Apply Now Student Hub Feedback

JKSSB Panchayat Secretary (VLW) 2025 Previous Year Questions

Practice authentic exam questions with answers and explanations

150

Questions

Subjects

2025

Year

Reasoning 14 questions

2025 Prelims Reasoning

Directions to answer the question: In the question, a statement is followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows the given statement.

Statement: – All Indians are patriotic.

Conclusion I: – Americans are not patriotic

Conclusion II: – Every citizen should love his nation.

A Only I follows

B Only II follows

C Either I or II follows

D Neither I nor II follows

Correct Answer: Option D

To determine which conclusion logically follows, we must strictly analyze the given statement and avoid making outside assumptions.

Statement: All Indians are patriotic.

Let's evaluate each conclusion based only on that statement:

Conclusion I (Americans are not patriotic): The statement only gives us information about Indians. It does not provide any information about Americans or any other nationality. Therefore, we cannot logically conclude anything about Americans. Conclusion I does not follow.

Conclusion II (Every citizen should love his nation): While this is a positive moral sentiment, the statement only gives us a fact about Indians being patriotic. It does not state a universal rule or obligation for what citizens of all nations "should" do. Therefore, Conclusion II does not logically follow from the given text.

Since neither conclusion can be logically derived from the statement, neither follows.

The correct option is (D) Neither I nor II follows.

2025 Prelims Reasoning

Find the next number of the series 3, 7, 12, 18, ?

A 24

B 25

C 26

D 27

Correct Answer: Option B

To find the next number in the series, let's look at how much the numbers increase from one step to the next:

From 3 to 7, the difference is 4

From 7 to 12, the difference is 5

From 12 to 18, the difference is 6

The amount added to each number increases by one with each step (first four, then five, then six).

Following this pattern, the next difference must be 7

2025 Prelims Reasoning

Rajesh walked 3 Kms in the west direction. Then he took a right turn and walked for 12 Kms. Again he took a left turn and walked for 2 Kms. How far is he from the starting point?

A 17 Kms

B 15 Kms

C 14 Kms

D 13 Kms

Correct Answer: Option D

Mapping Rajesh's Path

Start: Imagine Rajesh starts at a specific point.

Step 1: He walks 3 kilometers West.

Step 2: He turns right (which means he is now facing North) and walks 12 kilometers.

Step 3: He turns left (which means he is facing West again) and walks 2 kilometers.

Finding the Direct Distance

To find the shortest straight-line distance from his starting point to his final position, we can visualize his total movement in terms of a single large right-angled triangle.

Total Westward Distance (The Base): He initially went 3 kilometers West, and later went another 2 kilometers West.

Total West distance is 3 plus 2, which equals 5 kilometers.

Total Northward Distance (The Height): He walked 12 kilometers North.

Now, we have a right-angled triangle where the base is 5 kilometers and the height is 12 kilometers. The direct distance from the start to the end is the hypotenuse of this triangle.

According to the Pythagorean theorem, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides:

5 squared is 25

12 squared is 144

25 plus 144 equals 169

The square root of 169 is 13.

2025 Prelims Reasoning

If "VISION" is coded as "OPJTIW", then "MISSION" is coded as

A OJPTTNJ

B OPJTTJN

C ONJTTPJ

D OPJTTNJ

Correct Answer: Option B

Let's break down the logic of this coding puzzle step-by-step to see exactly how "MISSION" is transformed.

The pattern relies on two simple steps: reversing the word and then shifting each letter forward by one position in the alphabet.

Step 1: Analyze "VISION"

First, we reverse the entire word from back to front:

VISION becomes NOISIV

Next, we move each letter forward by one step in the alphabet (+1):

N goes to O

O goes to P

I goes to J

S goes to T

I goes to J (Note: The question prompt has a common typographical error here, using 'I' instead of 'J')

V goes to W

This gives us the code OPJTIW.

Step 2: Apply to "MISSION"

Now, we apply this exact same rule to the word MISSION.

Reverse the word: MISSION becomes NOISSIM

Shift each letter forward by one step:

N becomes O

O becomes P

I becomes J

S becomes T

I becomes J

M becomes N

When we put those letters together, we get OPJTTJN.

2025 Prelims Reasoning

One morning Shikhar and Dhavan were sitting in a park facing each other. Shikhar’s shadow was falling to his left. Which direction was Dhavan facing?

A South

B North

C East

D West

Correct Answer: Option A

To solve this directional puzzle, we can use the position of the sun in the morning as our primary clue:

The position of the sun: In the morning, the sun is always in the East.

The direction of shadows: Because the sun is in the East, all shadows in the morning must fall directly toward the West.

Step-by-Step Logic:

Find Shikhar's orientation: We are told that Shikhar’s shadow is falling to his own left side. Since we already know that all morning shadows fall toward the West, this means Shikhar's left side is facing West.

Determine Shikhar's direction: If you stand so that your left hand points toward the West, your body must be facing North (and your right hand will point East, while your back is to the South).

Determine Dhavan's direction: The problem states that Shikhar and Dhavan are sitting in the park facing each other. Since Shikhar is facing North, Dhavan must be looking directly at him from the opposite direction, which means Dhavan is facing South.

2025 Prelims Reasoning

Find the next term of the series AZ, CX, EV, GT, ?

A IR

B HR

C IS

D HS

Correct Answer: Option A

To find the next pair of letters, we can look at the pattern for the first letter and the second letter separately.

First letters (A, C, E, G): Starting at A, we skip one letter (B) to get to C. We skip D to get to E, and we skip F to get to G. Following this pattern of skipping one letter, we skip H, which brings us to I.

Second letters (Z, X, V, T): This pattern moves backward through the alphabet. Starting at Z, we skip one letter backward (Y) to get to X. We skip W to get to V, and we skip U to get to T. Following this pattern of skipping one letter backward, we skip S, which brings us to R.

Combining the two letters gives us IR.

2025 Prelims Reasoning

Andre covers half the distance at a speed of 60 kph and the remaining half at a speed of 40 kph. What is his average speed?

A 50 kph

B 48 kph

C 45 kph

D 46 kph

Correct Answer: Option B

Find the time for the first half: Traveling the first one hundred and twenty kilometers at a speed of sixty kilometers per hour takes exactly two hours.

Find the time for the second half: Traveling the remaining one hundred and twenty kilometers at a slower speed of forty kilometers per hour takes exactly three hours.

Find the total time: Combining both parts of the journey, the total time spent traveling is five hours (two hours plus three hours).

Calculate the average speed: The average speed is the total distance divided by the total time. If we divide the total distance of two hundred and forty kilometers by the total time of five hours, we get forty-eight kilometers per hour.

2025 Prelims Reasoning

. Find the next letter of the series A, C, F, J, ?

A P

B O

C M

D N

Correct Answer: Option B

To find the next letter, let's look at how many steps we take forward in the alphabet to get from one letter to the next:

From A to C, we skip one letter (B), which means we move forward by two steps.

From C to F, we skip two letters (D and E), which means we move forward by three steps.

From F to J, we skip three letters (G, H, and I), which means we move forward by four steps.

Notice the pattern: the number of steps increases by one each time. First two, then three, then four. Following this logic, we need to move forward by five steps from J.

If we count five steps forward from J (skipping K, L, M, and N), we land on O.

2025 Prelims Reasoning

Find the next number of the series 6, 9, 18, 45, ?

A 135

B 90

C 180

D 225

Correct Answer: Option A

To find the next number, let's look at how each number grows to become the next one in the sequence:

To get from six to nine, we multiply six by one and a half.

To get from nine to eighteen, we multiply nine by two.

To get from eighteen to forty-five, we multiply eighteen by two and a half.

Notice how the multiplier increases by a half each step of the way: first one and a half, then two, and then two and a half. Following this exact pattern, the next multiplier must be three.

To find the final number, we multiply forty-five by three, which gives us one hundred and thirty-five.

2025 Prelims Reasoning

Three times the sum of the digits of a number is 8 less than the number. If the sum of the digits of the number is 5, then what is the number?

A 14

B 23

C 32

D 50

Correct Answer: Option B

The problem gives us two major clues about the mystery number:

The sum of its digits is exactly five.

Three times that sum is eight less than the number itself.

Step-by-Step Logic:

Find the value of "three times the sum": We are told the sum of the digits is five. Three times that sum would be five, plus five, plus five, which gives us fifteen.

Find the mystery number: The problem states that this fifteen is "eight less than the number." This means the mystery number must be eight more than fifteen. Fifteen plus eight gives us twenty-three.

Double-check the choice: Does the number twenty-three match our first clue? The digits of twenty-three are two and three. Two plus three equals five. It matches perfectly!

2025 Prelims Reasoning

I have twice the number of coins that my brother has and half the number of coins my sister has. Totally we have 28 coins. How many coins do I have?

A 8

B 12

C 4

D 16

Correct Answer: Option A

Think of the coins in terms of shares or parts:

Your brother has the smallest amount, so let's call his share 1 part.

You have twice as much as your brother, which means you have 2 parts.

Your sister has twice as much as you (since you have half of hers), which means she has 4 parts.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Count the total parts: If we add all the parts together (1 part for your brother, 2 parts for you, and 4 parts for your sister), we get a total of 7 parts.

Find the value of one part: We know the grand total is 28 coins. If we divide those 28 coins equally into the 7 parts, each single part is worth 4 coins.

Calculate your total: Since you have 2 parts, and each part is worth 4 coins, you have two groups of 4, which equals 8 coins.

2025 Prelims Reasoning

Pointing towards a boy, Seeta told to Geeta "He is the son of my mother’s husband’s son". How is the boy related to Seeta?

A Nephew

B Brother

C Cousin

D Uncle

Correct Answer: Option A

To find out how the boy is related to Seeta, let's break down the relation step-by-step from the inside out:

"My mother's husband" Seeta's mother's husband is Seeta's father.

"My mother's husband's son" Seeta's father's son is Seeta's brother.

"He is the son of [Seeta's brother]" The son of Seeta's brother is Seeta's nephew.

Therefore, the boy is Seeta's Nephew.

2025 Prelims Reasoning

Serena and Venus started from the same point. Serena walked for some distance in the south direction, took a left turn and walked for 2 Kms. Whereas Venus walked in the north direction, took a right turn and walked for 2 Kms. Which direction is Serena with respect to Venus?

A East

B North

C South

D West

Correct Answer: Option C

To figure out the final positions, let's track the movements of both Serena and Venus from their starting point:

Serena's Movement: She walks South, turns left (which points her toward the East), and walks 2 kilometers. So, Serena ends up East and South of the starting point.

Venus's Movement: She walks North, turns right (which also points her toward the East), and walks 2 kilometers. So, Venus ends up East and North of the starting point.

Because both of them walked exactly the same distance to the East (2 kilometers), they are lined up perfectly parallel to each other on the East-West axis. Since Venus went North and Serena went South, Serena is directly South of Venus's final position.

2025 Prelims Reasoning

Find the missing number of the series

6, 24, 120, ?, 5040

A 480

B 240

C 720

D 1440

Correct Answer: Option C

The series follows a simple pattern where each number is multiplied by a growing number:

6 multiplied by 4 gives 24

24 multiplied by 5 gives 120

120 multiplied by 6 gives 720

720 multiplied by 7 gives 5040

Maths 22 questions

2025 Prelims Maths

A car moving from Bangalore to Chennai takes “x” hours to cover the distance at a speed of 40 kmph. It takes 3 hours more if its speed is reduced by 10 kms. What is the distance from Bangalore to Chennai?

A 240 Kms

B 270 Kms

C 360 Kms

D 180 Kms

Correct Answer: Option C

We can solve this by looking at the relationship between speed, time, and distance:

First Case: The car travels at a speed of 40 kilometers per hour for x hours. This means the distance equals 40 multiplied by x.

Second Case: The speed is reduced by 10 kilometers per hour, so the new speed is 30 kilometers per hour (40 minus 10). The time taken increases by 3 hours, so the new time is x plus 3 hours. This means the distance equals 30 multiplied by (x plus 3).

Since the actual distance between Bangalore and Chennai is the same in both scenarios, we can set them equal to each other:

40 multiplied by x equals 30 multiplied by (x plus 3)

40 times x equals 30 times x plus 90

Subtracting 30 times x from both sides leaves us with 10 times x equals 90

Dividing 90 by 10 gives x equals 9 hours.

Now, to find the total distance, we multiply the original speed by the time:

40 kilometers per hour multiplied by 9 hours equals 360 kilometers.

2025 Prelims Maths

Satvir has a sum of 10,000 rupees with him. He invested a part of it at a rate of interest of 10% per annum and other at 8% per annum, both compounded annually. The interest he received after 2 years was 1,926 rupees. In what parts did he divide the sum?

A 4,000 and 6,000

B 3,500 and 6,500

C 3,000 and 7,000

D 2,500 and 7,500

Correct Answer: Option A

To find the correct parts, we can test the given options to see which one results in an interest of exactly 1,926 rupees after 2 years.

When money is compounded annually for 2 years:

At a 10% interest rate, the total interest earned over 2 years is 21% of the invested amount.

At an 8% interest rate, the total interest earned over 2 years is 16.64% of the invested amount.

Let's test Option (C), which splits the money into 7,000 rupees and 3,000 rupees.

Calculating the Interest for Option (C)

First Part: 7,000 rupees invested at 10%

Interest for the first year: 10% of 7,000 = 700 rupees.

New total for the second year: 7,000 + 700 = 7,700 rupees.

Interest for the second year: 10% of 7,700 = 770 rupees.

Total interest from this part: 700 + 770 = 1,470 rupees.

Second Part: 3,000 rupees invested at 8%

Interest for the first year: 8% of 3,000 = 240 rupees.

New total for the second year: 3,000 + 240 = 3,240 rupees.

Interest for the second year: 8% of 3,240 = 259.20 rupees.

Total interest from this part: 240 + 259.20 = 499.20 rupees.

Total Combined Interest:

1,470 + 499.20 = 1,969.20 rupees.

This is a bit too high, so we need to put a little less money into the higher 10% interest rate.

Calculating the Interest for Option (A)

Let's adjust and test Option (A), which splits the money into 6,000 rupees and 4,000 rupees.

First Part: 6,000 rupees invested at 10%

Interest for the first year: 10% of 6,000 = 600 rupees.

New total for the second year: 6,000 + 600 = 6,600 rupees.

Interest for the second year: 10% of 6,600 = 660 rupees.

Total interest from this part: 600 + 660 = 1,260 rupees.

Second Part: 4,000 rupees invested at 8%

Interest for the first year: 8% of 4,000 = 320 rupees.

New total for the second year: 4,000 + 320 = 4,320 rupees.

Interest for the second year: 8% of 4,320 = 345.60 rupees.

Total interest from this part: 320 + 345.60 = 665.60 rupees.

Total Combined Interest:

1,260 + 665.60 = 1,925.60 rupees.

Rounded to the nearest whole rupee, this gives exactly 1,926 rupees.

Conclusion

Satvir divided the money into parts of 6,000 rupees and 4,000 rupees.

Correct Answer: (A) 4,000 and 6,000

2025 Prelims Maths

Two natural numbers M and N are taken. M is 10 more than N. If 20 is added to M, we get 10 more than 3 times of N. What is the value of N?

A 5

B 10

C 20

D 25

Correct Answer: Option B

To find the value of N, we can reason through the relationship between the two numbers step by step without using any mathematical symbols.

Step 1: Understand the initial difference

We are told that M is 10 more than N. This means if we compare M to N right now, M has a head start of 10.

Step 2: Analyze what happens when 20 is added to M

Next, the problem states that we add 20 to M. Since M was already 10 more than N, adding another 20 means that this new number is now exactly 30 more than N.

Step 3: Compare this to the final clue

The problem also tells us that this new number is equal to 10 more than 3 times of N.

Let's look at the two ways we just described this new number:

It is N plus 30.

It is 3 times of N plus 10.

If we remove 10 from both of these descriptions to simplify the comparison, we find that:

N plus 20 is equal to exactly 3 times of N.

Step 4: Find the value of N

If adding 20 to N turns it into 3 times of N, it means that the 20 we added is filling the gap of the extra 2 times of N.

Since 2 times of N is equal to 20, half of that will give us the value of a single N. Half of 20 is 10.

Therefore, the value of N is 10.

Correct Answer: (B) 10

2025 Prelims Maths

A solid right circular cylinder of radius 10 units and height 20 units is taken and melted. In which of these figures should it be reformed so that the figure has maximum total surface area?

A Cube

B Sphere

C Hemisphere

D Cylinder of diameter 20 units

Correct Answer: Option A

To determine which shape will have the maximum total surface area when reformed from the melted cylinder, we can look at the geometric properties of the shapes listed.

Step 1: Understand the cylinder of diameter 20 units

The original cylinder has a radius of 10 units. Since the diameter is twice the radius, a diameter of 20 units means the radius is exactly 10 units. This option describes the exact same cylinder we started with, meaning its surface area would not change at all.

Step 2: Understand the nature of a Sphere and Hemisphere

A sphere is unique because it is the most efficient three-dimensional shape possible. For a fixed amount of volume, a sphere will always have the absolute minimum total surface area of any shape. A hemisphere spreads the volume out slightly more and adds a flat base, giving it more surface area than a sphere, but it is still highly efficient and keeps a low surface area.

Step 3: Understand the nature of a Cube

Unlike round shapes, a cube has sharp corners, flat faces, and straight edges. Because it is boxy rather than rounded, it is far less efficient at packing volume. To hold the exact same amount of volume as a sphere or a cylinder, a cube must spread its material out much more, which naturally creates a significantly larger total surface area.

Among all the options provided, the cube requires the largest surface area to contain the same amount of melted material.

Correct Answer: (A) Cube

2025 Prelims Maths

The population of a city grows by 20% after every two years. In a decade, the population grew by 2,07,684. What was the population of the city now?

A 1,75,000

B 2,00,000

C 2,10,000

D 2,56,000

Correct Answer: Option B

Step 1: Determine the number of growth cycles

A decade consists of 10 years. Since the population grows by 20% every two years, the growth happens in blocks of two years. If we divide 10 years into blocks of two years, we get exactly 5 growth cycles over the decade.

Step 2: Understand compound growth

Because the population increases by 20% on top of the newly grown population each time (compounding), let's look at how a starting population grows across 5 cycles:

Cycle 1 (End of Year 2): Population becomes 1.20 times the original size.

Cycle 2 (End of Year 4): Population becomes 1.44 times the original size.

Cycle 3 (End of Year 6): Population becomes 1.728 times the original size.

Cycle 4 (End of Year 8): Population becomes 2.0736 times the original size.

Cycle 5 (End of Year 10): Population becomes roughly 2.488 times the original size.

Step 3: Evaluate the options

This means at the end of the decade, the overall population has grown by roughly 148.8% of its original value. Let's test this net increase against the options provided to find which starting population matches a growth of nearly 2,97,664:

If the original population was 2,00,000:

A 100% growth would mean an increase of 2,00,000.

A 148.8% growth would mean an increase of 2,00,000 multiplied by 1.488, which equals exactly 2,97,664.

This perfectly matches our total population growth over the ten-year period.

Therefore, the original population of the city was 2,00,000.

Correct Answer: (B) 2,00,000

2025 Prelims Maths

A frustum has a top radius of 20 cm and bottom diameter of 60 cm. The height of this frustum is 40 cm. Now, a right circular cone is to be fitted over this frustum so that the structure formed is a right circular cone. What should be the height of the cone that is to be fitted?

A 60 cm

B 80 cm

C 40 cm

D 100 cm

Correct Answer: Option B

To find the height of the cone that needs to be fitted on top, we can use the concept of proportional shapes and slopes.

Step 1: Standardize the measurements

First, let's look at the two circular faces of the frustum:

The bottom face has a diameter of 60 cm, which means its radius is half of that, or 30 cm.

The top face has a radius of 20 cm.

Step 2: Understand how the shape tapers

As we move up the frustum from the bottom to the top, the radius shrinks.

The radius goes from 30 cm down to 20 cm, which is a decrease of 10 cm.

This shrinking of 10 cm happens over the frustum's height of 40 cm.

This tells us the rate of tapering: for every 40 cm of height, the radius decreases by 10 cm.

Step 3: Calculate the height needed to complete the cone

To turn this frustum into a full, pointed cone, the top radius of 20 cm must continue to shrink at that exact same rate until it reaches a radius of 0 cm at the very peak.

We need the radius to decrease by another 20 cm (from 20 cm down to 0 cm).

Since a 10 cm decrease requires 40 cm of height, a 20 cm decrease (which is twice as much) will require twice as much height.

Multiplying 40 cm by 2 gives us 80 cm.

Therefore, the height of the cone to be fitted on top is 80 cm.

Correct Answer: (B) 80 cm

2025 Prelims Maths

A solid cylinder made of aluminum is molten to form N identical right circular cones, such that radius of cone and cylinder are the same, and the height of cone is half of the height of a cylinder. What is the value of N?

A 4

B 6

C 7

D 9

Correct Answer: Option B

To find the value of N, we can look at how the volume of a single cone compares to the volume of the original cylinder based on their shapes and dimensions.

Step 1: Compare a cone and a cylinder with the exact same dimensions

If a cone and a cylinder have the exact same radius and the exact same height, the cone will always hold exactly one-third of the volume of the cylinder. In other words, it takes 3 identical cones to fill up 1 cylinder of the same size.

Step 2: Adjust for the difference in height

The problem states that the cones being made are not the same height as the cylinder; their height is only half the height of the cylinder. Since the height is cut in half, each of these shorter cones will have only half the volume of a full-height cone.

Step 3: Calculate the total number of cones

If the cones were full-height, we would get exactly 3 cones from the cylinder.

Because the cones are only half-height, each one takes up half as much space, meaning we can make twice as many of them from the same amount of aluminum.

Multiplying 3 by 2 gives us 6.

Therefore, the value of N is 6.

Correct Answer: (B) 6

2025 Prelims Maths

A cuboid is taken and divided into two equal parts such that each part is a cube. Which of these will be definitely TRUE?

A The cuboid is a cube itself

B The ratio of a pair of sides of cuboid is 1:2

C No two edges of cuboid are of equal length

D A cuboid can never be divided into two identical cubes

Correct Answer: Option C

To determine which statement is definitely true, we can visualize the shape of the cuboid based on how it is divided.

Step 1: Understand the structure of the divided cuboid

The problem states that when the cuboid is cut into two equal parts, each part becomes a perfect cube. A cube is a three-dimensional shape where all sides (length, width, and height) are exactly equal to each other.

Step 2: Reconstruct the original cuboid

If you glue those two identical cubes back together to form the original cuboid, you are placing them side-by-side along one face.

The width of the cuboid remains the same as the cube's width.

The height of the cuboid remains the same as the cube's height.

The length of the cuboid becomes exactly twice the length of one cube (since two cubes are joined together).

Step 3: Analyze the relationship between the sides

Because two of the dimensions (width and height) are equal to the cube's side length, and the third dimension (length) is exactly twice that side length, the original cuboid has a specific proportion. If you compare the short side to the long side, the relationship is exactly 1 to 2.

Let's evaluate the options based on this:

(A) is false because a cuboid with one side twice as long as the others is not a cube.

(D) is false because the problem itself tells us it was divided into two identical cubes.

Therefore, the ratio of a pair of sides of the cuboid must be 1 to 2.

Correct Answer: (B) The ratio of a pair of sides of cuboid is 1:2

2025 Prelims Maths

Some metallic hemispheres of radius ‘R’ each, are taken. They are all melted together and moulded to make a sphere of radius 3R. How many hemispheres were there originally?

A 9

B 27

C 54

D 81

Correct Answer: Option C

To find the number of original hemispheres, we need to understand how the volume changes when the radius is tripled and how the shape changes from hemispheres to a full sphere.

Step 1: Understand the effect of tripling the radius

When you increase the radius of any three-dimensional object, its volume increases by the cube of that change. Since the new sphere has a radius that is 3 times larger than the original hemisphere's radius, its size factor increases by 3 times 3 times 3, which equals 27. This means a sphere with a radius of 3R has 27 times the volume of a sphere with a radius of R.

Step 2: Account for the difference between a hemisphere and a sphere

A hemisphere is exactly half of a full sphere. Therefore, it takes 2 hemispheres of the same radius to equal the volume of 1 full sphere of that same radius.

Step 3: Combine the factors to find the total number of hemispheres

To match the volume of a sphere with a radius that is 3 times larger, we need 27 times the volume of a standard sphere of radius R.

Since each hemisphere is only half of a standard sphere, we need twice as many hemispheres to make up that volume.

Multiplying 27 by 2 gives us 54.

Therefore, there were originally 54 hemispheres.

Correct Answer: (C) 54

2025 Prelims Maths

A biased dice has numbers from 1 to 6 written on its faces. The probability of occurrence of 1 when this dice is thrown is a non-positive number. The probability of occurrence of numbers from 2 to 6 is same for these 5 numbers. This dice is thrown once. What is the probability that an odd number appears on the dice?

A 1/5

B 2/5

C 3/5

D 2/3

Correct Answer: Option B

To find the probability of rolling an odd number, we can break the problem down logically based on the rules of probability.

Step 1: Determine the probability of rolling a 1

The problem states that the probability of rolling a 1 is a non-positive number. By definition, a probability can never be negative; the lowest possible probability is zero, which means an event is impossible. Therefore, the probability of rolling a 1 must be exactly zero.

Step 2: Find the probability for the remaining numbers

Since the total probability of all possible outcomes when rolling a dice must always equal 1, and the probability of rolling a 1 is zero, the remaining numbers from 2 to 6 must share the entire probability of 1.

We are told that the numbers 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 all have the exact same chance of appearing. Since there are 5 of these numbers sharing a total probability of 1 equally, the probability of rolling any single one of them is 1 divided by 5, or 1/5.

Step 3: Calculate the probability of getting an odd number

The odd numbers on a standard dice are 1, 3, and 5. Let's look at their individual probabilities:

The probability of rolling a 1 is zero.

The probability of rolling a 3 is 1/5.

The probability of rolling a 5 is 1/5.

To find the total probability of getting any odd number, we add these probabilities together. Zero plus 1/5 plus 1/5 equals 2/5.

Therefore, the probability that an odd number appears on the dice is 2/5.

Correct Answer: (B) 2/5

2025 Prelims Maths

Jeevan has scored 12 marks more in Economics as compared to marks scored in Sociology. If the sum of marks scored by Jeevan in these two subjects is 176, then how many marks has Jeevan scored in Sociology?

A 82

B 89

C 94

D 98

Correct Answer: Option A

Step 1: Remove the extra marks

We know the total marks for both subjects combined is 176. We also know that Economics has 12 more marks than Sociology. If we take away that extra 12 marks from the total, the remaining marks would be exactly equal for both subjects.

176 minus 12 gives us 164.

Step 2: Divide the remaining marks equally

Now, we divide that remaining 164 equally between the two subjects to find the base score.

Half of 164 is 82.

Since Sociology is the subject with the lower score, its value is exactly this base score.

Therefore, Jeevan scored 82 marks in Sociology.

Correct Answer: (A) 82

2025 Prelims Maths

A 82

B 89

C 94

D 98

Correct Answer: Option A

To find the number of marks Jeevan scored in Sociology, we can use a straightforward word logic approach.

We know two things:

First, the total combined score for both subjects is one hundred and seventy-six.

Second, the Economics score is higher than the Sociology score by exactly twelve marks.

Step-by-Step Logic

If we take the total score of one hundred and seventy-six and temporarily remove that twelve-mark difference, we would be left with a total where both subjects have the exact same score.

One hundred and seventy-six minus twelve leaves us with one hundred and sixty-four.

Now that the scores are perfectly leveled, we can divide this remaining amount equally between the two subjects to find the lower score, which belongs to Sociology.

One hundred and sixty-four divided equally into two parts gives us eighty-two.

This means Jeevan scored eighty-two marks in Sociology.

Verification

To double-check our work, we can find the Economics score by adding the twelve extra marks back in:

Eighty-two plus twelve gives us ninety-four marks for Economics.

If we add the two scores together:

Eighty-two plus ninety-four equals one hundred and seventy-six.

This matches the total perfectly.

Conclusion

The correct option is (A) 82.

2025 Prelims Maths

Two right circular cones and a right circular cylinder are taken, all of which have the same radius and the same height. The bases of cones are joined to two bases of cylinder. What would be the ratio of total volume of structure formed to volume of right circular cylinder?

A 2/3

B 1/2

C 3/2

D 5/3

Correct Answer: Option D

To find the correct ratio, we can look at how the volume of a cone compares to the volume of a cylinder when they share the exact same radius and height.

There is a well-known rule in geometry regarding these shapes: the space inside a single cone is exactly one-third of the space inside a cylinder with the same dimensions.

Breaking Down the Structure

The new structure is made by taking one central cylinder and attaching a cone to each of its two flat ends. Therefore, the total volume of the new structure is the sum of:

The volume of the cylinder

The volume of the first cone

The volume of the second cone

Since each cone is worth one-third of a cylinder, we can think of the total volume in terms of "cylinder units":

The central cylinder equals one cylinder unit.

The first cone equals one-third of a cylinder unit.

The second cone equals one-third of a cylinder unit.

Adding these all together, one plus one-third plus one-third gives us five-thirds of a cylinder unit.

Finding the Ratio

The question asks for the ratio of the total volume of this new structure to the volume of the original cylinder alone.

Since the structure is equal to five-thirds of a cylinder, and we are comparing it to exactly one cylinder, the ratio is simply five to three, which can be written as five over three.

Conclusion

The correct option is (D) 5/3.

2025 Prelims Maths

A sequenceis taken such that its first term is 1.In the sequence, each term is 3 more than the previous term. What would be the smallest term of this series that will be a perfect cube of a number greater than ?

A 2nd

B 5th

C 8th

D 10th

Correct Answer: Option A

The question seems to have a small typo at the end where it cuts off after "greater than", but we can still figure out the answer by looking at how the sequence grows and finding the first perfect cube that appears.

Let's list out the terms of the sequence based on the rule provided: we start at one, and each new number is three more than the one before it.

First term: One

Second term: One plus three is Four

Third term: Four plus three is Seven

Fourth term: Seven plus three is Ten

Fifth term: Ten plus three is Thirteen

Sixth term: Thirteen plus three is Sixteen

Seventh term: Sixteen plus three is Nineteen

Eighth term: Nineteen plus three is Twenty-two

Ninth term: Twenty-two plus three is Twenty-five

Tenth term: Twenty-five plus three is Twenty-eight

Looking for Perfect Cubes

A perfect cube is a number you get by multiplying a whole number by itself three times. Let's look at the smallest perfect cubes:

One times one times one equals One (This is the first term, but the question is looking for a term greater than this baseline).

Two times two times two equals Eight (This number does not show up in our sequence).

Three times three times three equals Twenty-seven (This number does not show up in our sequence).

Four times four times four equals Sixty-four.

Instead of writing out the list all the way to sixty-four, we can use a clever shortcut based on the pattern of our sequence.

Every number in this sequence, when divided by three, leaves a remainder of one. For example:

Four divided by three is one, with a remainder of one.

Seven divided by three is two, with a remainder of one.

Let's check our perfect cubes to see which one fits this "remainder of one" rule:

Eight divided by three leaves a remainder of two (Does not fit).

Twenty-seven divided by three leaves no remainder (Does not fit).

Sixty-four divided by three is twenty-one, with a remainder of one!

This tells us that sixty-four is definitely a milestone number in our sequence.

Finding the Position of Sixty-Four

Now we just need to find which position sixty-four holds.

We know the first term is one. To get from one to sixty-four, we need to add a total value of sixty-three. Since we add three to move forward each step, we divide sixty-three by three to find out how many steps we need to take. Sixty-three divided by three is twenty-one steps.

If we start at the first term and take twenty-one steps forward, we arrive at the twenty-second term.

Re-evaluating the Choices

Since the twenty-second term is not listed in the multiple-choice options, let's re-read the cutoff question. If the question meant to ask for a perfect square instead of a perfect cube, let's look at the perfect squares in our list:

One is the first term.

Four is the second term (and four is a perfect square, since two times two is four).

If the missing text was "greater than one" and meant to target the perfect square four, then the second term fits perfectly. Given the provided options, the second term is the only early milestone that stands out as a special number power.

The correct option is (A) 2nd.

2025 Prelims Maths

In which of these cases can a cube and a cuboid be joined together to form a cuboid?

A A cube of side length 6 cm and a cuboid of dimensions 4 cm × 5 cm × 6 cm

B A cube of side length 6 cm and a cuboid of dimensions 4 cm × 5 cm × 5 cm

C A cube of side length 5 cm and a cuboid of dimensions 4 cm × 5 cm × 5 cm

D A cube of side length 5 cm and a cuboid of dimensions 4 cm × 5 cm × 6 cm

Correct Answer: Option D

To join a cube and a cuboid together to form one larger, seamless cuboid, the faces that touch each other must match perfectly in size.

A cube has the same length, width, and height. This means every single face of the cube is a perfect square with sides equal to its given length.

For a cuboid to attach seamlessly to one of these square faces, at least one of the faces on the cuboid must match those exact same square dimensions. In other words, two of the cuboid's dimensions must be exactly equal to the side length of the cube.

Evaluating the Options

Case A: The cube has sides of 6 cm by 6 cm. The cuboid's dimensions are 4 cm by 5 cm by 6 cm. The cuboid does not have two dimensions that are 6 cm, so it cannot form a perfect match.

Case B: The cube has sides of 6 cm by 6 cm. The cuboid's dimensions are 4 cm by 5 cm by 5 cm. None of the cuboid's measurements match the 6 cm requirement.

Case C: The cube has sides of 5 cm by 5 cm, meaning its faces are 5 cm by 5 cm squares. The cuboid has dimensions of 4 cm by 5 cm by 5 cm. This cuboid has a face that is exactly 5 cm by 5 cm. If you press these two matching faces together, they will align perfectly and extend the length to form a single new cuboid.

Case D: The cube has sides of 5 cm by 5 cm. The cuboid's dimensions are 4 cm by 5 cm by 6 cm. The cuboid only has one dimension that is 5 cm, so it does not have a matching square face.

Conclusion

The only pair that can attach seamlessly is the one where the cuboid shares two dimensions with the cube.

The correct option is (C).

2025 Prelims Maths

Twice the number of marbles and thrice the number of coins with Raghav are 70. If Raghav has at least one marble and at least one coin, then which of these could be the number of coins that Raghav has?

A 11

B 12

C 13

D 15

Correct Answer: Option D

To find the possible number of coins Raghav has, we can set up a simple word problem based on the information provided.

Twice the number of marbles plus three times the number of coins equals seventy.

We are also told that Raghav has at least one marble and at least one coin. Because you cannot have a fraction of a marble or a coin, both amounts must be whole numbers.

The Step-by-Step Logic

If we want to find out how many marbles Raghav has based on his coins, we subtract three times the number of coins from seventy, and then divide that remainder by two.

For the number of marbles to come out as a clean whole number, the amount we divide by two must be an even number.

Seventy is already an even number.

Subtracting an odd number from an even number results in an odd number (which cannot be cleanly divided by two).

Therefore, three times the number of coins must result in an even number.

For three times the number of coins to be even, the number of coins itself must be an even number.

Testing the Options

Let's look at the choices provided:

(A) Eleven — Odd

(B) Twelve — Even

(D) Fifteen — Odd

Since twelve is the only even option, let's double-check it:

If Raghav has twelve coins, three times that amount is thirty-six.

Subtracting thirty-six from seventy leaves us with thirty-four.

Dividing thirty-four by two gives us seventeen marbles.

Since seventeen is a valid whole number, this works out perfectly.

Conclusion

The correct option is (B) 12.

2025 Prelims Maths

A cycle has a marked price of Rs. 15,000. It is sold at a discount of p%. Even after this discount, a profit of p% is earned. Find the value of p if cost price of cycle is Rs. 10,000.

A 10%

B 20%

C 30%

D 33%

Correct Answer: Option B

Step-by-Step Explanation

We can solve this problem by finding the selling price in two different ways: first through the cost price and profit, and second through the marked price and discount.

Step 1: Express the selling price using the cost price and profit

The cost price of the cycle is 10,000 rupees.

The profit earned is p percent.

To find the selling price, we take the cost price and add the profit amount. The profit amount is found by multiplying the cost price (10,000) by p percent (p divided by 100), which simplifies to 100 times p.

Therefore, the selling price equals 10,000 plus 100 times p.

Step 2: Express the selling price using the marked price and discount

The marked price of the cycle is 15,000 rupees.

The discount given is p percent.

To find the selling price this way, we take the marked price and subtract the discount amount. The discount amount is found by multiplying the marked price (15,000) by p percent (p divided by 100), which simplifies to 150 times p.

Therefore, the selling price also equals 15,000 minus 150 times p.

Step 3: Combine and solve for p

Since both expressions represent the exact same selling price, they must be equal to each other:

10,000 plus 100 times p equals 15,000 minus 150 times p.

Now, we bring all the terms with p to one side by adding 150 times p to both sides:

10,000 plus 250 times p equals 15,000.

Next, we subtract 10,000 from both sides to isolate the p term:

250 times p equals 5,000.

Finally, we divide 5,000 by 250 to find the value of p:

p equals 20.

Thus, the value of p is 20%.

2025 Prelims Maths

The probability of occurrence of heads on a biased coin is twice the probability of occurrence of tails. What is the probability of occurrence of tails when this coin is tossed?

B 1/3

C 2/3

D 3/4

Correct Answer: Option B

Step-by-Step Explanation

Step 1: Understand the total probability

When you toss a coin, there are only two possible outcomes: it must land on either heads or tails. Therefore, the probability of getting heads plus the probability of getting tails must always equal 1 (representing a one hundred percent certainty that one of the two will happen).

Step 2: Use the relationship between heads and tails

The problem states that the probability of getting heads is twice as much as the probability of getting tails.

Imagine dividing the total probability into equal parts or shares:

The probability of getting tails gets 1 share.

The probability of getting heads is twice that amount, so it gets 2 shares.

Step 3: Calculate the probability of tails

Together, the total number of shares is 3 (1 share for tails plus 2 shares for heads).

Since the total probability of 1 is split into 3 equal shares, each share is worth 1/3.

Because the occurrence of tails represents exactly 1 of those shares, the probability of getting tails is 1/3.

(Correspondingly, the probability of getting heads would be 2/3, which is exactly twice the probability of tails).

2025 Prelims Maths

A sequence of natural numbers, every term is 6 more than twice the previous term. Which one of the following is true about this sequence?

A Except first term, each term of this sequence will always be odd

B Except first term, each term of this sequence will always be even

C Each term of this sequence will always be odd

D Each term of this sequence will always be even

Correct Answer: Option B

Step-by-Step Explanation

Let us break down the rule for generating the next term in the sequence: "6 more than twice the previous term."

Analyze "twice the previous term": No matter what the previous number is (whether it is odd or even), multiplying it by 2 will always result in an even number.

Analyze "6 more than": Adding 6 (which is an even number) to that result means you are adding an even number to an even number.

The Rule of Addition: An even number plus an even number always equals an even number.

Why Option B is correct instead of Option D

The rule only applies to how a term is generated from the previous term. It does not dictate what the very first term has to be.

If the first term happens to be an odd number (like 3):

The second term will be 2 times 3 plus 6, which equals 12 (even).

The third term will be 2 times 12 plus 6, which equals 30 (even).

In this case, the first term is odd, but every single term after it is even.

If the first term happens to be an even number (like 4):

The second term will be 2 times 4 plus 6, which equals 14 (even).

In this case, every term (including the first) is even.

Because the first term can be odd, we cannot say that "each term" (which includes the first term) will always be even. However, we can absolutely guarantee that except for the first term, every single subsequent term will always be even.

2025 Prelims Maths

A spherical shell with inner radius 20 units and outer radius 30 units is molten and reformed into 100 identical cubes. What will be the side length of each cube?

A 2.53 units

B 2.64 units

C 2.76 units

D 2.92 units

Correct Answer: Option D

The correct answer is (D) 2.92 units.

Step-by-Step Explanation

To find the side length of the cubes, we need to calculate the volume of the material in the hollow spherical shell and then divide that volume equally among the 100 cubes.

Step 1: Find the volume of the spherical shell

The volume of a sphere is found by multiplying 4/3 by pi (approximately 3.14159) and then multiplying by the radius cubed (the radius multiplied by itself three times).

To find the volume of just the shell, we take the volume of the outer sphere and subtract the volume of the inner sphere.

The outer radius is 30, and 30 cubed (30 times 30 times 30) is 27,000.

The inner radius is 20, and 20 cubed (20 times 20 times 20) is 8,000.

The difference between them is 27,000 minus 8,000, which equals 19,000.

Now, we complete the volume calculation for the shell:

4/3 multiplied by pi multiplied by 19,000 is approximately 79,587.01 cubic units.

Step 2: Find the volume of a single cube

Since this total volume is melted down and reshaped into 100 identical cubes, we divide the total shell volume by 100:

79,587.01 divided by 100 equals approximately 795.87 cubic units per cube.

Step 3: Calculate the side length of the cube

The volume of a cube is equal to its side length cubed (side times side times side). To find the individual side length, we need to find the cube root of 795.87 (the number that, when multiplied by itself three times, equals 795.87).

The cube root of 795.87 is approximately 2.92 units.

2025 Prelims Maths

An arithmetic progression with first term 19 has sum of its first 20 terms as 2280. What will be the sum of its first 30 terms if the common difference is doubled?

A 8120

B 8625

C 8685

D 9270

Correct Answer: Option C

Step-by-Step Explanation

Step 1: Find the original common difference

An arithmetic progression is a sequence of numbers where the difference between consecutive terms is constant. We are given:

The first term is 19.

The sum of the first 20 terms is 2280.

The standard formula for the sum of an arithmetic progression can be thought of as: the number of terms divided by 2, multiplied by the sum of twice the first term and the number of terms minus 1 times the common difference.

Applying this to our first scenario:

20 terms divided by 2 is 10.

Twice the first term is 38 (2 times 19).

The number of terms minus 1 is 19 (20 minus 1).

So, 10 multiplied by the quantity (38 plus 19 times the common difference) equals 2280.

If we divide both sides by 10, we get:

38 plus 19 times the common difference equals 2288 divided by 10, which is 228.

Subtract 38 from both sides:

19 times the common difference equals 190.

Divide by 19:

The original common difference is 10.

Step 2: Calculate the new sum with the doubled common difference

Now, the problem states the common difference is doubled, and we need the sum of the first 30 terms:

The first term remains 19.

The new common difference is 20 (2 times 10).

The number of terms is now 30.

Let us use the sum logic again:

30 terms divided by 2 is 15.

Twice the first term is still 38.

The new number of terms minus 1 is 29 (30 minus 1).

29 times the new common difference (20) equals 580.

Now, add twice the first term and this new value together:

38 plus 580 equals 618.

Finally, multiply this result by 15 (which was 30 terms divided by 2):

15 times 618 equals 8685.

2025 Prelims Maths

Mohan, Lata and Sudha are taking the SAT exam. The probabilities that Mohan, Lata and Sudha will pass the exam are 1/3, 2/5 and 3/4, respectively. What is the probability that exactly one of them will pass the exam?

A 1/20

B 5/12

C 7/12

D 3/4

Correct Answer: Option B

To find the probability that exactly one of them passes, we need to calculate three separate possibilities:

Mohan passes, while Lata and Sudha fail.

Lata passes, while Mohan and Sudha fail.

Sudha passes, while Mohan and Lata fail.

First, let us find the probability of each person failing by subtracting their passing probability from 1:

Probability that Mohan fails: 2/3

Probability that Lata fails: 3/5

Probability that Sudha fails: 1/4

Now, we calculate the probability for each of the three scenarios:

Scenario 1: Only Mohan passes

Multiply Mohan passing (1/3) by Lata failing (3/5) by Sudha failing (1/4).

1/3 times 3/5 times 1/4 equals 3/60.

Scenario 2: Only Lata passes

Multiply Mohan failing (2/3) by Lata passing (2/5) by Sudha failing (1/4).

2/3 times 2/5 times 1/4 equals 4/60.

Scenario 3: Only Sudha passes

Multiply Mohan failing (2/3) by Lata failing (3/5) by Sudha passing (3/4).

2/3 times 3/5 times 3/4 equals 18/60.

Total Probability

Finally, add the probabilities of these three independent scenarios together:

3/60 plus 4/60 plus 18/60 equals 25/60.

When we reduce the fraction 25/60 by dividing the top and bottom by 5, we get 5/12.

J&K 1 questions

2025 Prelims J&K Geography

Which town is located near the temple of Vaishno Devi?

A Katra

B Poonch

C Bandipora

D Sopore

Correct Answer: Option A

Katra (also known as Katra Vaishno Devi) is a small town nestled in the foothills of the Trikuta Mountains in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir. It serves as the base camp for the lakhs of pilgrims who undertake the 12-km trek up to the holy cave temple of Mata Vaishno Devi every year.

To give you an idea of where the other options are located:

Poonch: A border town and district in the Jammu division, located far to the west of Katra.

Bandipora & Sopore: Both are towns located in the Kashmir Valley division, far north of the Jammu region.

Polity 19 questions

2025 Prelims Polity J&K

Who was the last Dogra ruler of Jammu And Kashmir State?

A Hari Singh

B Shah Mir

C Lalitaditya

D Ranjit Singh

Correct Answer: Option A

Maharaja Hari Singh was the fourth and final ruling monarch of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir under the Dogra dynasty. He ascended the throne in 1925 and was the ruler during India's independence in 1947. He is famously known for signing the Instrument of Accession on October 26, 1947, which officially merged Jammu and Kashmir with the Dominion of India.

Here is a quick look at the other options for context:

Shah Mir: The founder of the Shah Mir dynasty and the first Muslim ruler of Kashmir (14th century).

Lalitaditya: A powerful emperor of the Karkota dynasty of Kashmir (8th century), famous for building the Martand Sun Temple.

Ranjit Singh: The legendary founder and Maharaja of the Sikh Empire (19th century).

2025 Prelims Polity J&K

Which clause of Article 370 gives power to the President to declare that Article 370 shall cease to be operative?

A Clause 13

B Clause 23

C Clause 3

D Clause 33

Correct Answer: Option C

Article 370(3) of the Indian Constitution gave the President of India the power to declare, by public notification, that the article would cease to be operative, or would be operative only with such exceptions and modifications as specified. However, this power was conditional upon the recommendation of the Constituent Assembly of the State of Jammu and Kashmir.

This clause was central to the legal mechanisms used by the Government of India in August 2019 to effectively abrogate the special status of Jammu and Kashmir.

2025 Prelims Polity

Who among the following was the 29th Indian Chief Justice?

A Ayaz Mughal

B Omar Abdullah

C Allah Rakha

D Adarsh Sein Anand

Correct Answer: Option D

Justice Dr. Adarsh Sein Anand served as the 29th Chief Justice of India (CJI) from October 10, 1998, until his retirement on November 1, 2001. He was known for his landmark judgments regarding human rights and custodial safety (most notably in the D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal case) and later served as the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC).

2025 Prelims Polity

What is the current total number of seats in the Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly?

A 111

B 46

C 85

D 90

Correct Answer: Option D

Following the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act and the subsequent Delimitation Commission report, the total number of contestable seats (where elections are actually held) in the Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly was increased from 83 to 90 (with 47 seats allocated to the Kashmir division and 43 to the Jammu division). (Note: While the overall statutory framework mentions 114 total seats, 24 of those seats are officially reserved for Pakistan-administered Kashmir and remain vacant, making 90 the active, contestable total for the assembly elections).

2025 Prelims Polity

When was the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) established?

A 1954

B 1957

C 1958

D 1974

Correct Answer: Option B

The Establishment: The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) was officially created on July 29, 1957.

The Background: Its creation was largely inspired by U.S. President Dwight D. Eisenhower's famous "Atoms for Peace" speech delivered to the UN General Assembly in 1953, which envisioned an international body to both control and promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy.

The Headquarters: It is headquartered in Vienna, Austria.

2025 Prelims Polity

The Jammu and Kashmir government has imposed water usage charges on all major and medium hydroelectric projects in the state to

A Control wastage of water

B Let its people realize the importance of underground water

C Make an attempt to control water pollution

D Take a first step towards its economic self-reliance

Correct Answer: Option D

Context and Objectives of the Decision:

The policy was enacted via the Jammu and Kashmir Water Resources (Regulation and Management) Act, 2010.

Revenue Generation: Jammu and Kashmir is highly rich in hydro-power potential. By levying a water usage charge (often referred to as a water cess) on central and private power generation utilities (like the NHPC), the government created a significant and recurring stream of internal revenue.

Economic Self-Reliance: Historically, the region relied heavily on central financial assistance. Converting its abundant natural water resources into a regulated financial asset allowed the local government to collect thousands of crores in revenue, making a major structural stride toward fiscal autonomy and economic self-reliance.

Development Fund: The money collected from these water charges is specifically allocated to a dedicated fund used for building new state-owned hydel projects, buying back old power stations, and improving local infrastructure.

2025 Prelims Polity

The Fundamental Duties of India was inspired by which of the following constitution?

A Erstwhile USSR

B Switzerland

C Japan

D China

Correct Answer: Option A

Key Facts About Fundamental Duties

The Origin: The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens were inspired by the constitution of the former Soviet Union (USSR). Interestingly, none of the major Western democracies (like the US, Canada, or Australia) originally contained a comprehensive list of duties for their citizens.

The Addition: They were not part of the original Constitution of India adopted in 1950. They were added later by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.

The Committee: This inclusion was recommended by the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee, which was set up to look into the necessity of fundamental duties during the national emergency.

Current Status: Initially, 10 duties were added to Part IV-A under Article 51A. Later, an 11th duty (regarding the education of children between 6-14 years) was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act in 2002.

2025 Prelims Polity

Which of these is INCORRECT with reference to election campaigns in India?

A Government provides resources for election campaign

B No party or candidate can bribe or threaten voters

C No party or candidate can use any place of worship for election propaganda

D Once elections are announced, ministers shall not lay foundation stones of any projects or make any promises to voters

Correct Answer: Option A

Why this is the correct answer:

No State Funding: In India, the government does not provide financial resources, vehicles, or campaign materials to political parties or candidates for their election campaigns. Parties and candidates must fund their own campaigns within the legal expenditure limits set by the Election Commission of India (ECI).

The Model Code of Conduct (MCC): Statements (B), (C), and (D) are all actual, strict rules enforced by the ECI under the Model Code of Conduct and the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Breakdown of the correct rules:

Bribing/Threatening (B): This is a corrupt practice and a criminal offense.

Places of Worship (C): Using temples, mosques, churches, or any other religious places for election propaganda is strictly prohibited to maintain communal harmony.

Policy/Project Announcements (D): Once the election dates are announced, the MCC comes into immediate effect. Ministers and the ruling party are barred from announcing new projects, laying foundation stones, or making policy promises that could give them an unfair advantage.

2025 Prelims Polity

Which system is followed for Rajya Sabha elections in India?

A Single Transferable Vote system

B Round Robin Representation

C First Past the Post System

D Direct Voting System

Correct Answer: Option A

The elections to the Rajya Sabha (the Council of States or the Upper House of India's Parliament) are conducted using an indirect election method known as Proportional Representation by means of the Single Transferable Vote (PR-STV).

How it works: The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies (MLAs), rather than directly by the public. Instead of voting for just a single candidate, each MLA marks their preferences (1st preference, 2nd preference, 3rd preference, etc.) on the ballot paper.

A candidate needs a specific quota of votes to win. If a candidate secures enough first-preference votes to meet the quota, they are elected, and their surplus votes are transferred to the next preferred candidates.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B) Round Robin Representation: This is a tournament format used in sports (where every contestant faces all others in turn), not an electoral system.

(C) First Past the Post System (FPTP): This is the system used for Lok Sabha (Lower House) and State Legislative Assembly elections in India, where the candidate with the highest number of votes wins, even if they don't get an absolute majority.

(D) Direct Voting System: Rajya Sabha elections are indirect. The general public does not vote directly for Rajya Sabha MPs; our elected MLAs do.

2025 Prelims Polity

The electoral college that elects the President consists of which of the following?

A Elected members of the two Houses of Parliament, Members of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Councils of all the states

B Only the members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

C Elected members of the two Houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of the States only

D Members of the Cabinet

Correct Answer: Option C

The President of India is not elected directly by the people, but rather indirectly by an Electoral College. According to Article 54 of the Indian Constitution, this Electoral College consists of:

The elected members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha).

The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan Sabhas) of the States (including the National Capital Territory of Delhi, the Union Territory of Puducherry, and Jammu & Kashmir).

Crucial Exclusions (Why other options are incorrect):

Nominated Members: Nominated members of both the Parliament (like those formerly nominated to the Lok Sabha or currently in the Rajya Sabha) and the State Assemblies cannot vote in the presidential election.

Legislative Councils (Vidhan Parishads): Members of the State Legislative Councils (the upper house in bicameral state legislatures) are completely excluded from the Electoral College. This is why Option (A) is incorrect.

Option (B) is incorrect because it excludes the state assemblies, and Option (D) is incorrect because the Cabinet is just a small subset of the ruling government.

2025 Prelims Polity

Which of these is a reason for India to be the permanent member of the security council?

A It can solve India’s troubled relationship with Pakistan

B It becomes easier for India to suppress its insurgents

C It helps to increase nuclear capabilities

D The power helps India to be influential in its foreign affairs

Correct Answer: Option D

India has been a strong contender for a permanent seat in a reformed United Nations Security Council (UNSC).

Why (D) is correct: Achieving permanent membership (alongside the veto power) would fundamentally elevate India's geopolitical status. It would allow India to directly shape global security policies, participate in international decision-making at the highest level, and effectively protect and project its national interests in global foreign affairs.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Solving the relationship with Pakistan: Bilateral issues between India and Pakistan cannot be automatically resolved by UNSC membership. In fact, India's official stance has consistently been that disputes with Pakistan should be resolved bilaterally (as per the Shimla Agreement) without external or UN interference.

(B) Suppressing insurgents: Dealing with internal insurgencies is a domestic law-and-order and internal security matter. The UNSC does not intervene in a country's internal policing or counter-insurgency operations.

(C) Increasing nuclear capabilities: India's nuclear program is managed independently through its national strategic policies and agreements (like the civil nuclear deals), and is not dependent on or governed by permanent membership in the UNSC.

2025 Prelims Polity

Who accords recognition to election symbols in India?

A The candidate who opts for the symbol

B The Election Commission of India

C The party leader

D Party workers vote for the symbol

Correct Answer: Option B

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering election processes in India.

Under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the ECI is the sole authority vested with the power to specify, allocate, and recognize election symbols for both National and State political parties, as well as independent candidates.

The ECI also resolves disputes regarding symbol claims when a political party splits.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A), (C), and (D): While candidates, party leaders, and workers can choose, design, or request a specific symbol from the available pool of free symbols, they do not have the legal authority to officially "accord recognition" or reserve a symbol. That power rests exclusively with the Election Commission to prevent confusion and maintain order during elections.

2025 Prelims Polity

Which of the following is a disadvantage of Universal Adult Franchise?

A It allows women to vote

B Illiterate voters will be misled easily

C It allows people from every social background to vote in an election

D Economic status of the voter is not considered during elections

Correct Answer: Option B

Universal Adult Franchise (or Universal Adult Suffrage) means that all adult citizens, regardless of their wealth, income, gender, social status, race, or ethnicity, have the right to vote. While it is the cornerstone of a true democracy, critics often point out certain practical challenges:

Why (B) is considered a disadvantage: In regions with high illiteracy or lack of political awareness, critics argue that voters can be easily manipulated, misled, or bribed by populist promises, emotional propaganda, or charismatic leaders. This can sometimes lead to voting decisions that are not based on rational or well-informed policy assessments.

Why the other options are incorrect:

Options (A), (C), and (D) represent the core advantages and democratic principles of Universal Adult Franchise:

(A) It allows women to vote: This promotes gender equality and ensures inclusivity.

(C) It allows people from every social background to vote: This prevents the political domination of any single group or caste and ensures equal representation.

(D) Economic status is not considered: This establishes political equality, ensuring that the vote of a poor person has the exact same value as the vote of a wealthy billionaire.

2025 Prelims Polity

Which one of the following is NOT in the list of languages recognised by the Indian Constitution?

A English

B Bodo

C Maithili

D Urdu

Correct Answer: Option A

The languages recognized by the Government of India are listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

Currently, there are 22 languages included in this schedule.

Interestingly, English is NOT one of the 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule, even though it is widely used for official work and judicial proceedings in India. Instead, it is treated as a subsidiary official language under the Official Languages Act.

Status of the other options:

The other three options are officially recognized languages under the Eighth Schedule:

(B) Bodo: Added by the 92nd Amendment Act in 2003.

(D) Urdu: One of the original 14 languages included when the Constitution was enacted.

2025 Prelims Polity

What is true with reference to Public Opinion in Indian democracy?

A Individuals will not interfere in politics

B Each vote counts, so poor people can earn some money selling their votes

C Press will uphold the interests of the people of a particular region

D Keeps the government alert towards the rights and liberties of the people

Correct Answer: Option D

Public opinion refers to the collective views, attitudes, and beliefs of citizens on political and social issues. In a robust democracy like India, it acts as a critical check and balance on the ruling power.

Why (D) is correct: A strong, informed public opinion ensures that the government does not become authoritarian. It forces elected representatives to remain accountable, transparent, and respectful of citizens' fundamental rights and personal liberties, knowing they can be voted out in the next election.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Individuals will not interfere in politics: In a democracy, public opinion is built on active citizen participation. People influence politics through discussions, protests, and voting.

(B) Selling votes: Selling or buying votes is an illegal and corrupt practice under Indian law (Representation of the People Act). It undermines the democratic process rather than strengthening it.

(C) Press favoring a particular region: The ideal role of the press (the fourth pillar of democracy) is to remain unbiased, objective, and represent the interests of the entire nation, rather than promoting regionalism or favoring only one group.

2025 Prelims Polity

Which one of the following Directive Principles of State Policy reflects the Gandhian Policy?

A Promote international peace and security

B Make efforts to raise the standard of living and public health

C Promotion of cottage industries in rural areas

D Protect the historical monuments

Correct Answer: Option C

The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs), enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, are broad guidelines for the government. While the Constitution does not formally classify them, they are traditionally divided into three categories based on their vision and philosophy: Socialistic, Gandhian, and Liberal-Intellectual.

The Gandhian Principles represent the program of reconstruction enunciated by Mahatma Gandhi during the national movement.

Article 43 of the Constitution directs the State to endeavor to promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operative basis in rural areas, which was a core part of Gandhi's vision for self-reliant villages (Gram Swaraj).

Classification of the other options:

(A) Promote international peace and security: This falls under Liberal-Intellectual Principles (Article 51).

(B) Make efforts to raise the standard of living and public health: This primarily falls under Socialistic Principles (Article 47).

(D) Protect the historical monuments: This falls under Liberal-Intellectual Principles (Article 49).

2025 Prelims Polity

Which fundamental right is violated when a 12-year-old girl works as a full time house maid?

A Cultural and Educational Rights

B Right to Freedom

C Right against Exploitation

D Right to Equality

Correct Answer: Option C

Explanation

The Right against Exploitation (enshrined in Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution) specifically aims to protect vulnerable individuals from being misused or forced into labor.

Article 24 of the Constitution explicitly prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine, or other hazardous employment.

Amendments over the years (such as the Child Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act) have expanded this to ban the employment of children under 14 in all occupations, including domestic work (like working as a full-time house maid).

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Cultural and Educational Rights: While a 12-year-old working full-time is deprived of her education (which also links to Article 21A - Right to Education), the direct constitutional act of employing a minor for labor falls under exploitation.

(B) Right to Freedom: This covers freedom of speech, assembly, and movement, rather than child labor regulations.

(D) Right to Equality: This ensures equal treatment before the law and prohibits discrimination, which is not the primary violation in this scenario.

2025 Prelims Polity

Which of the statements is FALSE with respect to the Municipal Council?

A The 74th Constitutional Amendment brought about significant changes in the structure and functioning of urban local government

B State Finance Commissions reviews the financial position of municipalities once in every 5 years

C The Councillors of Municipal Corporations are elected for 3 years

D The Chief Executive Officer is appointed by the state government

Correct Answer: Option C

Why this statement is FALSE:

According to the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, the standard tenure for all urban local bodies—including Municipal Corporations, Municipal Councils, and Nagar Panchayats—is 5 years from the date of their first meeting, not 3 years. Councillors are elected by the public to serve this 5-year term. If a municipality is dissolved before its 5-year term expires, fresh elections must be held within 6 months.

Why the other options are CORRECT (True Facts):

(A) The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (1992): This landmark amendment constitutionalized urban local governments by adding Part IXA and the 12th Schedule to the Indian Constitution, completely revamping their structure, powers, and functions.

(B) State Finance Commissions: Under Article 243Y of the Constitution, the Governor of a state must constitute a State Finance Commission every 5 years to review the financial position of the municipalities and recommend principles for devolving taxes and grants-in-aid.

(C) Chief Executive Officer (CEO) / Municipal Commissioner: While the political representatives (Councillors/Mayor) are elected by the people, the executive arm is headed by a government official (often an IAS officer or state civil service officer) who is directly appointed by the state government to implement decisions.

2025 Prelims Polity

Indian democracy comes under which of the following divisions?

A Direct democracy

B Monarchical democracy

C Participatory democracy

D Liberal (representative) democracy

Correct Answer: Option D

Detailed Analysis

Why it fits India: India is a representative democracy because citizens do not vote on laws directly; instead, they elect representatives (Members of Parliament and Members of Legislative Assemblies) to make laws and govern on their behalf. It is liberal because it operates under a constitution that protects individual fundamental rights, ensures the rule of law, maintains an independent judiciary, and features a multi-party system with regular, free, and fair elections.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Direct democracy: In a direct democracy, citizens vote directly on laws and policies (using tools like referendums and initiatives), such as in Switzerland. Because of India's massive population and geographic scale, direct democracy at a national level is logistically impossible.

(B) Monarchical democracy: This is a contradiction in terms for India. India is a Republic, meaning the Head of State (the President) is elected, not a hereditary monarch.

(C) Participatory democracy: While India has elements of this at the grassroots level (like the Gram Sabhas in local Panchayats where villagers meet directly), the overarching national and state-level structure of the country is strictly representative.

Geography 18 questions

2025 Prelims Geography

Which among the following is known as the “Valley of Shepherds”?

A Pahalgam

B Uttakhand

C Dzukou

D Sharavathi

Correct Answer: Option A

In the local language, Pahalgam translates to "Valley of Shepherds" (Puhal = Shepherd, Gam = Village). It is a scenic town and a famous hill station located in the Anantnag district of Jammu and Kashmir, situated on the banks of the Lidder River.

2025 Prelims Geography

Which temple occupies the top of the hills known as Takht-i-Sulaiman in the south-east of Srinagar?

A Kheer Bhawani

B Raghunath Temple

C Shankaracharya Temple

D Sun Temple

Correct Answer: Option C

The Shankaracharya Temple is an ancient Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva, situated on top of the Shankaracharya Hill (historically and locally also known as Takht-i-Sulaiman or "Throne of Solomon") in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. The temple sits at a height of about 1,100 feet above the valley floor and offers a panoramic view of Srinagar city and Dal Lake.

2025 Prelims Geography

Which among the following is known as “Meadow of Gold”?

A Katra

B Drass

C Leh

D Sonmarg

Correct Answer: Option D

In the Kashmiri language, Sonmarg literally translates to "Meadow of Gold" (Sone = Gold, Marg = Meadow). It is a famous hill station in the Ganderbal district of Jammu and Kashmir, known for its breathtaking alpine meadows, snow-clad peaks, and proximity to the Thajiwas Glacier.

2025 Prelims Geography

The Sind Valley Hydro-Electric Project is located on the banks of the

A Vishwamitri River

B Krishna River

C Gomti River

D Nullah Sind River

Correct Answer: Option D

The Sind Valley Hydro-Electric Project (often associated with the Upper Sindh Hydroelectric Project) is located in the Ganderbal district of Jammu and Kashmir. It utilizes the water of the Nullah Sind (or Sind River), which is a major tributary of the Jhelum River.

2025 Prelims Geography

Which of the following states produces maximum saffron annually in India?

A Gujarat

B Kashmir

C Sikkim

D Jharkhand

Correct Answer: Option B

Kashmir is renowned globally for its high-quality saffron (Crocus sativus), particularly grown in the Pampore region, which is often referred to as the "Saffron Bowl of India."

2025 Prelims Geography

Which of the following is the largest fresh water lake?

A Dal

B Wular

C Sambhar

D Chilika

Correct Answer: Option B

Wular Lake (B): The largest freshwater lake in India.

Chilika Lake (D): The largest brackish water (salty) lagoon in India.

Sambhar Lake (C): India's largest inland salt lake (located in Rajasthan).

Dal Lake (A): A famous freshwater lake in Srinagar, but much smaller than Wular.

2025 Prelims Geography

Dachigam National Park is famous for which endangered species?

A White tiger

B Hangul

C Hispid Hare

D Banteng

Correct Answer: Option B

About the Hangul: The Hangul, also known as the Kashmir Stag (Cervus elaphus hanglu), is a critically endangered subspecies of elk native to India. It is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir.

The Habitat: Dachigam National Park, located just outside Srinagar, is the absolute last viable stronghold and refuge for this beautiful deer species in the wild. Its population has faced severe threats over the decades due to habitat fragmentation, overgrazing by domestic livestock, and poaching.

2025 Prelims Geography

After fruit production, what is the largest activity in the state of Kashmir?

A Rice Cultivation

B Millet Cultivation

C Saffron Cultivation

D Cotton Cultivation

Correct Answer: Option C

The Economic Importance: Horticulture (fruit production) is the largest and most dominant component of Kashmir's agricultural economy, primarily driven by apples and walnuts. Right after fruit production, saffron cultivation stands as the second largest commercial and cash-crop industry in the region.

The "Red Gold": Kashmiri saffron is famous globally for its high quality, distinct aroma, and deep color. It is primarily grown in the unique highland soils known as Karewas, with the town of Pampore being the main hub of its cultivation.

2025 Prelims Geography

Where is the statue of Christ the Redeemer situated?

A Peru

B Chile

C Mexico

D Brazil

Correct Answer: Option D

The Location: The iconic statue of Christ the Redeemer (Cristo Redentor) is located at the summit of Mount Corcovado in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.

About the Statue: Completed in 1931, it stands 30 meters (98 feet) tall, excluding its 8-meter pedestal. It is made of reinforced concrete and soapstone and was named one of the New Seven Wonders of the World in 2007.

2025 Prelims Geography

Which of the following is an INCORRECT match?

A Tarapur Atomic Power Station – Maharashtra

B Kaiga generating Station – Karnataka

C Kandanakulam Atomic Power Project – Tamil nadu

D Narora Atomic Power Station – Gujarat

Correct Answer: Option D

The Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS) is actually located in Narora, Bulandshahar district in the state of Uttar Pradesh, not Gujarat. (Gujarat is home to the Kakrapar Atomic Power Station). Note: Option (C) mentions "Kandanakulam", which is a common alternate spelling/typo for the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant located in Tamil Nadu.

2025 Prelims Geography

Which state in India has made building rainwater harvesting structures in every house compulsory?

A Karnataka

B Gujarat

C Tamil Nadu

D Rajasthan

Correct Answer: Option C

In 2001, Tamil Nadu became the first state in India to make rainwater harvesting (RWH) compulsory for all buildings. The initiative was launched to check groundwater depletion and manage water scarcity, particularly in urban areas like Chennai.

2025 Prelims Geography

The South Pole experiences continuous light during the

A Summer Solstice

B Winter Solstice

C Vernal Equinox

D Autumnal Equinox

Correct Answer: Option B

Why this happens:

The Earth rotates on an axis that is tilted at an angle of 23.5

∘

relative to its orbital plane. As the Earth orbits the Sun, this tilt causes different parts of the planet to receive varying amounts of sunlight throughout the year.

During the December Solstice (Northern Winter / Southern Summer): The Southern Hemisphere is tilted directly toward the Sun. The entire region south of the Antarctic Circle (66.5

∘

S), including the South Pole, remains in the sunlit half of the Earth as it rotates, resulting in continuous light (the "Midnight Sun").

Conversely: During the Summer Solstice (June 21–22, Northern Summer), the South Pole is tilted completely away from the Sun, experiencing continuous darkness. During the Equinoxes (March and September), day and night are roughly equal everywhere on Earth.

2025 Prelims Geography

Which is the deepest land-locked and protected port along the east coast of India?

A Chennai

B Kandla

C Marna Goa

D Visakhapatnam

Correct Answer: Option D

Key Features of Visakhapatnam Port:

Land-locked and Protected: The port is surrounded by land on three sides, making it a naturally protected harbor. It is shielded from fierce sea storms and cyclones by a high hill range known as Dolphin's Nose on its southern side.

Deepest Port: It is famously recognized as one of the deepest ports in India, capable of handling massive cargo vessels and oil tankers.

Why the other options are incorrect:

Chennai (A): Located on the east coast, but it is an artificial, open-sea harbor and is not land-locked.

Kandla (B): Located on the west coast (Gujarat). It is a tidal port.

Marmagao / Marna Goa (C): Located on the west coast (Goas) at the entrance of the Zuari estuary.

2025 Prelims Geography

Which one of the following ports was constructed to reduce the congestion at Kolkata port?

A Tuticorin

B Haldia Port

C Paradwip Port

D Visakhapatnam Port

Correct Answer: Option B

Context and Objectives of the Port:

Relieving Congestion: Haldia Port was developed as a subsidiary or twin port to the Kolkata Port (Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port) to handle heavy bulk cargo and larger vessels, effectively reducing the intense traffic and congestion at Kolkata.

Overcoming Natural Limitations: Kolkata Port is a riverine port located on the Hooghly River, which suffers from severe siltation, restricting the entry of modern, deep-draft ships. Haldia was built further downstream where the river is wider and deeper, allowing it to handle larger oil tankers and cargo ships.

Location of Other Options:

Tuticorin (V.O. Chidambaranar Port): Located in Tamil Nadu (Southern India).

Paradwip Port: Located in Odisha (Eastern India).

Visakhapatnam Port: Located in Andhra Pradesh (Southeastern India).

2025 Prelims Geography

Which is the main source of water in J&K state?

A Springs

B Rivers

C Glaciers

D Lakes

Correct Answer: Option C

While rivers like the Jhelum, Chenab, and Indus are the visible pathways of water across the region, their primary, perennial source of water is the vast network of glaciers located in the Himalayas and Karakoram ranges (such as the Siachen, Kolahoi, and Machoi glaciers). These glaciers act as "water towers," melting during the warmer months to feed the rivers, lakes, and springs of Jammu and Kashmir.

Overview of Water Sources in J&K:

Glaciers (Main Source): They sustain the base flow of all major river systems in the region throughout the year.

Rivers (Conduits): Rivers like the Jhelum, Chenab, and Ravi distribute this glacial meltwater across the valleys and plains.

Springs & Lakes: These serve as vital localized sources of freshwater and are heavily relied upon for drinking water and tourism (e.g., Dal Lake, Wular Lake), but they themselves are largely recharged by glacial melt and precipitation.

2025 Prelims Geography

Which one of following is located in Leh?

A Gulmarg Wildlife Sanctuary

B Ramnagar Wildlife Sanctuary

C Limber Wildlife Sanctuary

D Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary

Correct Answer: Option D

Key Details:

Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Ladakhi Changthang plateau of the Leh district, Jammu and Kashmir (Union Territory of Ladakh). It is famous for being home to the rare snow leopard, Tibetan wild ass (kiang), and the dark-necked crane.

Gulmarg Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Baramulla district of Jammu and Kashmir.

Ramnagar Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Jammu district.

Limber Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Baramulla district of Jammu and Kashmir.

2025 Prelims Geography

Why is the timber of deodar used in the making of boats and bridges?

A It floats in water

B It is impervious to water

C It is easily available

D It is the most economical timber

Correct Answer: Option B

Why Deodar Timber is Used for Boats and Bridges

Deodar (Cedrus deodara), also known as the "Wood of the Gods," is a majestic evergreen conifer native to the Western Himalayas. Its wood is highly prized in heavy construction for several unique botanical and structural reasons:

Natural Oils and Resins: Deodar wood contains a high concentration of natural essential oils and resins. These oils act as a permanent waterproof barrier, making the timber highly durable, rot-resistant, and virtually immune to water logging.

Fungal and Insect Resistance: The same aromatic resins that repel water also protect the wood from fungal decay, water molds, and wood-boring insects (like termites), which typically destroy other types of timber in wet environments.

High Structural Strength: It is a strong, durable softwood with a straight grain, meaning it can bear heavy loads without warping, bending, or splitting when exposed to constant moisture.

2025 Prelims Geography

Which two places are connected by the east-west corridor of NHAI?

A Silchar and Porbandar

B Mumbai and Kolkata

C Mangalore and Itanagar

D Jaipur and Patna

Correct Answer: Option A

Key Facts About the East-West Corridor

The East-West Corridor is a massive highway project managed by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) as part of the Golden Quadrilateral Highway Project (specifically Phase II of the National Highways Development Project - NHDP).

The Stretch: It spans approximately 3,300 kilometers, connecting the easternmost and westernmost edges of India.

Eastern Terminus: Silchar in Assam.

Western Terminus: Porbandar in Gujarat.

Key States Covered: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, and Assam.

Connected Concept: The North-South Corridor

The East-West Corridor is paired with the North-South Corridor, which connects:

Srinagar in Jammu & Kashmir (North) to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu (South).

Important Trivia: The North-South and East-West Corridors intersect each other at a crucial highway junction located in Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh.

Current Affairs 9 questions

2025 Prelims Current Affairs

Whose birthday is celebrated as Teacher’s Day in India?

A Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru

B Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar

C Dr.SarvepalliRadhakrishnan

D Rajiv Gandhi

Correct Answer: Option C

Teacher's Day is celebrated every year in India on September 5th to mark the birth anniversary of Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan. He was a distinguished philosopher, a highly respected scholar, India's first Vice-President, and the second President of India. When his students wanted to celebrate his birthday, he requested that instead of celebrating it as his personal birthday, it should be observed as Teacher's Day to honor the contribution of teachers to society.

2025 Prelims Current Affairs

Which day is celebrated as Army Day in India?

A 15thJanuary

B 26thDecember

C 14th July

D 23rd March

Correct Answer: Option A

Why this specific day? Army Day is celebrated on January 15th every year to mark the historic day in 1949 when Field Marshal K. M. Cariappa (then a Lieutenant General) took over as the first Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army from General Sir Francis Robert Roy Bucher, the last British Commander-in-Chief.

The Significance: It honors the soldiers of the Indian Army for their selfless service, courage, and sacrifices in protecting the nation. The main Army Day parade is conducted annually to showcase the military prowess and achievements of the force.

2025 Prelims Current Affairs

Who won the 2015 BNP Paribas WTA Finals in the Women’s Category?

A Sania Mirza and Martina Hingis

B GarbineMuguruza and AgnieszkaRadwanska

C GarbineMuguruza and Carla Suarez Navarro

D Yung Jan Chan and Hao Ching Chan

Correct Answer: Option A

The Achievement: Sania Mirza and Martina Hingis (often nicknamed "Santina" by fans) won the 2015 BNP Paribas WTA Finals women's doubles title in Singapore. They defeated the Spanish duo of Garbiñe Muguruza and Carla Suárez Navarro in straight sets ($6\text{–}0$, $6\text{–}3$) to cap off an incredibly dominant year together.

2025 Prelims Current Affairs

What is the full form of BCCI?

A Board for Cricket Campaign in India

B Board to Command Cricketing in India

C Board of Control for Cricket in India

D Board to Control Cricket Internationally

Correct Answer: Option C

About the BCCI: Founded in December 1928, the BCCI is the national governing body for cricket in India. It is one of the richest and most powerful cricket boards in the world, managing everything from domestic tournaments (like the IPL and Ranji Trophy) to the Indian national teams.

2025 Prelims Current Affairs

Former Indian President Dr. Kalam, was addressing the students of which management institute before he collapsed and eventually died?

A IIM Ahmedabad

B IIM Shillong

C IIM Gurgaon

D IIT Sikkim

Correct Answer: Option B

The Incident: On July 27, 2015, Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam collapsed while delivering a lecture at the Indian Institute of Management (IIM) Shillong. He was rushed to the hospital but unfortunately passed away due to a sudden cardiac arrest.

Dr. Kalam was incredibly passionate about teaching and often said he wanted to be remembered as a teacher above all else.

2025 Prelims Current Affairs

When is the International Day of Yoga as declared by the General Assembly?

A 04th February

B 21st June

C 25th June

D 21st July

Correct Answer: Option B

The Declaration: The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) officially declared June 21 as the International Day of Yoga on December 11, 2014. The resolution was introduced by India and co-sponsored by a record 175 member nations.

Why June 21? This date marks the Summer Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere—the longest day of the year—which holds special spiritual significance in many cultures and yogic traditions.

Other Dates Context: * 04th February is recognized globally as World Cancer Day.

2025 Prelims Current Affairs

Who was the chairman of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) when it was set up in 1969 at Ahmedabad?

A Satish Dhawan

B Homi Jahangir Baba

C Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

D Prof. Vikram Sarabhai

Correct Answer: Option D

Prof. Vikram Sarabhai: Widely regarded as the Father of the Indian Space Programme, he was the visionary who established ISRO on August 15, 1969. He served as its first chairman.

Satish Dhawan: He was another legendary chairman of ISRO who led the organization during its crucial growth phase in the 1970s and 1980s (the spaceport at Sriharikota is named after him).

Homi Jehangir Bhabha: He is known as the Father of the Indian Nuclear Programme and was the founding director of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR).

Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam: Before becoming the President of India, he was a premier scientist at ISRO and DRDO, famously serving as the project director for India's first satellite launch vehicle (SLV-III).

2025 Prelims Current Affairs

Who among the following was conferred the Harvard University’s 2015 Humanitarian of the Year Award?

A Kailash Satyarthi

B Malala Yousafzai

C Boutros Boutros-Ghali

D Kofi Annan

Correct Answer: Option A

Key Facts The Recipient: Indian children's rights activist and Nobel Peace Prize laureate Kailash Satyarthi was named the 2015 Harvard Humanitarian of the Year (officially called the Peter J. Gomes Humanitarian Award). The Reason: He was honored by the Harvard Foundation for his decades-long struggle against child slavery and exploitative labor through his movement, Bachpan Bachao Andolan (Save the Childhood Movement). He was the first Indian to receive this prestigious award. Other Nominees/Context: He famously shared the 2014 Nobel Peace Prize with Malala Yousafzai (Option B), who had won the Harvard Humanitarian Award previously in 2013.

2025 Prelims Current Affairs

Who was the author of the book "Poverty and Un-British Rule in India"?

A Pherozeshah Mehta

B DadabhaiNaoroji

C Ramesh Chandra Dutt

D Badruddin Tyabji

Correct Answer: Option B

Key Information about the Book and Author

The Author: Dadabhai Naoroji, popularly known as the "Grand Old Man of India," was a prominent nationalist leader, scholar, and the first Asian to become a British Member of Parliament.

The Core Concept: Published in 1901, the book introduced the famous "Drain theory" (or the Economic Drain Theory).

The Argument: Naoroji argued that Britain was systematically draining India's wealth and resources, transferring them back to Britain. He pointed out that this economic exploitation, rather than a lack of effort by the Indian people, was the primary cause of India's extreme poverty.

By using the term "Un-British," Naoroji was cleverly highlighting the hypocrisy of the British administration, noting that their exploitative ruling practices in India completely contradicted the fair and democratic principles they practiced back home in Britain.

History 21 questions

2025 Prelims History

Which of the following countries joined the UNO in 2006 and became the 192nd member of the UNO?

A Switzerland

B Montenegro

C South Sudan

D Serbia

Correct Answer: Option B

The Context: Montenegro officially became the 192nd member state of the United Nations (UNO) on June 28, 2006, following its declaration of independence from its state union with Serbia after a referendum.

Other Options: * Switzerland joined earlier in 2002 as the 190th member.

South Sudan is currently the newest member of the UN, joining in 2011 as the 193rd member.

2025 Prelims History

Which of the following is NOT a Dravidian language?

A Telugu

B Malayalam

C Sanskrit

D Kannada

Correct Answer: Option C

Why Sanskrit is the odd one out: Sanskrit belongs to the Indo-Aryan (a branch of Indo-European) language family, which is dominant in Northern India. On the other hand, Telugu, Malayalam, and Kannada—along with Tamil—are the major languages of the Dravidian language family, primarily spoken in Southern India.

2025 Prelims History

Who wrote the book Anand Math?

A Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

B Mulk Raj Anand

C R. K. Narayan

D Sharath Chandra Chattopadhyay

Correct Answer: Option A

Historical Significance: Anandamath (published in 1882) is a historic Bengali novel set against the backdrop of the Sanyasi Rebellion in the late 18th century. It is one of the most important works in Indian literature because it triggered a powerful wave of patriotism during the freedom struggle.

The National Song: India's national song, "Vande Mataram," was originally published within this very novel.

The Other Authors: * Mulk Raj Anand and R. K. Narayan are prominent pioneers of early Indo-Anglian (English) fiction.

Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay is another legendary Bengali novelist, famous for masterpieces like Devdas and Parineeta.

2025 Prelims History

When did the infamous Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occur?

A 13th April 1919

B 13th April 1918

C 8th April 1919

D 8th April 1918

Correct Answer: Option A

The Incident: On the day of the Baisakhi festival, a large, peaceful crowd gathered at the Jallianwala Bagh ground in Amritsar, Punjab, to protest the arrest of two nationalist leaders, Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal, under the repressive Rowlatt Act.

The Perpetrator: Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer blocked the only narrow entrance to the garden and ordered British troops to open fire on the unarmed gathering without warning, killing hundreds of innocent people.

The Aftermath: In deep protest against this brutality, Rabindranath Tagore renounced his British Knighthood. The event became a massive turning point in the Indian national movement.

2025 Prelims History

Which of the following is INCORRECT with respect to filing of nominations in India?

A Nominations cannot be sent by post

B The candidate may be elector of a different constituency

C Nominations can be filed even on a public holiday

D An appeal can be filed till 3 PM on last date of filing nomination

Correct Answer: Option C

The question has two incorrect statements based on the election laws of India (Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961 and the Representation of the People Act, 1951), making both (C) and (D) technically correct answers to the question "Which of the following is INCORRECT".

However, in standard examinations, (C) Nominations can be filed even on a public holiday is the most widely recognized, definitive INCORRECT practice.

Here is the detailed breakdown:

Detailed Analysis of the Options

(C) Nominations can be filed even on a public holiday (INCORRECT practice): According to Section 33(1) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, nomination papers must be delivered to the Returning Officer between 11 AM and 3 PM on any day other than a public holiday. Therefore, filing on a public holiday is strictly prohibited.

(D) An appeal can be filed till 3 PM on last date of filing nomination (INCORRECT practice): This statement is also factually incorrect. The last date for filing nominations is followed by a designated day for the scrutiny of nominations, and only after scrutiny can an appeal against rejection be made to the designated appellate authority (not on the last date of filing itself).

Why the other statements are CORRECT (Legal Facts):

(A) Nominations cannot be sent by post: This is a correct statement. The law requires nomination papers to be delivered in person either by the candidate or by their proposer directly to the Returning Officer. Sending them via post is invalid.

(B) The candidate may be elector of a different constituency: This is a correct statement. For Lok Sabha (Parliamentary) elections, a candidate can contest from any constituency in India, provided they are registered as a voter (elector) in any parliamentary constituency across the country.

2025 Prelims History

Which one of the following rights allows an Indian citizen to reside or settle in any part of India?

A Right to Equality

B Right to Freedom

C Right to Property

D Right to Life and Liberty

Correct Answer: Option B

Constitutional Context

The right to reside and settle in any part of India is a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 19(1)(e) of the Indian Constitution, which falls directly under the cluster of rights known as the Right to Freedom (Articles 19 to 22).

Specifically, Article 19 guarantees six basic freedoms to Indian citizens:

Freedom of speech and expression.

Freedom to assemble peaceably and without arms.

Freedom to form associations, unions, or co-operative societies.

Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.

Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.

Freedom to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business.

(Note: Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the right to reside and settle in the interest of the general public or for the protection of the scheduled tribes.)

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Right to Equality (Articles 14–18): Deals with equality before the law, prohibition of discrimination, and equality of opportunity in public employment.

(C) Right to Property: It was originally a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31, but it was deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 and turned into a simple legal right under Article 300A.

(D) Right to Life and Liberty (Article 21): Assures that no person shall be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.

2025 Prelims History

Quit India Movement was launched during the rule of which one of the following viceroys?

A Lord Irwin

B Lord Mountbatten

C Lord Wavell

D Lord Linlithgow

Correct Answer: Option D

Key Historical Details

The Quit India Movement (also known as the August Movement) was launched by Mahatma Gandhi on August 8, 1942, during the height of World War II.

The Viceroy's Tenure: Lord Linlithgow served as the Viceroy of India from 1936 to 1943, making his tenure the longest in the history of the British Raj.

The Response: Under his administration, the British government cracked down heavily on the movement. Within hours of the "Do or Die" speech, Linlithgow ordered the arrest of Mahatma Gandhi and almost the entire top leadership of the Indian National Congress under the Defence of India Rules.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Lord Irwin: He was the Viceroy from 1926 to 1931 and is best known for the Simon Commission, the Civil Disobedience Movement (Dandi March), and the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931.

(B) Lord Mountbatten: He was the final Viceroy of India (1947), responsible for overseeing the partition and transfer of power.

(C) Lord Wavell: He succeeded Lord Linlithgow and served as Viceroy from 1943 to 1947, managing events like the Bengal Famine, the Wavell Plan (Shimla Conference), and the Cabinet Mission.

2025 Prelims History

After which incident did Gandhiji call off the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922?

A ChauriChaura

B Kheda Satyagraha

C Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

D Execution of Bhagat Singh

Correct Answer: Option A

Why the movement was called off:

The Non-Cooperation Movement, launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920, was strictly rooted in the principle of Ahimsa (non-violence). However, on February 5, 1922, an incident took place at Chauri Chaura (a town in the Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh).

The Incident: A large group of protesters clashed with local police. The demonstrators turned violent and set fire to the local police station, resulting in the deaths of 22 policemen.

The Response: Deeply hurt by the violence and realizing that the movement was losing its non-violent character, Gandhiji went on a five-day fast and officially called off the nationwide Non-Cooperation Movement on February 12, 1922, through the Bardoli Resolution.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B) Kheda Satyagraha: This was a localized peasant movement in Gujarat that took place in 1918, well before the Non-Cooperation Movement began.

(C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre: This horrific event occurred on April 13, 1919. It was actually one of the major catalysts that led Gandhiji to launch the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920, rather than the reason for ending it.

(D) Execution of Bhagat Singh: Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Rajguru were executed on March 23, 1931, nearly a decade after the Non-Cooperation Movement had already ended.

2025 Prelims History

Which of the following was an objective of the Mountbatten Plan of June, 1947?

A Form a separate constitutional assembly for Pakistan to frame its constitution

B Form a Federal Union consisting of Princely States

C To have three groups of provinces A, B and C for Hindu Majority, Muslim Majority and Assam-Bengal respectively

D Form a Federal Union with a legislature and an Executive

Correct Answer: Option A

Why this was an objective of the Mountbatten Plan:

The Mountbatten Plan, announced on June 3, 1947, was the blueprint for the partition of British India.

The Provision: Since the plan accepted the principle of partition and the creation of two separate dominions (India and Pakistan), it explicitly stated that the existing Constituent Assembly would continue its work for India, while a separate Constituent Assembly would be set up for the territories choosing to join Pakistan to frame their own constitution.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B) & (D) Federal Union: The ideas of a loose Federal Union involving the provinces and Princely States were central to the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) in an attempt to keep India united. The Mountbatten Plan abandoned the union model in favor of outright partition.

(C) Three Groups of Provinces (A, B, and C): This specific grouping formula was the hallmark feature of the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946), which categorized provinces based on communal majorities to give Muslims autonomy within a united India. The Mountbatten Plan replaced this by physically dividing the provinces of Bengal and Punjab.

2025 Prelims History

Which one of the following was against the policy followed by the Extremists?

A Take the national movement to the common people and encourage their participation

B Boycott all kinds of association with the colonial rulers

C Encourage nationwide movement against the partition of Bengal

D Discuss reforms with the Government

Correct Answer: Option D

Why this was against Extremist policy:

The Extremists (led by leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai) believed that asking for concessions or discussing reforms with the British government was futile. They called this mendicant (begging) politics and rejected it entirely. Instead, they demanded Swaraj (complete self-rule) as a right, not as a gift from the colonial rulers.

Discussing constitutional reforms and sending petitions to the government was actually the policy of the Moderates (like Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Dadabhai Naoroji).

Why the other options represent Extremist policy:

(A) Mass Participation: The Extremists wanted to transform the freedom struggle from an elite, upper-class movement into a mass movement involving workers, peasants, and students.

(B) Boycott: A core pillar of the Extremist strategy was Boycott—not just of British goods, but of government schools, courts, titles, and any association with the administration.

(C) Anti-Partition Movement: The Extremists were the driving force behind expanding the Swadeshi and Boycott movements into a nationwide struggle against the 1905 Partition of Bengal.

2025 Prelims History

Which one of the following was a result of the 1857 uprising?

A Nawab Wajid Ali Shah was proclaimed the Nawab of Lucknow

B Bahadur Shah Zafar the Mughal ruler became the nominal ruler of India

C The British Crown took over the powers from the East India Company

D Nana Saheb Peshwa was sentenced to life imprisonment

Correct Answer: Option C

The 1857 uprising (often called the Great Revolt or the Sepoy Mutiny) completely shook the foundations of British rule in India. In its immediate aftermath, the British Parliament passed the Government of India Act 1858.

Key outcomes included:

Liquidation of the Company: The rule of the British East India Company was formally ended.

Direct Crown Rule: Governance was transferred directly to the British Crown, represented by Queen Victoria.

The Viceroy: The Governor-General of India was given the new title of Viceroy, acting as the direct representative of the Monarch.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Nawab Wajid Ali Shah: He was deposed and exiled to Calcutta in 1856 before the revolt even began. During the uprising, his young son Birjis Qadr was proclaimed Wali (ruler) of Awadh by the rebels, not Wajid Ali Shah himself.

(B) Bahadur Shah Zafar: He was proclaimed the Emperor of India by the sepoys during the revolt. However, after the British suppressed the uprising, he was captured, tried for treason, and exiled to Rangoon (Burma), marking the official end of the Mughal Empire.

(D) Nana Saheb Peshwa: Nana Saheb was never captured by the British. After the fall of Kanpur and the defeat of the rebel forces, he escaped into the forests of Nepal and was never heard from again.

2025 Prelims History

Which was the last territory to be annexed through the Subsidiary Alliance?

A Awadh

B Jhansi

C Delhi

D Mysore

Correct Answer: Option A

Why Awadh?

Awadh (Oudh) was the last major territory to be annexed under the umbrella of the Subsidiary Alliance system.

The Setup: Nawab Saadat Ali Khan II had actually entered into a Subsidiary Alliance with the British way back in 1801.

The Culmination: In 1856, Lord Dalhousie used the alleged "misgovernance and maladministration" by the then Nawab, Wajid Ali Shah, as a pretext to formally annex the territory. Because Awadh was already bound by the Subsidiary Alliance, the British used their internal control over the state to depose the Nawab and take complete charge.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B) Jhansi: Jhansi was annexed in 1854 under the Doctrine of Lapse (due to the lack of a natural male heir), not the Subsidiary Alliance.

(C) Delhi: Delhi was never formally part of the Subsidiary Alliance system in this manner; the Mughal Emperor was simply reduced to a British pensioner after 1803.

(D) Mysore: Mysore was one of the earliest to accept the Subsidiary Alliance (in 1799, after the fall of Tipu Sultan in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War).

2025 Prelims History

Which one of the following is a WRONG match?

A 1878 - Vernacular Press Act

B 1913 - Dandi March

C 1885 - Formation of the Indian National Congress

D 1905 - Partition of Bengal

Correct Answer: Option B

Why the other options are CORRECT matches:

(A) 1878 - Vernacular Press Act: Passed by Viceroy Lord Lytton to curtail the freedom of the Indian-language (vernacular) press and prevent them from criticizing British policies.

(C) 1885 - Formation of the Indian National Congress: Founded in Bombay (Mumbai) by Allan Octavian Hume, Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee, and Dinshaw Wacha to give educated Indians a political platform.

(D) 1905 - Partition of Bengal: Implemented by Viceroy Lord Curzon, which divided the province of Bengal along communal lines and triggered the historic Swadeshi Movement.

2025 Prelims History

Which one of the following was NOT a result of unfair British economic policies?

A Increased poverty and famine

B Shortage of food grains in India

C Rapid industrialisation in England

D Balance of trade and higher employment in India due to increase in exports

Correct Answer: Option D

Why (D) is the correct choice:

British economic policies were designed to benefit the British economy at the expense of India. Therefore, India did not experience a favorable balance of trade or higher employment. Instead:

India's traditional handicraft and textile industries were systematically destroyed (de-industrialization), leading to massive unemployment.

While India's exports of raw materials (like cotton, indigo, and opium) did increase, the financial profits went to British merchants and the colonial government, not to Indian workers.

Why the other options were actual results:

(A) Increased poverty and famine: The commercialization of agriculture, high land revenue demands, and lack of government relief led to a series of devastating, man-made famines (such as the Great Bengal Famine) and deep poverty.

(B) Shortage of food grains in India: British policies forced Indian farmers to grow cash crops (like indigo, cotton, and jute) instead of food crops (like rice and wheat) to feed British industries, causing severe food grain shortages.

(C) Rapid industrialisation in England: India was used as a cheap supplier of raw materials and a captive market for British manufactured goods. This wealth and resource extraction directly fueled the Industrial Revolution in England.

2025 Prelims History

According to the Safety Valve Theory what was Hume’s main intention in encouraging the foundation of the Congress?

A Provide a safe outlet to the growing discontent among the educated Indians

B Teach people to ensure their safety during mass uprisings and revolts

C Ensure the safety of Indians from the oppression of British Rule

D Promote the use of Safety Valve in canals and barrages to protect the life and property of Indians during floods

Correct Answer: Option A

Understanding the "Safety Valve" Theory

The "Safety Valve" theory is a historical thesis regarding why the British colonial administration supported the creation of the Indian National Congress.

The Concept: Just as a safety valve in a steam engine releases excess pressure to prevent an explosion, the Congress was intended to act as a political "safety valve."

Hume's Intention: Hume and British officials noticed a tremendous amount of simmering anger and discontent among educated Indians against British policies. They feared this could boil over into another violent, widespread rebellion like the Revolt of 1857.

The Solution: By providing a peaceful, constitutional platform (the Congress) where educated Indians could discuss their grievances, present petitions, and debate policies, the British hoped to safely defuse this revolutionary energy before it could threaten the empire.

Evolution of the Theory

Later, nationalist leaders like Lala Lajpat Rai used this theory to criticize the early, moderate phase of the Congress, claiming it was originally devised as a tool to protect British imperial interests rather than to win Indian independence. However, modern historians generally view the relationship as a "lightning conductor," where early Indian leaders used Hume as a catalyst to form a national body without immediately inviting British suppression.

2025 Prelims History

Who played an important role in spreading the Swadeshi Movement across India?

A Aravind Ghosh

B Mahatma Gandhi

C BalgangadharTilak

D Ali brothers

Correct Answer: Option C

How the Movement Spread Across India

While the Swadeshi movement originated in Bengal, it was Bal Gangadhar Tilak (along with other leaders of the "Extremist" faction of the Indian National Congress) who realized that the protest needed to become a pan-India movement.

The movement was spread across different regions by key leaders:

Bal Gangadhar Tilak: Took the movement to Bombay (Mumbai) and Pune, using the Shivaji and Ganpati festivals to mobilize the masses.

Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh: Led the movement in the Punjab and northern India.

Syed Haider Raza: Organized the movement in Delhi.

Chidambaram Pillai: Spread the movement down south to the Madras Presidency.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect

(A) Aurobindo Ghosh: While he was a major leader of the Swadeshi movement, his activities were primarily centered in Bengal.

(B) Mahatma Gandhi: Gandhi was still in South Africa during the peak of the Swadeshi Movement; he did not return to India permanently until 1915.

(D) Ali brothers: They became prominent leaders much later, during the Khilafat Movement (1919).

2025 Prelims History

Which of the following was NOT a cause of the formation of the Muslim League in 1906?

A Muslims wanted a separate nation

B The British policy of Divide and Rule

C Hindus moved ahead with the spread of Western education while Muslims lagged behind

D A sense of deprivation was engineered in the minds of Muslims

Correct Answer: Option A

Explanation of Options

Why (A) is the correct choice: In 1906, the demand for a separate nation (Pakistan) did not exist. At the time of its formation, the Muslim League's primary goals were to protect the political rights of Muslims within British India, promote loyalty to the British government, and secure separate electorates. The demand for a separate nation emerged much later, formally with the Lahore Resolution in 1940.

Why (B) was a cause: The British actively used the "Divide and Rule" policy to create a rift between Hindus and Muslims to weaken the growing Indian nationalist movement.

Why (C) was a cause: Following the 1857 revolt, Muslims generally stayed away from Western education and government jobs, while the Hindu middle class embraced them. This created an economic and educational gap, leading Muslim leaders like Sir Syed Ahmed Khan to push for modernization and political safeguarding.

Why (D) was a cause: British officials and conservative leaders fostered a sense of insecurity and deprivation among upper-class Muslims, suggesting that a Hindu majority in a democratic system would override Muslim interests.

2025 Prelims History

Arms Act was passed in the year

A 1883

B 1878

C 1858

D 1877

Correct Answer: Option B

Key Facts About the Indian Arms Act (1878)

The Law: This act made it a criminal offense for Indians to carry, manufacture, or sell weapons without a valid license.

Racial Discrimination: The law was highly controversial because it exempted Europeans, Anglo-Indians, and certain government officials from needing a license. Only native Indians were required to get authorization.

Impact: The act caused widespread resentment among Indians, as it was seen as an attempt to disarm the population and prevent any potential future rebellion (like the Revolt of 1857). This unfair policy helped fuel the early Indian nationalist movement.

2025 Prelims History

Which movement stressed the concept of National Education?

A Non-Cooperation Movement

B Swadeshi Movement

C Home Rule Movement

D Civil Disobedience Movement

Correct Answer: Option B

Why National Education?

Boycott and Self-Reliance: A core pillar of the Swadeshi Movement was the boycott of British goods and institutions. This created an urgent need for indigenous alternatives.

National Schools and Colleges: To prevent students from attending government-controlled British institutions, Indian leaders stressed the concept of National Education.

Key Achievements: This led to the setting up of national schools and colleges independent of British control. On August 15, 1906, the National Council of Education was set up, and institutions like the Bengal National College (with Aurobindo Ghosh as its principal) were established to impart education that combined traditional Indian values with modern science.

2025 Prelims History

Who lead the Khilafat Movement?

A Sir Muhammad Iqbal

B Abul Kalam Azad

C Muhammad Ali Jinnah

D Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali

Correct Answer: Option D

Key Facts About the Khilafat Movement

Time Period: 1919–1924

Objective: It was a pan-Islamic political protest campaign launched by Muslims in British India to influence the British government and protect the Ottoman Caliphate (Khilafat) following the defeat of the Ottoman Empire in World War I.

Alliance with Mahatma Gandhi: Mahatma Gandhi saw the Khilafat Movement as a major opportunity to unite Hindus and Muslims against British rule. He linked it with his own Non-Cooperation Movement (1920), making it a pivotal phase in the Indian freedom struggle.

2025 Prelims History

Who was the author of the book "Poverty and Un-British Rule in India"?

A Pherozeshah Mehta

B DadabhaiNaoroji

C Ramesh Chandra Dutt

D Badruddin Tyabji

Correct Answer: Option B

Key Takeaways about the Book

Published: 1901

Core Theory: This book famously introduced the "Drain of Wealth" theory. Naoroji argued that Britain was systematically draining India's wealth and resources, transferring them to the UK without any equivalent economic return.

Impact: It was a foundational text for the Indian nationalist movement, shifting the focus toward the economic exploitation caused by colonial rule.

Economy 1 questions

2025 Prelims Economy

The currency of which one of the following countries is NOT called a rupee?

A Nepal

B Indonesia

C Sri Lanka

D Pakistan

Correct Answer: Option B

The Currencies: * Indonesia's currency is called the Rupiah (IDR). While it sounds very similar and shares a common linguistic root (derived from the Sanskrit word rupyakam), it is distinctly named the rupiah.

Nepal (Nepalese Rupee), Sri Lanka (Sri Lankan Rupee), and Pakistan (Pakistani Rupee) all officially use variants named the Rupee.

General Science 21 questions

2025 Prelims General Science

How many rockets can the Pinaka, a multi-barrel rocket system developed at the DRDO, equip?

A 18

B 6

C 4

D 12

Correct Answer: Option D

About the Pinaka System: The Pinaka is an indigenous Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher (MBRL) system developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) for the Indian Army. Capacity and Firepower: A single Pinaka launcher truck is equipped with two localized pods side-by-side, each holding 6 rockets—making for a total of 12 rockets. It is capable of firing its entire salvo of 12 high-explosive rockets in just 44 seconds, completely neutralizing a target area of roughly 500 meters by 700 meters.

2025 Prelims General Science

Which of the following is NOT considered as an advantage to using the garden pea for Mendel’s experiments?

A He could expect to observe segregation of traits among the offspring

B They have relatively short generation time

C True-breeding varieties were scarce

D The sex organs of the pea are enclosed within the flower

Correct Answer: Option C

Why this is the correct choice:

In reality, one of the major advantages of using the garden pea (Pisum sativum) was that true-breeding varieties were readily available, not scarce. Mendel was able to source 34 different varieties of peas and narrowed his focus down to 14 true-breeding varieties (representing 7 pairs of contrasting traits) for his experiments.

Why the other options ARE advantages:

(A) Segregation of traits: Because the traits were distinct and controlled by single genes, he could clearly observe and count the segregation of traits (like green vs. yellow seeds) in the offspring.

(B) Short generation time: Pea plants grow and reproduce quickly, allowing Mendel to observe multiple generations of plants in a relatively short period.

(D) Enclosed sex organs: The petals of the pea flower naturally enclose the reproductive organs, which strictly promotes self-pollination. This made it very easy for Mendel to prevent accidental cross-pollination, though he could still manually cross-pollinate them when he wanted to.

2025 Prelims General Science

The focal length of a spherical mirror is approximately equal to

A Quarter the radius of curvature

B Half the radius of curvature

C Twice the radius of curvature

D Four times the radius of curvature

Correct Answer: Option B

For a spherical mirror (both concave and convex) with a small aperture, the focal length (f) is directly related to its radius of curvature (R) by the following formula:

This means the principal focus lies exactly halfway between the pole of the mirror and its center of curvature.

2025 Prelims General Science

Most of the energy in an ecosystem is

A Converted into biomass by plants

B Utilised by secondary consumers

C Lost as heat

D Used by the primary consumers

Correct Answer: Option C

This concept is governed by the 10% Rule of Energy Transfer in ecology.

When energy moves from one trophic level to the next (for example, from plants to herbivores), only about 10% of the energy is stored as biomass and passed along to the consumer. The remaining 90% of the energy is lost to the environment.

Most of this lost energy is dissipated as heat as a byproduct of metabolic processes, such as cellular respiration, movement, growth, and reproduction.

2025 Prelims General Science

Power and manure both are provided by

A Nuclear plants

B Thermal plants

C Biogas plants

D Hydroelectric plants

Correct Answer: Option C

A biogas plant uses organic waste—such as cattle dung, agricultural residue, and food waste—and breaks it down using bacteria in an oxygen-free environment (a process called anaerobic digestion). This process yields two highly useful products:

Power (Biogas): The process generates biogas (primarily methane and carbon dioxide), which can be burned directly for cooking and heating, or used to fuel a generator to produce electricity.

Manure (Digestate): The leftover organic slurry that remains after the gas is extracted is incredibly rich in nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium. It makes an excellent, eco-friendly organic manure for farming.

None of the other options produce manure:

Nuclear plants produce electricity and radioactive waste.

Thermal plants produce electricity and air pollutants/fly ash.

Hydroelectric plants produce electricity using the movement of water.

2025 Prelims General Science

During electrolytic reduction, which one of the following acts as the reducing agent?

A Cathode

B Anode

C Electrolyte

D Metal

Correct Answer: Option A

To understand why the cathode acts as the reducing agent, it helps to look at the definitions of reduction and how an electrolytic cell operates:

Reduction is the process of gaining electrons (remember the acronym OIL RIG: Oxidation Is Loss, Reduction Is Gain).

In an electrolytic cell, the cathode is the negatively charged electrode. Because it is connected to the negative terminal of the power source, it is packed with a high concentration of free electrons.

Positive ions (cations) in the electrolyte migrate toward the cathode, where they accept these electrons and are reduced.

Since the cathode provides the electrons necessary to reduce the chemical species, it effectively acts as the reducing agent.

Conversely, the anode is the positive electrode where oxidation takes place (loss of electrons), meaning it acts as an oxidizing agent.

2025 Prelims General Science

Which of the following power plants works on the principle of gravity?

A Geothermal

B Hydro power

C Solar power

D Nuclear power

Correct Answer: Option B

Hydroelectric power plants rely on the Earth's gravitational pull to generate electricity.

Water stored at a high elevation in a reservoir behind a dam possesses potential energy. When the floodgates open, gravity pulls the water downward through a pipe called a penstock. As the water rushes down, its potential energy converts into kinetic energy, which turns the blades of a turbine. The turbine then spins a generator to produce electricity.

Here is why the other options do not work on the principle of gravity:

Geothermal: Works on the principle of thermal energy generated and stored in the Earth's core (heat).

Solar power: Works on the photovoltaic effect or solar thermal concentration (light/radiant energy).

Nuclear power: Works on the principle of nuclear fission (splitting atomic nuclei to release thermal energy).

2025 Prelims General Science

The animal which shows transvers binary fission is

A Euglena

B Plasmodium

C Amoeba

D Paramecium

Correct Answer: Option D

Binary fission is a type of asexual reproduction where a single organism divides into two halves. The direction or plane in which this division happens varies by organism:

Transverse Binary Fission (Paramecium): The body of the cell divides along its shorter, transverse (horizontal) axis, splitting the organism into a top half and a bottom half.

Longitudinal Binary Fission (Euglena): The cell divides vertically along its long axis, splitting from top to bottom.

Irregular Binary Fission (Amoeba): Because an amoeba has an irregular shape and no fixed axis, division can happen along any plane.

Multiple Fission (Plasmodium): Plasmodium does not undergo binary fission; instead, it undergoes multiple fission, where the nucleus divides many times to create multiple daughter cells at once.

2025 Prelims General Science

Which one of the elements is the main constituent in making solar cells?

A Silicon

B Gold

C Carbon

D Silver

Correct Answer: Option A

Silicon is a semiconductor, which means its ability to conduct electricity falls between that of a conductor (like metal) and an insulator (like plastic).

When sunlight hits a silicon solar cell, the photons of light knock electrons free from the silicon atoms. This flow of electrons creates an electrical current. Silicon is chosen because it is highly efficient at this process, incredibly abundant (it's the main ingredient in beach sand), and highly durable.

Silver and Gold are excellent conductors, but they are too expensive and don't have the semiconductor properties needed to convert light into electricity (though silver is often used in tiny amounts for the grid lines/wires on top of the cell to collect the electricity).

Carbon (in its standard forms) does not possess the right semiconducting properties for traditional solar cells.

2025 Prelims General Science

Light energy is converted by plants in the process of photosynthesis into

A Chemical Potential Energy

B Elastic Potential Energy

C Gravitational Potential Energy

D Kinetic energy

Correct Answer: Option A

During photosynthesis, green plants absorb light energy from the sun and use it to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose (sugar). This glucose stores the energy in its chemical bonds, which is a form of chemical potential energy. The plant can later break these bonds down to release energy for growth and survival.

Here is why the other options are incorrect:

Elastic Potential Energy: Energy stored as a result of deformation of an elastic object (like a stretched rubber band).

Gravitational Potential Energy: Energy an object possesses because of its position in a gravitational field (like a boulder sitting on top of a cliff).

Kinetic Energy: The energy of motion (like a rolling ball or running water).

2025 Prelims General Science

Intact chloroplast from green leaves can be isolated by

A Acetone

B NaCL solution

C Alcohol

D Sucrose solution

Correct Answer: Option D

To isolate intact (undamaged) chloroplasts, scientists use an isotonic solution—meaning a solution that has the same solute concentration as the inside of the chloroplast.

Sucrose solution (usually around 0.3 to 0.4 M): Provides the perfect osmotic pressure. It prevents water from rushing into the chloroplast (which would make it burst) or rushing out (which would make it shrink).

Acetone and Alcohol: These are organic solvents. They would dissolve the lipid membranes of the chloroplast and destroy it completely.

NaCl solution: While sometimes used in rough extractions, a pure sodium chloride solution can cause ionic stress and is more likely to damage the delicate outer membranes compared to sucrose.

2025 Prelims General Science

The kidneys in human beings are a part of the

A Excretion system

B Nutrition system

C Respiration system

D Transportation system

Correct Answer: Option A

The main function of the kidneys is to filter waste products, excess water, and other impurities from the blood. These waste products are then excreted from the body in the form of urine.

Here is a quick breakdown of the other systems mentioned for context:

Nutrition system (Digestive system): Involved in breaking down food and absorbing nutrients (e.g., stomach, intestines).

Respiration system: Involved in breathing and gas exchange (e.g., lungs).

Transportation system (Circulatory system): Involved in moving blood, nutrients, and oxygen throughout the body (e.g., heart, blood vessels).

2025 Prelims General Science

The main difference between a food chain and a food web is that food chains

A Involve only plants, while food webs involve animals

B Involve only plants, while food webs involve both plants and animals

C Involve plants and animals, but food webs involve only animals

D Are linear and food webs are complex

Correct Answer: Option D

Why this is the correct answer:

Food Chains show a single, straight-line path of energy flow in an ecosystem. They trace how energy moves from a producer (like grass) to a series of consumers (like a rabbit, then a fox).

Food Webs consist of many interconnected food chains. They show a more realistic, complex network of what multiple organisms eat, recognizing that most animals consume more than just one specific type of food.

Shutterstock

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A), (B), and (C) are incorrect because both food chains and food webs must include both plants (producers) and animals (consumers) to show how energy flows through an ecosystem.

2025 Prelims General Science

Which is the most reactive metal among the following?

A Copper (Cu)

B Potassium (K)

C Zinc (Zn)

D Silver (Ag)

Correct Answer: Option B

Understanding Metal Reactivity

The reactivity of a metal is determined by how easily it can lose its valence electrons to form positive ions (cations).

To find the most reactive metal, we refer to the Reactivity Series (or Activity Series), which ranks metals from most reactive to least reactive based on their reactions with water, acids, and oxygen.

Based on this series, we can rank the given options from most reactive to least reactive:

Potassium (K) – Highly reactive (Group 1 alkali metal). It reacts violently with cold water and catches fire instantly.

Zinc (Zn) – Moderately reactive. It does not react with cold water but reacts steadily with acids.

Copper (Cu) – Low reactivity. It does not react with water or dilute acids.

Silver (Ag) – Highly unreactive noble metal. It is found at the very bottom of the reactivity series, which is why it doesn't easily tarnish or corrode.

2025 Prelims General Science

Which one of the following is NOT a major greenhouse gas?

A Oxygen

B Methane

C Carbon di oxide

D Water vapour

Correct Answer: Option A

Why Oxygen is NOT a Greenhouse Gas

Greenhouse gases are gases that trap heat in the atmosphere by absorbing and emitting infrared radiation.

The Chemistry: To absorb infrared radiation, a molecule must be able to change its dipole moment (the distribution of its electrical charge) when it vibrates.

Diatomic Gases: Oxygen (O

) is a homonuclear diatomic molecule, meaning it consists of two identical atoms. Because it is perfectly symmetrical, its vibrations do not create a change in its dipole moment. Therefore, oxygen allows infrared radiation (heat) to pass straight through it without trapping it. The same is true for Nitrogen (N

), which makes up about 78% of our atmosphere.

Quick Facts About the Major Greenhouse Gases:

(B) Methane (CH

): A potent greenhouse gas released during the production of coal, natural gas, and oil, as well as from livestock and agricultural practices. It is much more effective at trapping heat than carbon dioxide over a short timeframe.

): The primary greenhouse gas emitted through human activities, such as burning fossil fuels (coal, natural gas, and oil), deforestation, and industrial processes.

(D) Water vapour (H

O): The most abundant greenhouse gas in the atmosphere. While it isn't directly controlled by human activity like CO

, it acts as a powerful feedback loop—as the planet warms, more water evaporates, trapping even more heat.

2025 Prelims General Science

The animal which reproduces by exogenous budding is

A Hydra

B Sponge

C Plasmodium

D Amoeba

Correct Answer: Option A

Understanding Exogenous Budding

Budding is a form of asexual reproduction where a new organism develops from an outgrowth or "bud" due to cell division at one particular site.

Exogenous Budding: The word exogenous means "originating from outside." In Hydra, the bud develops on the external surface of its body. As the bud grows, it develops tiny tentacles and a mouth. Once it is fully matured, it detaches from the parent body to live as an independent organism.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

(B) Sponge: While some sponges do reproduce by budding, they are famous for endogenous budding (internal budding). They produce internal buds called gemmules to survive harsh environmental conditions.

(C) Plasmodium: This malarial parasite reproduces through a process called multiple fission (specifically schizogony), where a single cell splits into many daughter cells at once.

(D) Amoeba: A unicellular organism that typically reproduces via binary fission, where the parent cell divides equally into two identical daughter cells.

Subject Matter: This question belongs to Biology, specifically focusing on Animal Reproduction and Developmental Biology.

2025 Prelims General Science

The depletion in the ozone layer is caused by

A Sodium

B Chlorofluorocarbons

C Oxygen

D Hydrogen

Correct Answer: Option B

How CFCs Deplete the Ozone Layer

The ozone layer resides in the stratosphere and protects Earth by absorbing harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun.

The Reaction: When CFCs (often used in old refrigerators, air conditioners, and aerosol sprays) are released into the atmosphere, they drift up into the stratosphere. There, intense UV light breaks them down, releasing chlorine atoms.

The Destruction: A single chlorine atom acts as a catalyst, breaking apart ozone (O 3) molecules into ordinary oxygen (O

2 ) without being destroyed itself. One chlorine atom can destroy over 100,000 ozone molecules before it is removed from the stratosphere.

Quick Facts About the Other Options:

(A) Sodium: A highly reactive alkali metal. It plays no role in atmospheric chemistry or ozone depletion.

(C) Oxygen: Ozone is actually an allotrope of oxygen. While normal oxygen gas is O2 , ozone is O3 . Standard oxygen does not destroy the ozone layer.

(D) Hydrogen: A highly flammable gas that does not contribute to the main chemical reactions responsible for the ozone hole.

Subject Matter: This question falls under Environmental Chemistry and Ecology, specifically focusing on atmospheric pollution and global environmental issues.

2025 Prelims General Science

Which one of the following metals is in liquid form at room temperature?

A Mercury

B Zinc

C Arsenic

D Tungsten

Correct Answer: Option A

Why Mercury?

At room temperature, mercury (Hg, atomic number 80) is the only metal that remains in a liquid state.

The Science: Metals usually form strong metallic bonds where valence electrons are shared freely among a lattice of atoms, making them solid and rigid. However, mercury's electrons are bound unusually tightly to its nucleus (a phenomenon amplified by relativistic effects). Because its atoms don't share electrons easily, the cohesive forces between mercury atoms are weak, causing it to melt at a very low temperature of −38.83

∘

Quick Facts About the Other Options:

(B) Zinc: A solid, bluish-white transition metal commonly used to galvanize iron and steel to prevent rusting.

(D) Tungsten: A solid metal with the highest melting point of all pure metals (3422

∘

C), traditionally used in incandescent light bulb filaments.

Note: Bromine is another element that is liquid at room temperature, but it is a non-metal. If a question asks for a liquid non-metal, Bromine is your answer; for a liquid metal, it's always Mercury.

2025 Prelims General Science

In plants, water is transported through

A Stomata

B Root hair

C Phloem

D Xylem

Correct Answer: Option D

How Water Transport Works in Plants

Plants have a specialized vascular system made up of two main types of complex tissues to move materials around:

Xylem: This tissue acts like a system of microscopic pipes that transports water and dissolved minerals upwards from the roots to the leaves. It only moves materials in one direction (upward).

Phloem: This tissue is responsible for transporting food (sugars made during photosynthesis) from the leaves to all other parts of the plant. It moves materials in both directions (upward and downward).

To clear up the other options: Root hairs absorb the water from the soil in the first place, and stomata are tiny pores on the leaves that allow gases to enter and exit (and let excess water evaporate through transpiration). However, the actual internal transportation is done by the Xylem.

2025 Prelims General Science

The metal that reacts violently with cold water is

A Gold

B Silver

C Copper

D Sodium

Correct Answer: Option D

Why Sodium Reacts Violently

Sodium is an alkali metal that is extremely reactive. When it comes into contact with even cold water, it reacts aggressively to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

This reaction releases a massive amount of heat. The heat is so intense that it immediately ignites the hydrogen gas being produced, causing a bright yellow flame and often a small explosion. Because it reacts so violently with moisture in the air, sodium must be stored under kerosene or mineral oil to keep it safe.

By contrast, the other options—gold, silver, and copper—are highly unreactive metals. They do not react with cold water, hot water, or even steam, which is why they are safely used to make jewelry, coins, and water pipes.

2025 Prelims General Science

Which of the following are Jovian planets?

A Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars

B Mercury, Venus, Jupiter, and Saturn

C Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune

D Earth, Mars, Neptune and Pluto

Correct Answer: Option C

Understanding the Planets

Our solar system's eight planets are divided into two primary categories based on their composition and location:

Terrestrial Planets (Option A): Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. These are the inner planets, made mostly of rock and metal, with solid surfaces.

Jovian Planets (Option C): Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. These are the outer planets, also known as the Gas Giants (Jupiter and Saturn) and Ice Giants (Uranus and Neptune). They are massive, lack a well-defined solid surface, and are composed primarily of hydrogen, helium, water, ammonia, and methane.

(Note: Pluto was reclassified as a "dwarf planet" in 2006 and is no longer counted among the major planets).

Environment & Ecology 6 questions

2025 Prelims Environment & Ecology

The species of plants and animals which are found only in a particular region are known as

A Endemic species

B Endangered species

C Extinct species

D Exotic species

Correct Answer: Option A

What are Endemic Species?

Endemic species are plants or animals that exist naturally only in one specific geographic region, such as a particular island, nation, or defined habitat type, and nowhere else on Earth. Because they are confined to a single area, they are often highly adapted to that specific environment and are uniquely vulnerable to extinction if their habitat is destroyed.

Examples: The Kangaroo is endemic to Australia, and the Lemur is endemic to the island of Madagascar.

Quick Definitions of the Other Terms:

(B) Endangered species: Species that are at a very high risk of extinction in the wild in the near future (e.g., the Giant Panda or Blue Whale). They can live in multiple parts of the world.

(C) Extinct species: Species that no longer have any living individuals left on Earth (e.g., the Dodo bird or Woolly Mammoth).

(D) Exotic species: Also known as introduced or non-native species, these are plants or animals that have been intentionally or accidentally moved by humans to a region where they do not naturally belong.

2025 Prelims Environment & Ecology

What happens when runoff on the ground is collected and allowed to be absorbed?

A Land becomes wet and soft

B Trees get sufficient water for their growth

C Reduces overflowing of urban drains and culverts

D Ground water gets recharged

Correct Answer: Option D

When surface runoff (rainwater that flows over the ground) is collected, slowed down, and allowed to infiltrate the soil, it moves downward through the soil layers to replenish the underground aquifers. This process is fundamentally known as groundwater recharge or rainwater harvesting.

Why the other options are secondary:

While the land does temporarily become wet (A) and trees benefit from the soil moisture (B), these are localized, immediate effects.

While it can reduce urban flooding (C) if managed properly at a large scale, the primary, direct geological consequence of allowing runoff to soak into the ground is the replenishment of the water table.

2025 Prelims Environment & Ecology

The National Aquatic Animal of India is found in

A River Kaveri

B River Ganges

C River Godavari

D River Indus

Correct Answer: Option B

Key Facts About the Ganges River Dolphin:

Official Status: Recognized as the National Aquatic Animal of India in 2009.

Characteristics: It is a freshwater dolphin and is functionally blind. It hunts by emitting ultrasonic sounds that bounce off fish and other objects, a process known as echolocation.

Conservation Status: It is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List due to threats like water pollution, dam construction, and accidental entanglement in fishing nets.

2025 Prelims Environment & Ecology

What is the full form of IUCN?

A Indian Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources

B International Union for Conservation of Nature

C International Union for Care of Nature

D International Union for Conservation of Natural Resources

Correct Answer: Option B

Key Details About IUCN:

Founded: October 5, 1948.

Headquarters: Gland, Switzerland.

What it does: It is a global authority on the status of the natural world and the measures needed to safeguard it. It is most famous for publishing the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, which assesses the conservation status of plant and animal species worldwide.

2025 Prelims Environment & Ecology

What is meant by rain water harvesting?

A Collecting water from water sources spread across larger areas

B Collecting water from ponds and storing in drums

C Reusing water for treating it with chemicals

D Collecting and storing water during rains for future use

Correct Answer: Option D

What is Rainwater Harvesting?

Rainwater harvesting is a simple, eco-friendly method of accumulating and storing rainwater right where it falls, rather than allowing it to run off and go to waste.

Typically, rain is collected from rooftops, open grounds, or specially prepared catchments. Instead of letting this water flow into choked drains or cause local flooding, it is directed into storage tanks or routed deep into the ground to recharge the depleting groundwater table.

Key Benefits:

Water Conservation: It provides an independent, reliable source of water during dry seasons or water shortages.

Reduces Runoff: It minimizes soil erosion and urban flooding by reducing the volume of stormwater rushing through streets.

Recharges Groundwater: Directing rainwater into the ground helps raise the water table, improving the quality and quantity of nearby well water.

2025 Prelims Environment & Ecology

Which of the following is a WRONG pair?

A Manas Tiger Reserve – Arunachal Pradesh

B Corbett National Park – Uttarakhand

C Sunderbans National Park – West Bengal

D Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary – Rajasthan

Correct Answer: Option A

Why this is the correct answer:

Manas Tiger Reserve is actually located in Assam, not Arunachal Pradesh. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, a Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve, and a biosphere reserve known for its unique biodiversity and rare species like the Assam roofed turtle and the pygmy hog.

The Correct Pairs:

Corbett National Park: Located in Uttarakhand, established in 1936 as Hailey National Park (India's oldest national park).

Sunderbans National Park: Located in West Bengal, famous for its vast mangrove forests and the Royal Bengal Tiger.

Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary: Located in the Alwar district of Rajasthan, known for its successful tiger relocation programs.

English 18 questions

2025 Prelims English

Choose the right meaning of the underlined idiom.

As a social reformer, he set his face against nautch parties.

A welcomed

B acclaimed

C sternly opposed

D ignored

Correct Answer: Option C

The idiom "set one's face against" means to strongly oppose, disapprove of, or resolutely resist something.

In the context of the sentence, as a social reformer, he was firmly and actively working to stop or discourage "nautch parties" (a type of traditional dance entertainment), making sternly opposed the right choice.

Welcomed and acclaimed mean the exact opposite (positive approval).

Ignored implies a passive lack of attention, whereas "setting one's face against" implies active, determined opposition.

2025 Prelims English

Select the right article for the blank:

___________ book you want is out of print.

A a

B an

C the

D no article

Correct Answer: Option C

Why "The" is Correct

The sentence refers to a specific book—the exact one that "you want."

"The" is a definite article used when both the speaker and the listener know precisely which specific item is being discussed.

"A" or "An" are indefinite articles used for general, non-specific items (e.g., "I want a book," meaning any book).

"No article" would make the sentence grammatically incorrect in this context.

Complete Sentence:

"The book you want is out of print."

2025 Prelims English

Select the correct narration for the sentence

He said, "Will you listen to such a man?"

A He asked them whether they will laten to such a man

B He asked whether they could listen to such a man

C He asked them if they will listen to such a man

D He asked them whether they would listen to such a man.

Correct Answer: Option D

Why this is correct:

Reporting Verb: Since the direct speech is a question, the reporting verb "said" correctly changes to "asked".

Adding an Object: In cases where a speaker asks a general question using "you," it is grammatically standard to imply a plural audience like "them" in the indirect speech.

Conjunction: For "yes/no" questions (questions that don't start with a wh- word), we use "whether" or "if" to introduce the reported clause.

Tense Change: Because the reporting verb is in the past tense ("said"), the future tense "will" must be changed to its past equivalent, "would".

Word Order: The question format (Will you listen...) changes into a standard statement format (they would listen...).

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Incorrect because it keeps the present/future tense "will" instead of changing it to "would."

(B) Incorrect because it changes the modal verb to "could," which alters the original meaning from intention (will) to ability (could).

2025 Prelims English

Select the right modal for the blank:

It's a hospital. You _______ smoke here.

A couldn't

B needn’t

C didn’t

D mustn’t

Correct Answer: Option D

Why this is correct:

The sentence expresses a strict rule or a formal prohibition.

Mustn't (Must not): This modal verb is used to express that something is completely forbidden, prohibited, or against the law/rules. Because smoking in a hospital is strictly illegal and dangerous, "mustn't" is the correct choice.

The sentence reads: "It's a hospital. You mustn't smoke here."

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) couldn't: This indicates a lack of ability in the past (e.g., I couldn't swim when I was five), which does not fit a current rule.

(B) needn’t: This means there is no necessity or obligation to do something, but you can still do it if you want (e.g., You needn't bring an umbrella, it's not raining). This is too weak for a hospital rule.

(C) didn’t: This is a past tense auxiliary verb used for negative statements (e.g., You didn't smoke yesterday), not a modal expressing a present rule.

2025 Prelims English

Correct the following sentence.

Business and industry, too is using tests.

A Business and industry, too is use tests.

B Businesses and industry, too is using tests.

C Business and industry, too are using tests

D Business and industries too is used tests.

Correct Answer: Option C

Why this is correct:

This question tests your understanding of subject-verb agreement with compound subjects.

Compound Subject: The sentence has two subjects connected by the conjunction and: "Business" + "industry".

Plural Verb: When two distinct singular nouns are joined by "and," they form a plural subject. Therefore, the verb must also be plural. The singular verb "is" must be changed to the plural verb "are".

The Parenthetical "too": The word "too" acts as an adverb meaning "also." Placing it between commas (or setting it off) does not change the fact that the subject is plural.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) Uses the grammatically incorrect phrase "is use tests" and keeps the singular verb "is".

(B) While it changes "Business" to "Businesses," it incorrectly keeps the singular verb "is".

(D) Uses the incorrect passive structure "is used tests" and keeps the singular verb "is".

2025 Prelims English

Complete the dialogue choosing the correct option.

Wife: I am really thrilled about our trip to South India.

I have heard it has some wonderful beaches. I don't________ standing before the vast sea. know

Husband: Yes, it is a wonderful experience to see the vast waves rising and striking thebeach.

A what to do

B how I shall feel

C when I will

D what will I do

Correct Answer: Option B

Why this is correct:

The context of the dialogue is about anticipation and emotions regarding a future experience.

Meaning: The wife is expressing her excitement and states, "I don't know how I shall feel standing before the vast sea." This perfectly matches the husband's response, where he validates that emotion by describing what a "wonderful experience" it is.

Grammar: The phrase "I don't know..." introduces a noun clause. In standard English, a noun clause embedded inside a statement must use assertive word order (subject + verb), not interrogative word order (verb + subject).

Correct structure: "...how I [subject] shall feel [verb]..."

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) what to do: This implies confusion about an action or a task, which doesn't fit the context of marveling at a beautiful natural sight.

(D) what will I do: This incorrectly uses interrogative word order (will I do instead of I will do) inside a dependent clause.

2025 Prelims English

Select the right antonym for the underlined word:

Geeta was deficient in her work for which she wasremoved from her job.

A unsatisfactory

B substandard

C defective

D efficient

Correct Answer: Option D

Why this is correct:

An antonym is a word that has the opposite meaning of another word.

Deficient means lacking in some necessary quality, inadequate, or incompetent in performing a task.

Efficient means working in a well-organized, competent, and productive manner without wasting time or effort.

Because "efficient" represents the exact opposite of being inadequate or lacking in one's work, it is the correct antonym.

Why the other options are incorrect:

The other three options are actually synonyms (words with similar meanings) to "deficient" in this context:

(A) unsatisfactory: Means not good enough to satisfy a need or requirement.

(B) substandard: Means below the usual or required standard.

2025 Prelims English

Select the right preposition for the blank:

Nehru was born __________rich parents.

A in

B for

C of

D with

Correct Answer: Option C

Why this is correct:

The standard idiomatic expression in English is to be "born of" someone.

When you want to indicate a person's parentage, origin, or family background, the preposition "of" is used (e.g., born of wealthy parents, born of noble descent).

"Born of" specifically means "descended from" or "brought forth by."

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) in: "Born in" is typically used for a geographical location, a specific year, or a status/condition (e.g., born in India, born in 1889, born in poverty).

(B) for: "Born for" indicates a purpose or a destiny (e.g., he was born for greatness).

(D) with: While "born with" is used for qualities, traits, or medical conditions (e.g., born with silver spoon, born with blue eyes), it is not used directly before "parents."

2025 Prelims English

Select the right clause for the blank

If you were to marry, _______________

A Whom would you choose?

B why would you choose?

C who would you choose?

D why could you chose?

Correct Answer: Option C

Why this is correct:

This sentence is a second conditional, which is used to talk about hypothetical or imaginary situations in the present or future.

Structure: The structure for a second conditional sentence is:

If + Simple Past / Subjunctive, ... would + base verb

Because the first clause uses the past subjunctive structure "If you were to marry," the main clause must use "would" followed by the base form of the verb ("choose").

Who vs. Whom: While older, formal grammar strictly dictated using "whom" as the object of a verb, modern standard English heavily favors "who" in questions, especially in spoken or casual contexts. Option (A) uses "whom," but Option (C) provides the most natural, grammatically sound structure for modern English.

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) While "Whom" is technically the objective pronoun, it sounds overly archaic here. More importantly, it is capitalized in the middle of a continuous sentence structure, making it a poorer choice than (C).

(B) "Why would you choose?" changes the logical meaning of the sentence. You choose a person to marry, not a reason.

(D) This option uses "could you chose." "Chose" is the past tense, but modals like could must be followed by the base form of the verb (choose). Additionally, "why" does not fit the context.

2025 Prelims English

Punctuate the following sentence:

milton the great english poet was blind

A Milton the great. English Poet was blind

B Milton the, great English poet, was blind.

C Milton, the great English poet was blind.

D Milton the great. English, Poet was blind.

Correct Answer: Option C

Why this is correct:

This sentence uses a grammatical structure called noun in apposition (or an appositive phrase). "The great English poet" serves as an explanatory phrase that describes the noun "Milton."

Appositive phrases that provide extra, non-essential information must be set off with commas on both sides.

If you remove the phrase entirely, the sentence still makes perfect sense: "Milton was blind." Therefore, a comma must go after "Milton" and another after "poet."

Why the other options are incorrect:

(A) and (D): These options incorrectly place a period after "great," splitting a single coherent thought into fragmented, ungrammatical sentences.

(B): This option places a comma incorrectly between "the" and "great," which disrupts the description of the poet.

2025 Prelims English

Select the correct narration for the sentence:

He said to him, “Please wait till I return.”

A He requested him to wait there till he returned

B He requested him to wait here till he returns

C He requests him to walt till he returned.

D He requested to wait there till returning

Correct Answer: Option A

Here is why this is the correct choice:

Reporting Verb: Since the direct speech uses "Please," the reporting verb "said to" changes to "requested".

Imperative Mood: "Please wait..." is a request, so the conjunction changes to the infinitive "to wait".

Time and Place Changes: In indirect speech, "here" typically changes to "there". (Note: While "there" isn't in the original sentence, it is standard in indirect speech transformations to shift proximal words to distal ones, and (A) is the only option that handles the tenses and pronouns correctly).

Pronoun Change: The first-person pronoun "I" changes to "he" to match the subject of the reporting verb.

Tense Change: The simple present tense "return" changes to the simple past tense "returned" because the reporting verb is in the past tense ("said").

Why the other options are incorrect:

(B) Incorrect because it keeps "here" instead of shifting it, and uses the present tense "returns".

(D) Incorrect because it changes the structure to "till returning," which alters the original meaning and grammar of the clause.

2025 Prelims English

Select the right modal for the blank:

There are plenty of tomatoes in the fridge.

You ___________ buy any.

A couldn't

B cannot

C needn't

D will not

Correct Answer: Option C

The Completed Sentence:

There are plenty of tomatoes in the fridge. You needn't buy any.

Explanation:

Needn't (short for need not) is used to express a lack of necessity. Since the fridge is already full of tomatoes, it is not necessary to buy more.

Why the other options don't fit:

Couldn't (A) / Cannot (B): These imply a lack of ability or permission (as if you are physically unable or forbidden to buy them), which doesn't fit the context.

Will not (D): This implies a future certainty or flat refusal to buy them, rather than addressing the fact that it isn't required.

2025 Prelims English

Select the right clause for the blank:

I will watch the film ______________

A or finish early

B if finishing early

C if finish early

D if I finished early

Correct Answer: Option D

(Note: In standard English grammar, this is a conditional sentence. It typically takes the form "I will watch the film if I finish early" (First Conditional). However, among the provided choices, (D) is the only one that includes both a subject and a verb to form a grammatically complete clause).

Explanation:

A clause must contain both a subject and a predicate (verb).

(D) is the only option that provides the subject (I) and a verb (finished), completing the clause properly.

Options (A), (B), and (C) lack a subject, making them grammatically incomplete in this sentence structure.

2025 Prelims English

Select the right articles for the blanks:

_________woman is more sensitive than______ man

A a, a

B a, an

C the, a

D no article, a

Correct Answer: Option A

The Completed Sentence:

A woman is more sensitive than a man.

Explanation:

In this context, the indefinite article "a" is used before singular countable nouns ("woman" and "man") to represent the entire class or category of people. It means any woman or women in general when compared to any man or men in general.

Why other options don't work:

(B) is incorrect because "man" starts with a consonant sound, so it cannot take "an".

(D) is incorrect because leaving "woman" without an article while giving "man" the article "a" creates an ungrammatical and asymmetrical sentence.

2025 Prelims English

Complete the dialogue choosing the correct option

Patient: Hello ________to Dr. Venkat?

Receptionist: No, I am his secretary speaking.

A will I speak

B is speaking

C who is speaking

D am I speaking

Correct Answer: Option D

The Completed Dialogue:

Patient: Hello, am I speaking to Dr. Venkat?

Receptionist: No, I am his secretary speaking.

Explanation:

"Am I speaking to [Name]?" is a standard, polite way to ask if you have reached the correct person on a phone call.

The receptionist’s response ("No, I am...") directly answers the first-person question ("Am I...").

2025 Prelims English

Choose the right word to fill in the blank:

Though cartoons are hardly __________, childrenfind them quite interesting.

A creditable

B credible

C credulous

D credential

Correct Answer: Option B

Credible means believable or convincing. The sentence uses the contrasting word "Though," which implies a contradiction: "Though cartoons are hardly believable (realistic), children still find them quite interesting."

Why the other options don't fit:

Creditable (A): Means deserving public acknowledgment and praise (praiseworthy).

Credulous (C): Means overly ready to believe things (gullible). This describes a person, not an object like a cartoon.

Credential (D): A qualification, achievement, or document proving a person's background.

2025 Prelims English

Correct the following sentence:

In each locality we find this days, health centres are springing up

A in each locality we find this day, health centres is springing up.

B in each locality we find these days, health centres are springing up

C In each locality we find this days, healthy centres are springing up.

D In each locality we find these day, health centres is springing up.

Correct Answer: Option B

Why this is correct:

"These days" vs. "This days": The word "days" is plural, so it must be preceded by the plural demonstrative pronoun "these", not the singular "this".

Subject-Verb Agreement: The subject "health centres" is plural, so it correctly takes the plural verb "are" (not "is").

Options A, C, and D all retain grammatical errors regarding either pronoun usage or subject-verb agreement.

2025 Prelims English

Re-arrange the following jumbled sentences into a meaningful paragraph

A. This is also an effective remedy to cure asthma and bronchitis

B. It is useful to treat lilnesses related to respiratory system.

C. Since the spice heats up your body and provides quick relief from lung congestion and sinuses.

D. Turmeric milk is an anti-microbial which attacks bacterial infections and viral

A adcb

B dbca

C bdca

D odab

Correct Answer: Option B

Here is the step-by-step breakdown of why this order works:

D introduces the main subject (Turmeric milk) and its core property (anti-microbial, attacks infections). This is the perfect opening sentence.

B builds directly on the mention of infections by specifying where it helps: "It is useful to treat illnesses related to the respiratory system."

C explains why and how it helps the respiratory system: "Since the spice heats up your body and provides quick relief from lung congestion..."

A concludes the thought by adding extra benefits to the ones mentioned in C: "This is also an effective remedy to cure asthma and bronchitis."

Therefore, the correct option is (B) dbca (noting that the option text contains a minor typo where 'd' looks like 'o' in the prompt's choices).

About JKSSB 2025 Previous Year Questions

Practicing previous year questions is one of the most effective strategies for JKSSB exam preparation. This page contains 150 authentic questions from the JKSSB 2025 examination, complete with answers and detailed explanations.

At Quintessence Classes, we believe that understanding past exam patterns is crucial for success in competitive examinations. Our curated PYQ collection helps students identify frequently tested topics, understand the difficulty level, and practice with real exam questions. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE, JKPSC KAS, or JKSSB exams, our previous year questions database is designed to give you an edge in your preparation.

Prepare smarter. Practice with PYQs. Explore our full PYQ Practice Portal →

JKSSB Panchayat Secretary (VLW) 2025 Previous Year Questions

Want Interactive Practice?

Reasoning 14 questions

Maths 22 questions

J&K 1 questions

Polity 19 questions

Geography 18 questions

Current Affairs 9 questions

History 21 questions

Economy 1 questions

General Science 21 questions

Environment & Ecology 6 questions

English 18 questions

More JKSSB Previous Year Questions

About JKSSB 2025 Previous Year Questions