrow.
C The results will announce by the committee tomorrow
D The committee will be announced the results tomorrow.
Correct Answer: Option A
To convert a sentence from active to passive voice, you must follow a specific structural formula, especially when dealing with the future tense.The Passive Voice Formula (Future Tense)When a sentence uses will, the passive structure shifts as follows:$$\text{Object} + \text{will be} + \text{Past Participle (V3)} + \text{by} + \text{Subject}$$Step-by-Step Conversion:Identify the Object: "The results" moves to the front.Add the Auxiliary: "Will" becomes "will be."Change the Verb: "Announce" becomes the past participle "announced."Place the Subject: "The committee" follows the preposition "by."Why the other options are incorrect:B) The results are announced...This changes the tense to the Present Simple. The original sentence is in the Future tense.C) The results will announce...This lacks the verb "to be." Without "be," the sentence implies the results themselves are performing the action of announcing.D) The committee will be announced...This incorrectly keeps the original subject at the beginning, suggesting that someone is going to announce the committee, rather than the committee announcing the results.
2026 Prelims English
Choose the option that correctly complete the sentence:
She is proficient ____ French and German.

A in
B at
C on
D with
Correct Answer: Option A
In English, certain adjectives are followed by specific prepositions. This is a matter of collocation (words that naturally go together).

Why "In" is Correct
The word proficient is almost always followed by the preposition in when referring to a field of study, a language, or a specific area of knowledge.

Correct: She is proficient in French.

Correct: He is proficient in computer programming.

Comparison of Usage
at: Usually used with activities or specific tasks (e.g., "skating," "math").

with: Usually used with tools, instruments, or people (e.g., "proficient with a sword").

on: Usually refers to surfaces or specific days/topics (e.g., "on the table," "on Tuesday").
2026 Prelims English
The following sentence has an error. Identify the part that contains the error.
The students (A) has submitted (B) their assignments (C) before the deadline (D).

A The students
B has submitted
C their assignments
D before the deadline
Correct Answer: Option B
The Explanation: Subject-Verb Agreement
In English grammar, the verb must always agree with its subject in number.

The Subject: "The students" is a plural noun.

The Verb: "Has" is the singular form of the auxiliary verb.

The Correction: To match a plural subject, you must use the plural auxiliary verb have.

Corrected Sentence: The students have submitted their assignments before the deadline.
2026 Prelims English
Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph:

I. She practiced every day to improve her skills.
II. As a result, she won the competition.
III. She wanted to become a professional dancer.
IV. Her dedication impressed her teachers.

Choose the correct order:
A III → I → IV → II
B I → III → IV → II
C III → IV → I → II
D IV → I → III → II
Correct Answer: Option A
To form a coherent paragraph, you should follow the "Motivation → Action → Recognition → Outcome" logical flow.

Logical Sequence Breakdown
III. She wanted to become a professional dancer.

Reason: This is the Goal/Introduction. It establishes her motivation and the subject of the paragraph.

I. She practiced every day to improve her skills.

Reason: This is the Action. Now that we know her goal, we see the effort she puts in to reach it.

IV. Her dedication impressed her teachers.

Reason: This is the Development. Her consistent practice (the "dedication" mentioned) leads to notice and feedback from others.

II. As a result, she won the competition.

Reason: This is the Conclusion. The transition phrase "As a result" signals the final consequence of her goal, practice, and dedication.

Why the other options are less effective:
Option B: Starting with "She practiced" before telling us why (her dream of becoming a professional) makes the narrative feel disjointed.

Option C: This suggests her teachers were impressed before she actually started practicing every day, which is less logical than the teachers noticing the habit of daily practice.

Option D: Starting with the teachers being impressed feels like starting a story in the middle without proper context.
2026 Prelims English
Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph:

I. He worked hard to achieve his goals.
II. Success did not come easily to him.
III. Eventually, his efforts paid off.
IV. From a young age, he was determined to succeed.

Choose the correct order:
A IV → I → II → III
B IV → II → I → III
C II → IV → I → III
D I → IV → II → III
Correct Answer: Option B
When rearranging sentences to form a coherent paragraph, you should look for a logical progression: Introduction/Origin → Conflict/Challenge → Action/Effort → Result.

Logical Sequence Breakdown
IV. From a young age, he was determined to succeed.

Reason: This serves as the Introduction. It sets the scene by establishing the subject's character and motivation right from the beginning.

II. Success did not come easily to him.

Reason: This introduces the Conflict. Before we hear about the work he did, we need to understand the difficulty of the situation. It creates a "problem" that needs a "solution."

I. He worked hard to achieve his goals.

Reason: This is the Action. It describes the specific steps taken to overcome the difficulty mentioned in the previous sentence.

III. Eventually, his efforts paid off.

Reason: This is the Conclusion. The word "Eventually" is a transition marker that signifies a final outcome or resolution.

Why the others don't work:
Option A (IV → I → II → III): Moving directly from determination to hard work, and then mentioning it wasn't easy, feels repetitive and disrupts the flow of the "struggle" narrative.

Option C (II → IV → I → III): Starting with "Success did not come easily" is too abrupt; we haven't been introduced to who "he" is or what he wanted to achieve.

Option D (I → IV → II → III): This places the specific action of "working hard" before the background information of his "young age" determination, which feels chronologically backwards.
2026 Prelims English
Choose the option that correctly converts the following sentence into indirect speech:
The professor said, "I will review your thesis tomorrow."

A The professor said that he would review your thesis tomorrow.
B The professor said that he will review your thesis the next day.
C The professor said that he would review my thesis the next day.
D The professor said that I would review your thesis the next day.
Correct Answer: Option C
Converting direct speech into indirect (reported) speech requires three specific "shifts": the tense, the pronoun, and the time expression.

The Breakdown of the Shifts
To get the correct answer, you have to apply these three rules simultaneously:

Tense Shift (Backshifting): The future tense "will" must change to the conditional "would" because the reporting verb (said) is in the past tense.

Pronoun Shift: The speaker ("I") becomes "he" (the professor). The possessive pronoun "your" changes to "my" (assuming the professor is speaking to you).

Time Expression Shift: Specific time markers must be generalized. "Tomorrow" becomes "the next day" or "the following day."

Why the other options are incorrect:
A) ...would review your thesis tomorrow: Fails to shift the time expression (tomorrow).

B) ...will review your thesis the next day: Fails to shift the tense (will should be would) and the pronoun (your).

D) ...that I would review your thesis...: Changes the meaning entirely; it suggests you are the one reviewing the thesis, not the professor.
2026 Prelims English
Choose the option that best expresses a logical deduction about a past event.
A She may finish the experiment before the deadline.
B He should have informed the committee earlier.
C They must have overlooked the crucial data.
D You can submit the application online.
Correct Answer: Option C
In English grammar, making a logical deduction about a past event requires the use of a modal verb of probability followed by the perfect infinitive (have + past participle).Why "C" is the Correct DeductionLogical Deduction: "Must have" is used when we are almost certain that something happened in the past based on the evidence available.Structure: $Must + have + Verb_{3}$ (Overlooked).Context: It implies: "Looking at the results now, I am certain they missed the data earlier."Analysis of the Other OptionsA) She may finish the experiment...Status: This refers to the future or a present possibility, not a past deduction.B) He should have informed the committee...Status: This expresses regret or a past obligation that was not fulfilled. It implies he didn't inform them, rather than deducing whether he did or not.D) You can submit the application online.Status: This expresses ability or permission in the present/future.
2026 Prelims English
Choose the sentence in which the use of articles is grammatically and contextually correct.
A She is a expert in medieval literature and teaches at the university in Delhi.
B He was appointed the head of department after an extensive review process.
C An honest administrator is essential for a effective governance.
D The committee reached a unanimous decision after the long discussion.
Correct Answer: Option D
Articles (a, an, the) can be tricky because their use often depends on the sound of the following word rather than just the first letter. Here is why D is the winner and what is wrong with the others:

Detailed Analysis
A) She is a expert in medieval literature...

The Error: "Expert" begins with a vowel sound. It should be "an expert."

B) He was appointed the head of department...

The Error: In this context, it should be "head of the department." When referring to a specific, singular department within a known institution, the definite article "the" is required.

C) An honest administrator is essential for a effective governance.

The Error: While "An honest" is correct (because "honest" starts with a vowel sound), "a effective" is wrong. It should be "an effective" because "effective" starts with a vowel.

D) The committee reached a unanimous decision after the long discussion.

Why it's Correct: This is the "trick" question of the bunch. Even though "unanimous" starts with the vowel u, it is pronounced with a consonant "y" sound (like yoo-nan-i-mus). Therefore, the article "a" is grammatically correct.
2026 Prelims English
Identify the sentence with a clear and unambiguous pronoun reference.
A When Sara met Lina, she was already upset.
B The students informed the teacher that they would submit the project late.
C Rahul told Amit that he had won the scholarship.
D After the report was revised, it was criticized by the editor
Correct Answer: Option B
In grammar, "ambiguity" occurs when it is unclear which noun (the antecedent) a pronoun is referring to. Here is the breakdown of why B is the strongest choice:

The Breakdown
A) When Sara met Lina, she was already upset.

The Ambiguity: Who was upset? It could be Sara or Lina. The pronoun "she" has two potential female antecedents, making the meaning unclear.

B) The students informed the teacher that they would submit the project late.

Why it's Correct: "They" clearly refers to "the students." Because "teacher" is singular and "students" is plural, there is no confusion about who is submitting the project.

C) Rahul told Amit that he had won the scholarship.

The Ambiguity: Who won? "He" could refer to Rahul (the speaker) or Amit (the person being spoken to).

D) After the report was revised, it was criticized by the editor.

The Ambiguity: While most readers would assume "it" refers to the report, "it" can sometimes have a "hidden" or "vague" reference in complex sentences. However, compared to B, this is slightly weaker because "it" is a passive reference. In strict logic, B is the most structurally sound.
2026 Prelims English
Choose the sentence in which the pronoun usage is grammatically correct.
A Each of the participants must submit their assignment by Friday.
B Neither of the proposals achieved their intended objective.
C Every applicant should bring his or her identification for verification.
D The committee reached their decision after prolonged deliberation.
Correct Answer: Option C
Analysis of the Options
A) Each of the participants must submit their assignment...

The Issue: "Each" is a singular pronoun. In traditional formal grammar, it requires a singular possessive pronoun (like his or her). While "their" is widely accepted in modern speech (singular they), it is often flagged in strict grammatical contexts.

B) Neither of the proposals achieved their intended objective.

The Issue: Similar to "each," the word "neither" is singular. It should technically be followed by "its" because "proposals" are inanimate objects.

C) Every applicant should bring his or her identification for verification.

Why it's Correct: "Every" is a singular distributive pronoun. This sentence correctly matches the singular subject with the singular phrase "his or her." It follows the traditional rules of pronoun-antecedent agreement perfectly.

D) The committee reached their decision after prolonged deliberation.

The Issue: "Committee" is a collective noun acting as a single unit. Therefore, it should be treated as singular: "The committee reached its decision."

Quick Tip: When dealing with words like Each, Neither, Everyone, or Nobody, remember they are "singular survivors." Even though they often refer to a group, they always take a singular verb and pronoun in formal writing.
2026 Prelims English
Choose the sentence in which the correct homophone has been used.
A The principal asked the students to bare the consequences of their actions
B She decided to compliment the dress with a matching scarf.
C The hikers were advised to pause the trail before nightfall.
D He could not cite a single example to support his claim.
Correct Answer: Option D
Analysis of Homophones
Homophones are words that sound the same but have different meanings and spellings. Here is a breakdown of why option D is correct and why the others are incorrect:

D is Correct: Cite means to quote or refer to something as evidence or proof.

Other versions: Site (a location) or Sight (vision).

Correcting the Other Options
A) Incorrect: "Bare" means naked or uncovered.

The Correct Word: Bear (to endure or carry a burden).

Correction: The principal asked the students to bear the consequences...

B) Incorrect: "Compliment" means to praise someone.

The Correct Word: Complement (to add to or enhance something in a way that completes it).

Correction: She decided to complement the dress with a matching scarf.

C) Incorrect: "Pause" means to stop briefly. In the context of a trail, this doesn't make sense as a goal before nightfall.

The Correct Word: Pass (to move through or across).

Correction: The hikers were advised to pass the trail (or perhaps pursue, depending on intent, though "pass" is the common linguistic trap here).
2026 Prelims English
In which sentence is the word "bank" used as a homonym when compared to its use in the sentence below?
She deposited the cheque at the bank.

A The pilot had to bank the aircraft sharply during the landing.
B The children played on the bank of the river after school.
C The bank approved the loan after a detailed review.
D He works at a multinational bank in the city.
Correct Answer: Option B
Understanding Homonyms
In linguistics, a homonym is a word that shares the same spelling and pronunciation as another word but has a completely different, unrelated meaning.

Original Sentence: "She deposited the cheque at the bank."

Here, bank refers to a financial institution.

Option B: "The children played on the bank of the river..."

Here, bank refers to the land alongside a body of water.

These two meanings are etymologically unrelated—they come from different historical roots. This makes them "true homonyms."

Why the others are incorrect:
Option A: "To bank an aircraft" means to tilt it. While it is technically a homonym, in the context of academic English and exams, the distinction between a financial bank and a river bank is the classic, most precise example used to test homonymy.

Option C & D: These sentences use "bank" in the same sense as the original sentence (a financial institution). Because the meanings are related (or identical), this is known as polysemy (one word with multiple related meanings) or simply the same word in a different context.
2026 Prelims English
Identify the type of clause in the sentence below:
What the committee decided surprised everyone present.
The clause "What the committee decided" is a:

A Noun clause functioning as the subject
B Adjective clause modifying committee
C Adverbial clause of result
D Independent clause with an implied subject
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of the Clause
A noun clause is a dependent clause that functions just like a single noun or a pronoun. To identify its role, you can try replacing the entire clause with a simple pronoun like "It" or "That":

Original: [What the committee decided] surprised everyone.

Substitution: [It] surprised everyone.

Since the substitution works and "It" acts as the subject of the verb "surprised," the original clause is functioning as the subject.

Why the other options are incorrect:
B) Adjective clause: These modify a noun (e.g., "The decision that the committee made..."). In this sentence, the clause isn't describing a noun; it is the noun.

C) Adverbial clause: These modify verbs, adjectives, or adverbs and usually answer "when," "where," "why," or "how." This clause answers "what" (the subject).

D) Independent clause: An independent clause must be able to stand alone as a complete sentence. "What the committee decided" is a fragment on its own.

Structural Breakdown
Noun Clause: "What the committee decided"

Subject of the clause: "the committee"

Verb of the clause: "decided"

Main Verb of the sentence: "surprised"

Direct Object: "everyone present"
2026 Prelims English
Choose the option that correctly punctuates the sentence:
The proposal which was submitted last week however requires further revision

A The proposal, which was submitted last week however, requires further revision.
B The proposal which was submitted last week, however, requires further revision.
C The proposal, which was submitted last week, however requires further revision.
D The proposal, which was submitted last week, however, requires further revision.
Correct Answer: Option D
Punctuation Rules Applied
This sentence requires commas to set off two distinct types of parenthetical (non-essential) information:

The Non-Restrictive Relative Clause: The phrase "which was submitted last week" adds extra information about the proposal but is not necessary to identify which proposal is being discussed. Non-restrictive clauses must be enclosed in commas.

Rule: The proposal**, which was submitted last week,** requires...

The Conjunctive Adverb:
The word "however" is used here as an interrupter. When a transition word like however, therefore, or moreover is placed in the middle of a clause to provide contrast or transition, it must be preceded and followed by commas.

Rule: ...last week**, however,** requires...

Why the others are incorrect:
A: Missing the comma after "week." Without it, "however" is incorrectly lumped into the relative clause.

B: Missing the comma before "which." This implies the clause is "restrictive" (essential to the meaning), which contradicts standard grammar for "which" clauses in this context. It also misses the comma before "however."

C: Missing the comma after "however." This leaves the transition word "hanging" without properly isolating it as an interrupter.

Final Structure
By using commas in all three positions, you clearly separate the description (the timing of the submission) and the transition (the contrast) from the main subject and verb: The proposal requires further revision.
2026 Prelims English
The professor was admired for his equanimous response to harsh criticism.
Which word is the most precise antonym of equanimous?

A Volatile
B Indifferent
C Impulsive
D Belligerent
Correct Answer: Option A
Definition & Context
Equanimous refers to someone who maintains equanimity—mental calmness, composure, and evenness of temper, especially in a stressful situation (like "harsh criticism").

To find the most precise antonym, you need a word that describes the lack of that steady emotional state:

Volatile (A): This is the best fit because it describes someone whose emotions are unstable and liable to change rapidly and unpredictably. While an equanimous person is a "steady rock," a volatile person might erupt or shift moods instantly.

Indifferent (B): This means having no particular interest or sympathy. This is not the opposite of calmness; in fact, being indifferent can sometimes look like being calm.

Impulsive (C): This refers to acting without thinking. While a volatile person is often impulsive, impulsivity describes actions, whereas equanimity describes temperament.

Belligerent (D): This means hostile and aggressive. While a person who lacks composure might become belligerent, it describes a specific type of angry behavior rather than the general state of emotional instability.
2026 Prelims English
Her argument was praised for being cogent and logically compelling.
Which option is the best antonym of cogent?

A Specious
B Tentative
C Ambiguous
D Superficial
Correct Answer: Option A
Understanding the Comparison
To find the best antonym, it is helpful to look at the "weight" and "truth" of the argument:

Cogent describes an argument that is clear, logical, and convincing. It is backed by strong evidence and forces the listener to believe it because of its validity.

Specious describes an argument that seems plausible or correct on the surface but is actually wrong or false. It is the direct opposite because while a cogent argument is truly compelling, a specious one only pretends to be.

Why the others are not the "best" antonyms:
Tentative (B): Means hesitant or not certain. A cogent argument can be delivered tentatively, and a weak argument can be delivered confidently.

Ambiguous (C): Means open to more than one interpretation. While a cogent argument should be clear, the primary opposite of "convincing and valid" isn't "unclear"—it's "invalid."

Superficial (D): Means lacking depth. While a superficial argument is rarely cogent, "specious" specifically attacks the logical integrity of the argument, making it a stronger anton
2026 Prelims English
The editor criticized the article for its prolix treatment of an otherwise simple topic.
Which word is the most appropriate synonym of prolix in this context?

A Discursive
B Redundant
C Verbose
D Diffuse
Correct Answer: Option C
Definition & Nuance
Prolix refers to speech or writing that uses far too many words and is, as a result, tedious or boring.

While all the options relate to wordiness, Verbose is the most precise synonym for a "prolix treatment" of a topic:

Verbose (C): Directly describes using more words than are needed. It is the most common and accurate synonym for general wordiness.

Discursive (A): Means rambling or moving from one topic to another without a clear plan. An article can be prolix without being discursive.

Redundant (B): Means using words that are unnecessary because they repeat what has already been said. Prolixity includes redundancy, but also includes just being long-winded in general.

Diffuse (D): Specifically refers to writing that is spread out and lacks conciseness or focus.

Contextual Clue
The phrase "otherwise simple topic" is the key. The editor is frustrated because the writer took something easy to understand and made it unnecessarily long and tiresome. Verbose best captures that specific "long-winded" quality.
2026 Prelims English
The scholar was known for his perspicacious analysis of complex philosophical texts.

Which option is the closest synonym of perspicacious as used here?

A Methodical
B Astute
C Meticulous
D Circumspect
Correct Answer: Option B
Definition & Usage
Perspicacious comes from the Latin perspicax, meaning "sharp-sighted." In an academic or philosophical context, it describes someone who has a ready insight into and understanding of things.

Why "Astute" fits: An astute person is someone who can accurately assess situations or information and turn this to their advantage. It captures the "sharpness" and mental clarity implied by the original sentence.

Why the others don't quite fit:

Methodical (A): Focuses on following a systematic or orderly procedure.

Meticulous (C): Focuses on being very careful and precise about small details.

Circumspect (D): Means being wary and unwilling to take risks (cautious).

Contextual Clue
When analyzing "complex philosophical texts," the goal is usually to see through the complexity to find the underlying truth. A perspicacious (or astute) analyst doesn't just look at the details; they "see through" them to the core meaning.
2026 Prelims English
The committee's proposal, though ambitious, was dismissed as "a bridge too far" by senior officials.
In this context, "a bridge too far" suggests that the proposal was:

A Poorly structured and lacking practical detail
B Conceptually sound but politically unpopular
C Excessively ambitious beyond what was feasible or acceptable
D Intentionally provocative to test institutional boundaries
Correct Answer: Option C
Meaning and Origin
The idiom "a bridge too far" describes an act of overreaching. It suggests that while an initial goal might have been attainable, the final objective was too distant, too difficult, or too resource-intensive to be successful.

Feasibility: It implies that the plan has crossed the line from "challenging" to "impossible."

Acceptability: In a professional or political context, it often means the proposal demands more than what stakeholders are willing to give or risk.

Historical Context
The phrase originated from Operation Market Garden during World War II. The Allied plan involved capturing a series of bridges in the Netherlands to create an invasion route into Germany. The final bridge at Arnhem proved impossible to hold, leading British Lieutenant-General Frederick Browning to famously remark, "I think we may be going a bridge too far."
2026 Prelims English
The senator's apology was widely viewed as "too little, too late" after months of public outrage.
The idiom "too little, too late" most precisely conveys that the apology:

A Was insincere and strategically calculated
B Failed to address the full extent of the controversy
C Was inadequate in both substance and timing to be effective
D Was overshadowed by more pressing political developments
Correct Answer: Option C
The idiom “too little, too late” means that an action is insufficient and delayed, so it fails to make any meaningful impact.


It captures both aspects:

“Too little” → not enough (inadequate response)
“Too late” → delayed (came after damage was already done)

About JKSSB 2026 Previous Year Questions

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