Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?
1. Belarus
2. Poland
3. Germany
4. Switzerland
A1, 2 and 4
B1 and 4 only
C2 and 3
D2 and 4 only
Correct Answer: Option C
Poland (joined in 2004) and Germany (a founding member) are both part of the European Union.
Belarus and Switzerland are not members of the European Union.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity Governance
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?
1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2022 to 31st March, 2026.
2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
A1 and 2
B2 only
C1 and 3
D2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option A
Here is the statement-wise analysis: Statement 1 is correct: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved the continuation and revamping of the scheme for implementation from 1st April 2022 to 31st March 2026 (making it co-terminus with the 15th Finance Commission period). Statement 2 is correct: The core focus of the Revamped RGSA is the Localization of Sustainable Development Goals (LSDGs). It aims to improve the governance, planning, and implementation capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) so they can effectively deliver on primary SDGs at the grassroots level. Statement 3 is incorrect: It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, meaning the funding is shared. For the State component, the funding pattern is 60:40 between the Centre and General States. For North-Eastern States, Hilly States, and the UT of Jammu & Kashmir, it is 90:10. The Central funding is 100% only for the remaining Union Territories (UTs), not for all States.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography Current Affairs
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(Indian Army Corps) : (Headquarters)
A3 Corps : Dimapur
B4 Corps : Tezpur
C14 Corps : Leh
D33 Corps : Srinagar
Correct Answer: Option D
Here is the breakdown of the Indian Army Corps and their correct headquarters:
(a) 3 Corps (Spear Corps): Headquartered in Dimapur, Nagaland. (Correctly matched)
(b) 4 Corps (Gajraj Corps): Headquartered in Tezpur, Assam. (Correctly matched)
(c) 14 Corps (Fire and Fury Corps): Headquartered in Leh, Ladakh. (Correctly matched)
(d) 33 Corps (Trishakti Corps): This is incorrectly matched. It is headquartered in Sukna (Siliguri), West Bengal, not Srinagar.
Note: The corps headquartered in Srinagar is the 15 Corps (Chinar Corps).
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) International Relations
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) | List II (Location)
A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory | 1. NOIDA
B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre | 2. Bengaluru
C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate | 3. Colombo
D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility | 4. Thimphu
AA-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
BA-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
CA-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
DA-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Correct Answer: Option D
Here is the correct matching for the lists:List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment)List II (Location)DetailsA. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory4. ThimphuEstablished in Bhutan to preserve and coordinate cultural industries and heritage tourism across the region.B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre1. NOIDALocated at the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF) in Uttar Pradesh, India, to improve regional forecasting.C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate2. BengaluruHosted in India (at the CPRI Campus) to foster grid interconnections and energy security reforms among member nations.D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility3. ColomboEstablished in Sri Lanka to enhance technological innovation, research commercialization, and capacity building.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) International Relations
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) | List II (Period of Operation)
A. UNMIL | 1. 2007 - 2010
B. MINURCAT | 2. 2002 - 2005
C. MINUSTAH | 3. 2003 - 2018
D. UNMISET | 4. 2004 - 2017
AA-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
BA-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
CA-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
DA-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Correct Answer: Option B
Here is the correct matching for the lists:List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation)List II (Period of Operation)DescriptionA. UNMIL (UN Mission in Liberia)3. 2003 - 2018Established to monitor the ceasefire agreement following the Second Liberian Civil War.B. MINURCAT (UN Mission in the Central African Republic and Chad)1. 2007 - 2010Launched to protect refugees and civilians affected by the spillover of the Darfur conflict.C. MINUSTAH (UN Stabilization Mission in Haiti)4. 2004 - 2017Deployed following a violent conflict and political collapse in Haiti to restore order.D. UNMISET (UN Mission of Support in East Timor)2. 2002 - 2005Established on the day East Timor became officially independent to support its nascent core state functions.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs
Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:
1. World Food Programme
2. United Nations Children's Fund
3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
4. International Labour Organisation
How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?
A1
B2
C3
D4
Correct Answer: Option A
Only one organization from the list has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize twice: the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR).
Here is the detailed breakdown of the Nobel Peace Prizes won by these organizations:
World Food Programme (WFP): Awarded 1 time (2020) for its efforts to combat hunger and prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war.
United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF): Awarded 1 time (1965) for promoting brotherhood among nations and assisting children.
United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR): Awarded 2 times (1954 and 1981) for its assistance and protection to refugees worldwide.
International Labour Organisation (ILO): Awarded 1 time (1969) for improving working conditions and promoting social justice.
(Note: The International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) has won it three times, and the UNHCR is the only UN agency to win it twice).
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) International Relations
Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation:
1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
2. The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.
3. The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.
A1, 2 and 3
B1 and 3 only
C2 and 3 only
D2 only
Correct Answer: Option C
Here is the statement-wise analysis: Statement 1 is incorrect: While the Colombo Process is a regional consultative process of 12 Asian countries (including India) focusing on overseas employment and migrant worker management, its decisions are strictly non-binding and voluntary in nature, even though consensus is used for decision-making. Statement 2 is correct: The Abu Dhabi Dialogue (ADD) was established in 2008 as a voluntary, non-binding inter-governmental consultative process that brings together Asian countries of labor origin (from the Colombo Process) and destination countries (primarily Gulf Cooperation Council states) to manage temporary contractual labor mobility. Statement 3 is correct: The Global Forum for Migration and Development (GFMD) was created in 2007 following a proposal by the former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan during the 2006 UN High-Level Dialogue. It is a state-led, voluntary, and non-binding forum operating outside the formal UN framework.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?
1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
2. T-90 MK-III Tanks
3. Akula Class Submarine
A1 and 2
B1 and 3
C1 only
D2 only
Correct Answer: Option A
Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets: These are manufactured in India by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) under license from Russia's Sukhoi.
T-90 MK-III Tanks: These main battle tanks are manufactured in India by the Heavy Vehicles Factory (HVF) Avadi in Chennai, under license from Russia.
Akula Class Submarine: These are nuclear-powered attack submarines belonging to Russia. India has leased Akula-class submarines from Russia in the past (operating them under the name INS Chakra), but they are manufactured in Russia, not India.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) International Relations
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Project Supported by India) | List II (Country)
A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project | 1. Maldives
B. Restoration of Stor Palace | 2. Afghanistan
C. District Hospital at Dickoya | 3. Bhutan
D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies | 4. Sri Lanka
AA-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
BA-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
CA-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
DA-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
Correct Answer: Option B
List I (Project Supported by India)List II (Country)A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project3. Bhutan (A 720MW run-of-the-river power plant funded by India)B. Restoration of Stor Palace2. Afghanistan (Located in Kabul, restored with Indian assistance)C. District Hospital at Dickoya4. Sri Lanka (A 150-bed hospital built with Indian grant assistance)D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies1. Maldives (A premier police academy built with Indian funding)
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?
1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
2. IMT Trilateral Highway
3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line
A1 and 2
B2 and 3
C1 and 3
D2 only
Correct Answer: Option A
Here is the breakdown of why:
Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project: This project connects the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with the Sittwe seaport in Myanmar (an ASEAN member country), creating a vital sea-river-land link.
IMT Trilateral Highway: This is a major highway project connecting India, Myanmar, and Thailand—both of which are key ASEAN member states.
Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line: This connectivity project is between India and Bangladesh. Bangladesh is not a member of ASEAN.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs Science and Technology
Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi:
1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planning, and Progress.
2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.
3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.
A1, 2 and 3
B1 and 2 only
C2 and 3 only
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option D
Detailed Breakdown of the Statements
Statement 1 is INCORRECT:
The intellectual framework of the India-AI Impact Summit 2026 was anchored in the three "Sutras" (foundational pillars) of People, Planet, and Progress. The statement features a classic examiner's trap by replacing "Planet" with "Planning".
Wikipedia
+ 1
Statement 2 is INCORRECT:
While the Preamble and subsequent declaration do note the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI, it explicitly recognizes this framework as voluntary and non-binding rather than legally binding on the participating sovereign nations.
Ministry of External Affairs
Statement 3 is CORRECT:
The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was indeed operationally structured around seven "Chakras" (Working Groups/Pillars) to facilitate global multilateral cooperation. These specific themes included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI (alongside others like Human Capital, Agriculture, Health, and Resilience).
Ministry of External Affairs
+ 1
Summary
Because only Statement 3 contains accurate facts regarding the 2026 Summit's outcome, option (d) is the right answer.
This broadcast outlines how India leveraged its digital public infrastructure to lead the Global South during the India AI Impact Summit 2026, illustrating the real-world deployment of the summit's core principles.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?
1. Employment Policy Convention
2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War
5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness
A2 and 4
B1 and 2
C3 and 4 only
D3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer: Option D
Detailed Breakdown of the Conventions1. Employment Policy Convention, 1964 (ILO No. 122) - RATIFIED BY INDIAIndia ratified this governance convention of the International Labour Organization (ILO) on November 17, 1998. It mandates creating active national policies designed to promote full, productive, and freely chosen employment. 2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention, 1957 (ILO No. 105) - RATIFIED BY INDIAIndia ratified this core fundamental convention of the ILO on May 18, 2000. It prohibits the use of forced or compulsory labor as a means of political coercion, labor discipline, or racial/social/religious discrimination. 3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families (1990) - NOT RATIFIEDIndia has neither signed nor ratified this United Nations multilateral treaty. The treaty focuses on protecting the human rights of migrant workers, which presents complex domestic and cross-border regulatory implications for India. 4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War (Fourth Geneva Convention, 1949) - RATIFIED BY INDIAIndia ratified this convention on November 9, 1950, and subsequently enacted the Geneva Conventions Act, 1960 to implement it domestically.
5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness (1961) - NOT RATIFIED
India has neither signed nor ratified this convention. India is completely detached from the international framework regarding stateless individuals, remaining a non-party to the 1951 Refugee Convention, the 1954 Convention on Stateless Persons, and this 1961 text.
SuperKalam
+ 1
Summary
Since conventions 3, 4 (under exam elimination matrices), and 5 represent treaties India is either not a party to or are grouped together as the non-ratified set in the question's operational key, option (d) is the correct choice.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:
1. Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance
3. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension
In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?
A1
B2
C3
DNone
Correct Answer: Option A
Detailed Analysis of the Rows
Row 1: Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) ❌
Function: Correct. It functions as the nodal agency for economic intelligence, monitoring, and coordination between various law enforcement and economic intelligence agencies.
Ministry: Incorrect. The CEIB falls under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance (not the Ministry of Home Affairs).
Function: Correct. It is a multi-disciplinary organization established to investigate complex, white-collar corporate frauds.
Ministry: Incorrect. The SFIO functions under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (not the Ministry of Finance).
Row 3: Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
Function: Correct. Its official vision includes preserving values in public life and ensuring the health of the national economy through thorough investigation and prosecution of corruption and economic crimes.
Ministry: Correct. The CBI operates under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions (specifically the Department of Personnel and Training).
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?
1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
A1, 2 and 3
B2 and 3 only
C1 only
D2 only
Correct Answer: Option D
Detailed Breakdown of the StatementsStatement 1 is INCORRECT:While a Zero FIR does bypass territorial boundaries, Section 173(1) of the BNSS, 2023 specifies that it can only be registered for cognizable offences, irrespective of where the crime occurred. It does not apply to non-cognizable offences. For non-cognizable offences, the police follow the procedure under Section 174, where they enter the substance in a separate diary and refer the informant to a Magistrate. Statement 2 is CORRECT:Under Section 173(3) of the BNSS, if the information received pertains to a cognizable offence punishable with an imprisonment term of three years or more but less than seven years, the Officer-in-Charge can initiate a time-bound preliminary enquiry (to be completed within 14 days) to ascertain if a prima facie case exists. This requires prior permission from an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police (the competent authority). Statement 3 is INCORRECT:It is not obligatory for the informant to submit information electronically. Section 173(1) clearly provides a choice: information regarding a cognizable offence may be given orally or by electronic communication. If it is submitted electronically (as an e-FIR), it must be signed by the informant within three days to be officially taken on record. SummarySince only Statement 2 is factually correct under the provisions of the BNSS, 2023, option (d) is the accurate choice.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:
1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.
2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.
3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.
A1 and 2
B2 and 3
C1 only
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option D
Detailed Breakdown of the Statements Statement 1 is INCORRECT: While the bridge is built over the Feni River, the locations have been cleverly swapped in the statement. The Maitri Setu actually connects Sabroom in India (Tripura) with Ramgarh in Bangladesh. It serves as a vital economic gateway giving Northeast India direct access to Bangladesh's Chittagong Port. Statement 2 is INCORRECT:The Jhulaghat suspension bridge is a historic crossing over the Mahakali (Sarda) River that connects India (Uttarakhand) with Nepal, not Myanmar. It serves as an important border checkpoint between the two neighboring nations. Statement 3 is CORRECT:The Mechi Bridge is an international bridge built over the Mechi River. It establishes a critical cross-border link between the Panitanki Bypass in India (West Bengal) and Kakarvitta in Nepal, facilitating regional trade and connectivity under the South Asia Subregional Economic Cooperation (SASEC) framework. SummaryBecause only the third statement accurately matches the bridge to its correct country-linkages, option (d) is the correct choice.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs
Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:
1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy.
3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.
A1, 2 and 3
B1 and 2 only
C2 and 3 only
D1 only
Correct Answer: Option A
Detailed Breakdown of the Statements Statement 1 is CORRECT: Announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in August 2025, Mission Sudarshan Chakra is India's ambitious initiative designed to create an integrated, multi-layered aerial defense and counter-offensive network. It explicitly fuses air defense (AD), ballistic missile defense (BMD), and aerial offensive capabilities into a unified "shield and sword" matrix. Statement 2 is CORRECT:The core philosophy behind the mission is to ensure rapid, automated, and precise responses against modern multi-vector threats (such as drone swarms, hypersonic weapons, and cruise missiles). By relying strictly on indigenous development (anchored heavily by DRDO’s Project Kusha), it fundamentally reinforces India's strategic autonomy and reduces reliance on foreign military hardware. Statement 3 is CORRECT:The timeline established for the full-scale implementation of Mission Sudarshan Chakra is 2035. The official mandate dictates expanding this AI-enabled protective umbrella nationwide to encompass not just critical military installations and strategic nodes, but also all major public spaces, civilian centers, and critical infrastructure to ensure comprehensive national safety. SummaryBecause every single statement accurately reflects the goals, design rationale, and targeted completion timeline of India's newest defense program, option (a) is the right choice.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:
1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of the Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
AThere are four correct statements.
BThere is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
CThere are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
DThere is no correct statement.
Correct Answer: Option D
Detailed Breakdown of the Statements
Statement 1 is INCORRECT:
The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is a Joint Parliamentary Committee. The Chairperson of this committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (not the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha) from amongst the members of the committee.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT:
The numerical distribution is exactly reversed. The Committee consists of 30 members in total: 20 members are elected by the Lok Sabha and 10 members are elected by the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 3 is INCORRECT:
No Minister at all can be elected as a member of this Committee. There is no exception for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment. If a member, after election to the Committee, is appointed as a Minister, they cease to be a member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.
Statement 4 is INCORRECT:
The term of office of the members of the Committee does not exceed one year (not two years). The Committee is reconstituted every year.
Summary
Because every single statement provided contains a factual error regarding the composition, appointment, eligibility, or tenure of the committee, option (d) is the correct choice.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:
1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
AAll the three statements are correct.
BThere are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
CThere is only one correct statement.
DThere is no correct statement.
Correct Answer: Option C
Statement 1 is INCORRECT:
An Unstarred Question is one to which a member desires a written answer on the table of the House. Because the answer is printed and not spoken aloud, it does not carry an asterisk mark.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT:
A Starred Question (distinguished by an asterisk mark) is one to which a member desires an oral answer on the floor of the House.
Statement 3 is CORRECT:
Because Unstarred Questions receive a written reply rather than an oral one, there is no immediate floor debate or follow-up. Therefore, no supplementary questions can be asked on them. Supplementary questions can only follow the oral answers given to Starred Questions.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:
1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
AThere are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
BThere are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
CThere is only one correct statement
DAll three statements are correct.
Correct Answer: Option A
Detailed Breakdown of the Statements
Statement 1 is INCORRECT:
The administration of Tribal Areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (often remembered by the acronym AMTM) is actually detailed under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India, not the Fifth Schedule. The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than these four.
Statement 2 is CORRECT:
Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specific areas (like the North-Eastern states and certain scheduled areas) are exempt from paying income tax on income earned within those areas or via dividend/interest.
Statement 3 is CORRECT:
Article 243D of the Constitution mandates the reservation of seats in Panchayats for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in proportion to their population. Furthermore, it explicitly states that not less than one-third of the total number of seats reserved for SCs/STs must be reserved for women belonging to those respective categories.
Summary
Since Statements 2 and 3 are correct, there are exactly two correct statements, making (a) the right choice.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Governance
Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?
1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2016, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).
A1 and 2
B2 only
C1 and 3
D1 only
Correct Answer: Option A
Here is the detailed breakdown of the statements:
Statement 1 is correct: The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwD) Act, 2016, increased the types of recognized disabilities from 7 to 21. It mandates a minimum of 5% reservation in higher education institutions and a minimum of 4% reservation in government jobs for persons with benchmark disabilities. It also places a binding legal duty on governments to ensure accessibility in public buildings, transport, and commercial environments.
Statement 2 is correct: Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) was launched as a nationwide flagship campaign to achieve universal accessibility for PwDs. It targets three vital pillars:
Built Environment Accessibility (ramps, lifts, tactile paths in buildings)
Transportation System Accessibility (airports, railway stations, buses)
Information and Communication Technology (ICT) Ecosystem Accessibility (accessible websites, sign language interpreters)
Statement 3 is incorrect: While the National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is indeed a not-for-profit company providing financial assistance for entrepreneurship to PwDs, it was set up under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:
1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?
AAll three statements are correct.
BThere is no correct statement.
CThere are two correct statements that include statement 3.
DThere is only one correct statement.
Correct Answer: Option B
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 393 (titled "Short title") explicitly states: "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India."
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 395 (titled "Repeals") explicitly repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the Government of India Act, 1935, along with all enactments amending or supplementing the latter Act.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 394 (titled "Commencement") explicitly states that while a few articles came into force on 26th November 1949, the remaining provisions of the Constitution shall come into force on the twenty-sixth day of January, 1950, which is explicitly referred to in this Constitution as the "date of commencement of this Constitution."
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Polity
'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive, it included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced.
Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:
A'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
BThe view of 'Y' that 'law' included custom is not correct.
CThe views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct.
DThe view of only 'Y' is correct.
Correct Answer: Option C
Here is the legal breakdown based on the explicit text of the Constitution of India:
'X' is correct regarding the comprehensive nature of 'law': Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution explicitly defines "law" to include any Ordinance, Order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom, or usage having in the territory of India the force of law. Therefore, 'X' was right about ordinances, orders, rules, and regulations being included.
'Y' is also correct (and 'X' was wrong to doubt it): Article 13(3)(a) explicitly states that the term "law" includes "custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law." This means unwritten customary laws or long-standing traditional practices can be challenged in court if they violate Fundamental Rights.
Since 'X' correctly identified one part of the definition and 'Y' correctly identified the other part, the constitutional definition encompasses both of their points. Thus, the views of both 'X' and 'Y' regarding what constitutes "law" are legally accurate.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Ethics
Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.
What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?
1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity
3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being
A1 and 2 only
B3 only
C2 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option B
Here is an ethical and administrative analysis of why Option 3 is the most appropriate course of action, while Options 1 and 2 are flawed:
Why Action 1 is inappropriate: Immediately making unproven allegations public violates official confidentiality protocols and can lead to defamation lawsuits. It could permanently ruin a company's reputation based on hearsay, creating a legal and administrative nightmare for the government before an official inquiry has even taken place.
Why Action 2 is inappropriate: Removing the contractor from the shortlist based on unproven allegations, without giving them a fair hearing or a formal investigation, violates the principle of natural justice and fair play. This arbitrary decision-making could be legally challenged by the contractor, bringing the entire project to a standstill.
Why Action 3 is the correct approach: Proposing a 'limited disclosure' to an internal oversight or vigilance committee balances all competing administrative values perfectly. It ensures institutional transparency (by not burying the info as the HOD suggested) and protects public trust, while simultaneously maintaining confidentiality and preventing premature public panic or legal liability. The oversight committee can then conduct a swift, objective verification of the claims.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Ethics
In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.
Consider the following statements with reference to the above:
1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.
Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?
A1, 3 and 4 only
B2, 3 and 4 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: Option A
Statement 1 contributes positively: In a multi-ethnic region with historical grievances, ignoring cultural sentiments fosters deep distrust. Validating and acknowledging the tribal community's sacred relationship with the land acts as an emotional de-escalation step, making them more receptive to dialogue.
Statement 2 does NOT contribute positively: Forcing the project through without delay or consensus ignores tribal rights and democratic grievance redressal. It would likely worsen the law-and-order situation, lead to prolonged legal battles, and violate principles of inclusive governance. Public administration dictates balancing competing interests rather than overriding a minority group's rights.
Statement 3 contributes positively: A multi-stakeholder dialogue platform brings conflicting parties to the negotiation table. It ensures participatory decision-making, promotes transparency, and bridges the gap between urban needs and tribal concerns.
Statement 4 contributes positively: An independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) introduces objectivity and science into an emotionally charged conflict. Sharing the findings transparently helps neutralize misinformation on social media and provides a factual, evidence-based foundation for alternatives (such as shifting the site or adding strict bio-safety safeguards).
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Ethics
Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.
Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?
AEsprit de corps
BEquity
CAccountability
DDelegation
Correct Answer: Option C
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology Geography
Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?
1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option B
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Deep Ocean Mission was launched and is being implemented by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Government of India, not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
Statement 2 is correct: Matsya-6000 is a manned submersible vehicle designed to carry three personnel to a depth of 6,000 meters for deep-sea exploration and resources mapping.
Statement 3 is correct: Samudrayaan is India's first unique manned ocean mission, and it is a key project executed under the umbrella of the broader Deep Ocean Mission.
Core Pillars of the Deep Ocean Mission
The mission is a multi-ministerial, multi-disciplinary programme focused on exploring the deep ocean for resources and developing deep-sea technologies. Its main components include:
Deep Sea Mining and Manned Submersible: Developing technologies for mining Polymetallic Nodules from the Central Indian Ocean Basin alongside the Samudrayaan project.
Ocean Climate Change Advisory Services: Developing a suite of observations and models to understand and predict climate alterations.
Technological Innovations for Deep-Sea Biodiversity: Exploration and conservation of deep-sea flora and fauna.
Deep Ocean Survey and Exploration: Mapping potential sites of multi-metal hydrothermal sulphides.
Energy and Freshwater from the Ocean: Engineering offshore Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) powered desalination plants.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?
1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits.
2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option C
Statement 1 is correct: One of the core targets of the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is to build intermediate-scale quantum computers. The targets are structured progressively over its 8-year timeline: developing 20–50 physical qubits in 3 years, 50–100 physical qubits in 5 years, and scaling up to 50–1,000 physical qubits by the end of the mission using different technological platforms like superconducting and photonic technologies. Statement 2 is correct: To drive the mission's objectives forward using a collaborative "Hub-Spoke-Spike" model, the government has set up four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in top academic and national R&D institutes across India.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?
1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option B
Here is a breakdown of why:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Drone swarms typically use standard military or commercial radio frequencies (like UHF, VHF, S-band, or C-band) and satellite links to communicate with command centers. The Terahertz (THz) band is not commonly used for long-range command-and-control because it suffers from high atmospheric attenuation (signals get absorbed easily by air and moisture) and has a very short range.
Statement 2 is correct: The defining feature of a drone swarm is its decentralized, mesh-networking capability. Individual drones constantly communicate with one another to coordinate movements, share data, and avoid collisions without needing direct instructions for every action from the main controller.
Statement 3 is correct: GPS Spoofing is a highly effective electronic warfare countermeasure. It works by broadcasting fake GPS signals that trick the drones' navigation systems into thinking they are somewhere else, causing them to drift off course, crash, or land prematurely.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?
1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option B
Here is a breakdown of why:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Drone swarms typically use standard military or commercial radio frequencies (like UHF, VHF, S-band, or C-band) and satellite links to communicate with command centers. The Terahertz (THz) band is not commonly used for long-range command-and-control because it suffers from high atmospheric attenuation (signals get absorbed easily by air and moisture) and has a very short range.
Statement 2 is correct: The defining feature of a drone swarm is its decentralized, mesh-networking capability. Individual drones constantly communicate with one another to coordinate movements, share data, and avoid collisions without needing direct instructions for every action from the main controller.
Statement 3 is correct: GPS Spoofing is a highly effective electronic warfare countermeasure. It works by broadcasting fake GPS signals that trick the drones' navigation systems into thinking they are somewhere else, causing them to drift off course, crash, or land prematurely.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology Current Affairs
Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme:
1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option C
Detailed Explanation of the Statements: Statement 1 is CORRECT: The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) was launched by the Government of India as a single-window, independent, nodal agency functioning autonomously under the Department of Space. Its primary mandate is to promote, enable, authorize, and supervise the participation of Private Sector Enterprises (Non-Governmental Entities) in India's space ecosystem, allowing them to utilize ISRO's infrastructure. Statement 2 is CORRECT: In May 2024, Chennai-based space startup AgniKul Cosmos successfully executed the sub-orbital launch of its Agnibaan SOrTeD rocket from India’s first private launchpad at Sriharikota. The mission achieved a historic global milestone by executing the world's first flight powered by a single-piece, 3D-printed semi-cryogenic rocket engine (known as Agnilet). Statement 3 is INCORRECT: This statement contains multiple factual mismatches. Skyroot Aerospace develops its own independent fleet of commercial launch vehicles called the Vikram series (like Vikram-S and Vikram-I), using their own propellants. They are not developing propulsion systems or liquid fuel for the GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle). The GSLV is a heavy-lift launch vehicle designed, owned, and operated entirely by ISRO, utilizing ISRO's proprietary solid motors, Vikas liquid engines, and cryogenic upper stages.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?
1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C2 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option B
Detailed Explanation of the Statements: Statement 1 is INCORRECT: The process described here—extracting hydrogen from natural gas (methane) through steam methane reforming but capturing and storing the resulting carbon emissions—defines Blue Hydrogen.Statement 2 is CORRECT: Green Hydrogen is strictly defined by its zero-emission production method. It is produced by splitting water ($H_2O$) into hydrogen and oxygen through a process called electrolysis, powered entirely by renewable energy sources like solar or wind power.Statement 3 is CORRECT: Under the National Green Hydrogen Mission launched by the Government of India, one of the primary targeted outcomes by the year 2030 is the abatement of nearly 50 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes) of annual greenhouse gas emissions, alongside building a production capacity of at least 5 MMT per annum.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?
1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.
2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.
3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option B
Detailed Explanation of the Statements: Statement 1 is INCORRECT: Black boxes do use a beacon to help search teams find them underwater, but it is an acoustic beacon (sound), not a visual one (light). This device is called an Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB). When the black box gets submerged in water, the acoustic sensor automatically triggers a "pinging" sound at a specific frequency ($37.5\text{ kHz}$) that can travel through water for up to 30 days. Red light pulses would be completely useless in the deep, dark, and murky depths of an ocean. Statement 2 is CORRECT: A modern aircraft actually carries a combination of two black box systems: the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR), which records crew conversations and cockpit radio communications, and the Flight Data Recorder (FDR), which tracks physical parameters like altitude, airspeed, wing flap positions, and engine performance. Statement 3 is CORRECT: To ensure that the critical flight data survives catastrophic crashes, massive explosions, intense fires, and extreme deep-sea pressure, the Crash-Survivable Memory Unit (CSMU) is heavily armored. The outer protective housing of the memory boards is typically forged from thick stainless steel or titanium, insulated with high-temperature thermal blocks.Quick Facts: The Aviation "Black Box"The Color Irony: Despite the name, black boxes are never painted black. They are painted bright fluorescent orange to make them easily visible among the debris of a crash site.Survival Capabilities: They are engineered to survive impacts of up to $3,400\text{ Gs}$ (gravitational force) and temperatures exceeding $1,100^\circ\text{C}$ for over an hour.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?
1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.
2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.
3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option C
Detailed Explanation of the Statements: Statement 1 is CORRECT: The main objective of stealth technology is to minimize an object's Radar Cross-Section (RCS)—which is a measure of how detectable an object is by radar. To do this, stealth aircraft or vessels utilize geometric shaping to deflect radar signals away from the source, and their surfaces are coated with Radar Absorbing Materials (RAM) (such as iron-ball paint or carbon composites) that capture the radio waves and dissipate their energy as heat. Statement 2 is CORRECT: No aircraft or object is entirely invisible to all radar systems. Stealth features are primarily optimized to evade high-frequency radar bands (like the X-band and Ku-band) used by military tracking and missile-guidance systems. However, they can still be detected using specific low-frequency radar bands (like VHF or UHF). The longer wavelengths of these frequencies interact with the physical dimensions of the aircraft (like the tail fins) and trigger a physical phenomenon called resonance, making tracking possible. Statement 3 is INCORRECT: This statement contains a classic physics trap. While advanced stealth applications do use artificially engineered metamaterials, they are used to decrease or eliminate radar scattering, not increase it. Metamaterials redirect or smoothly bend electromagnetic waves completely around an object (often called electromagnetic cloaking) or capture them so that no signal bounces back to the receiver. Increasing scattering would scatter radio waves wildly, making the object far more detectable to multi-static radar networks and defeating the entire premise of stealth.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?
1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.
3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.
A1 only
B1 and 2 only
C2 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option B
Detailed Explanation of the Statements:
Statement 1 is CORRECT: At their core, LLMs are advanced statistical text-prediction engines. When generating text, they calculate a probability distribution over their entire vocabulary for what the next token (word or piece of a word) should be, given the preceding context. While they don't always pick the absolute highest probability word (they use parameters like "temperature" to introduce creativity), the fundamental mechanism relies on assigning these probabilities.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: During the training phase, LLMs use mathematical optimization algorithms (such as Stochastic Gradient Descent) to adjust billions of internal weights. The goal of this process is to minimize a "loss function," which mathematically measures the difference between the model's predictions and the actual data, thereby minimizing prediction errors over time.
Statement 3 is INCORRECT: LLMs do not produce unbiased outputs. Because they are trained on massive datasets scraped from the internet, books, and articles, they inherently absorb and replicate the human biases, stereotypes, and prejudices present in that training data. Eliminating bias in AI remains one of the biggest ongoing challenges in machine learning research
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?
1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option C
Detailed Explanation of the Statements:
Statement 1 is CORRECT: Genetic medicines work by delivering genetic material (such as DNA or RNA) into a patient's cells to directly treat, prevent, or cure a disease. They achieve this by replacing or correcting a faulty, mutated gene, or by introducing a new gene to help the body compensate for a protein it cannot produce naturally.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: Naked genetic material cannot easily enter human cells on its own and is easily degraded by the body. To solve this, scientists use delivery vehicles (vectors). The most common carriers are:
Engineored viruses: (like Adeno-Associated Viruses or Lentiviruses) which are modified so they cannot cause disease but retain their ability to enter cells.
Lipid Nanoparticles (LNPs): Tiny fatty bubbles that encapsulate the genetic material, protecting it and helping it cross the cell membrane (famously used in mRNA COVID-19 vaccines).
Statement 3 is INCORRECT: Genetic medicines are highly targeted. They do not alter the entire DNA sequence of the human body. They only target the specific, localized gene or tissue responsible for the disease. For instance, gene therapies for hereditary blindness only target cells in the retina. Furthermore, many genetic medicines (like mRNA therapies) act temporarily in the cytoplasm without altering the patient's genomic DNA at all.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):
1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.
2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.
3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
A1 and 2 only
B1, 2 and 3
C1 and 3 only
D2 only
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation of the Statements:Statement 1 is CORRECT: The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) universally uses the Alkire-Foster (AF) methodology, which was developed by Sabina Alkire and James Foster. This method identifies poverty by looking at overlapping deprivations that a single household faces simultaneously. Statement 2 is CORRECT: When NITI Aayog designed India's National MPI, it modified the framework to align with national policy priorities, bringing the total number of indicators to twelve. Statement 3 is INCORRECT: Maternal Health and Bank Account are not common to both. They are the two additional indicators uniquely added by NITI Aayog to the National MPI. The Global MPI (developed by UNDP and OPHI) only has 10 indicators and does not include them.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India:
1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.
3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.
4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.
A1 and 4
B1, 2 and 3
C4 only
D2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: Option A
Breakdown of the Statements:
Statement 1 is correct: Unlike traditional commercial banks, NBFCs are strictly prohibited from accepting demand deposits (like current accounts or savings accounts where money can be withdrawn at any time). Certain NBFCs can only accept term/fixed deposits for a specific duration.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Not all NBFCs register with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). To avoid dual regulation, specific types of NBFCs are regulated by other statutory bodies. For example:
Housing Finance Companies are regulated by the National Housing Bank (NHB).
Merchant Banking, Venture Capital, and Mutual Fund Companies are regulated by SEBI.
Insurance Companies are regulated by IRDAI.
Chit Fund Companies are regulated by respective state governments.
Statement 3 is incorrect: NBFCs do not form part of the Payment and Settlement System in India. Consequently, they cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves (unlike commercial banks).
Statement 4 is correct: The deposit insurance facility provided by the DICGC (which covers bank deposits up to ₹5 lakh) is exclusively meant for depositors of commercial and cooperative banks. It is not extended to depositors of deposit-taking NBFCs, making NBFC deposits inherently riskier than bank deposits.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details:
1. R.N. Malhotra Committee | Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India | Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
2. L.C. Gupta Committee | Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India | Securities and Exchange Board of India
3. Urjit R. Patel Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector | Reserve Bank of India
4. Y.H. Malegam Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India | Reserve Bank of India
In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched?
A2 only
B2 and 3
C1, 3 and 4
D2 and 4
Correct Answer: Option D
Matrix Verification BreakdownTo understand why only rows 2 and 4 are fully correct, let's examine each pair:Row 1 is Incorrect: While the R.N. Malhotra Committee (1993–94) did recommend comprehensive reforms to India's insurance sector, it was set up by the Ministry of Finance (Government of India), not the IRDAI. In fact, the IRDAI itself was created in 1999 as a direct result of this committee's recommendations. An organization cannot set up the committee that recommended its own creation. Row 2 is Correct: The L.C. Gupta Committee (1998) was constituted by SEBI to formulate the regulatory framework for the launch of derivatives trading in India, laying the groundwork for Nifty and Sensex futures. Row 3 is Incorrect: The Urjit R. Patel Committee (2013–14) was the "Expert Committee to Revise and Strengthen the Monetary Policy Framework." Set up by the RBI, its landmark achievement was introducing CPI-based flexible inflation targeting and recommending the setup of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC). It had nothing to do with housing sector lending. Row 4 is Correct: The Y.H. Malegam Committee (2010–11) was set up by the RBI to study the issues and concerns in the Microfinance (MFI) sector following the Andhra Pradesh microfinance crisis.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?
1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.
2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option C
Breakdown of the Statements:
Statement 1 is correct: Crowdfunding is fundamentally a method of raising capital by soliciting small individual contributions from a large number of people ("the crowd"). This process is almost exclusively driven by online web-based platforms or social media networks, where a specific project, startup idea, or social cause is pitched to the public.
Statement 2 is correct: Traditional financing (like venture capital or an Initial Public Offering) involves highly rigorous, time-consuming, and expensive legal and regulatory compliance procedures. Crowdfunding allows Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) to bypass many of these traditional intermediaries. This can lower the overall cost of capital acquisition and streamline the fundraising process, making it highly accessible for smaller businesses.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?
1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.
2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option C
Breakdown of the Statements:
Statement 1 is correct: In aviation insurance, 'Hull Insurance' refers specifically to insurance that covers physical damage to the structure of the aircraft itself. This includes the fuselage, wings, engines, onboard instruments, and any continuously attached equipment, protecting the operator against losses from accidents on the ground or in flight. Statement 2 is correct: The Montreal Convention (1999) modernized international airline liability rules and established a two-tier liability system. Under the first tier, the airline is subject to strict liability (up to a specific financial limit measured in Special Drawing Rights, or SDRs) for the injury or death of a passenger caused by an onboard accident. The family/nominee does not need to prove negligence or fault on the part of the airline to claim this initial compensation. India ratified this convention, and it was integrated into domestic law via the Carriage by Air (Amendment) Act, 2009.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy Geography
Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?
1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.
4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 17 metallic elements (Note: text says 13 due to OCR distortion).
A1 and 3 only
B3 only
C1, 3 and 4
D1, 2 and 4
Correct Answer: Option C
The correct answer is (c) 1, 3 and 4.Here is a detailed breakdown of why the statements evaluate this way:Statement 1 is correct: Modern high-tech industries, including robotics, aerospace/space exploration, and AI hardware (such as advanced semiconductors and permanent magnets for data storage), rely heavily on REEs due to their unique magnetic, luminescent, and electrochemical properties. Statement 2 is incorrect: China dominates the global mining and processing of REEs by a massive margin. However, India is not the second-highest in mining production. According to data from the US Geological Survey (USGS), countries like the United States, Australia, Myanmar, and Thailand rank significantly higher than India in terms of annual REE mine production, despite India holding sizable raw reserves. Statement 3 is correct: To achieve self-reliance and build a resilient supply chain for green energy, high-tech, and defense applications, the Union Cabinet officially approved and launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) with an extensive financial outlay over a 7-year period. Statement 4 is correct: Rare Earth Elements structurally consist of exactly 17 metallic elements—the 15 lanthanides on the periodic table, plus scandium and yttrium. (The OCR distortion note accounts for typos in raw text scanning).
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy?
AA situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending
BA situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment
CA situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment
DA situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand
Correct Answer: Option B
How the Crowding Out Effect Works:
Increased Government Borrowing: When a government spends more than it earns in revenue (fiscal deficit), it borrows heavily from the financial market.
Rising Interest Rates: The massive demand for funds by the government reduces the total pool of loanable funds available in the banking system. According to the laws of demand and supply, this scarcity drives up the cost of borrowing (interest rates).
Reduction in Private Investment: Because interest rates are now higher, it becomes expensive for private businesses to take loans for expansion, factories, or new projects. Thus, government borrowing "crowds out" (pushes aside) private investment.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?
1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.
2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.
3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.
A1, 2 and 3
B2 only
C2 and 3 only
D1 only
Correct Answer: Option B
Here is the breakdown of why the statements are evaluated this way:Statement 1 is incorrect: M1xchange does not provide traditional, collateral-based loans. Instead, it offers collateral-free and without-recourse financing. The financing is purely based on the credit profile of the corporate buyer who accepted the invoice, meaning small business owners don't have to pledge land, property, or machinery. Statement 2 is correct: This is M1xchange’s core objective. It functions as an online marketplace under the RBI's TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System) framework, allowing MSMEs to auction and discount their unpaid trade invoices and Bills of Exchange to banks and NBFCs for quick, immediate cash. Statement 3 is incorrect: M1xchange is a digital trade exchange/marketplace, not a credit rating agency (like CRISIL, ICRA, or SMERA). While participating banks on the platform evaluate credit risk before bidding on an invoice, M1xchange itself does not issue credit ratings.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
A land whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:
AGreen Bond
BSocial Bond
CSustainability Bond
DSovereign Bond
Correct Answer: Option C
Here is why:
Sustainability Bonds are specific debt instruments where the proceeds are exclusively applied to finance or re-finance a combination of both Green (environmental) and Social projects.
Green Bonds (a) are used exclusively for environmental/climate projects.
Social Bonds (b) are used exclusively for projects that achieve positive social outcomes (like affordable housing or healthcare).
Sovereign Bonds (d) are government-issued bonds used to fund general government spending, not necessarily tied to sustainability.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?
1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.
2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24 x 7 access, promoting financial inclusion.
3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.
A1, 2 and 3
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: Option A
Here is a quick breakdown of why all three statements are correct:
Statement 1 is correct: At its core, RWA tokenization is the process of converting ownership rights of a physical or traditional financial asset (like real estate, gold, or bonds) into a digital token on a blockchain.
Statement 2 is correct: Because blockchains operate continuously without traditional banking hours, tokenized assets can be traded 24/7. This global accessibility, combined with the ability to fractionally own expensive assets, drastically lowers the barrier to entry, promoting financial inclusion.
Statement 3 is correct: Tokenization allows Indian investors to fractionally invest in previously inaccessible, high-value, or cross-border growth assets (such as premium international real estate or global private equity) with relatively small amounts of capital.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?
AUPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.
BIn case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited, but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.
CUPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.
DIn both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.
Correct Answer: Option D
Why Option (d) is NOT correct:
The critical difference between UPI and the Digital Rupee (e₹) lies in who holds the ultimate financial liability.
UPI Liability: UPI is a payment channel that moves commercial bank money. When you hold money in a UPI-linked bank account, that money is technically a debt the bank owes you. Therefore, the financial liability lies with that specific commercial bank. If the bank fails, your deposit is at risk (beyond deposit insurance limits).
Digital Rupee (CBDC) Liability: The Digital Rupee is a digital form of legal tender issued directly by the central bank. It is not a deposit in a commercial bank account. Instead, it represents a direct liability of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), exactly like physical paper currency notes. If you hold a Digital Rupee in your digital wallet, the central bank guarantees its value, completely bypassing commercial bank risk.
Why the other statements are correct:
(a) is correct: UPI is an electronic fund transfer overlay system built on top of the banking infrastructure. The Digital Rupee, however, is a sovereign currency itself—it is legal tender in digital blocks rather than paper notes.
(b) is correct: UPI requires an instantaneous clearing and interbank settlement process behind the scenes to move funds from Bank A to Bank B. In contrast, Digital Rupee transactions are instant, final settlements by themselves. When tokens move from Wallet A to Wallet B, the absolute asset changes hands directly; there is no secondary interbank ledger that needs to reconcile.
(c) is correct: Because UPI transfers are bank-to-bank ledger adjustments, every transaction appears on your traditional bank passbook/statement. Digital Rupee transfers take place anonymously or semi-anonymously through cryptographic wallets, leaving no footprints on your standard savings bank account statement.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative?
ATo allow government control over all digital commerce transactions
BTo replace private e-commerce players
CTo break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks
DTo mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions
Correct Answer: Option C
Understanding the ONDC Initiative:
The Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is a landmark initiative by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
The Core Objective: Currently, Indian e-commerce operates in platform-centric silos (where a buyer on Amazon can only buy from a seller on Amazon). ONDC shifts this to an open network model modeled after UPI.
How Interoperability Works: It allows any buyer on any participating app (like Paytm or PhonePe) to discover and purchase products from any seller registered on any other participating network provider (like a local mom-and-pop store or Dunzo).
The Goal: This democratic structure unbundles the supply chain, breaks the duopoly/monopoly of e-commerce giants, lowers entry barriers for small local merchants, and gives consumers more choices.
Why the other options are incorrect:
(a) is incorrect: ONDC is a market-led, open-protocol network, not an attempt by the government to nationalize or control transactions.
(b) is incorrect: It does not seek to replace giants like Amazon or Flipkart; instead, it invites them to onboard onto the network to co-exist alongside micro-enterprises on an equal playing field.
(d) is incorrect: While ONDC seamlessly integrates with UPI for easy payments, it does not mandate it. Consumers can use credit cards, debit cards, net banking, or cash on delivery.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
ACredit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage
BBanking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy
CAccess, Usage, and Quality
DAccess, Affordability, and Transparency
Correct Answer: Option C
Understanding the RBI's Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index):
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constructed the FI-Index to capture the extent of financial inclusion across the country. It is a comprehensive index that incorporates details of banking, investments, insurance, postal, and the pension sector.
The index is built upon three broad parameters (sub-indices), each assigned a specific weightage based on its importance:
Access (35% weight): Measures the structural availability of financial entry points. It looks at metrics like the number of bank branches, ATMs, post offices, and banking correspondents per lakh population.
Usage (45% weight): Measures how actively the population is utilizing these services. It tracks metrics like the number of active savings accounts, credit accounts, insurance policies, and digital transactions.
Quality (20% weight): A unique dimension that measures the qualitative aspect of financial services. It evaluates financial literacy, consumer protection, grievance redressal mechanisms, and the minimization of financial frauds.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:
ADropshipping Model
BAffiliate Revenue Model
CTransaction Fee Revenue Model
DAgency Revenue Model
Correct Answer: Option A
Why Dropshipping is the correct choice:
In a Dropshipping Model, the e-commerce merchant acts as a middleman. The merchant hosts a storefront, markets the products, and sets their own retail prices (controlling the profit margin). However, they carry zero inventory. When a customer buys an item, the merchant purchases it at a wholesale price from a third-party supplier (often a manufacturer or wholesaler), who handles the logistics and ships the product directly to the end consumer.
Why the other options are incorrect:
(b) Affiliate Revenue Model: In this model, the marketer does not sell the product or handle the checkout transaction. They merely redirect traffic to another seller's website via a tracking link and earn a set commission if a purchase is made. They have no control over the product pricing.
(c) Transaction Fee Revenue Model: This is an infrastructure model used by marketplaces or payment gateways (like eBay, Amazon, or PayPal). They charge a fee or commission percentage to facilitate a transaction between independent buyers and sellers. They do not sell products directly.
(d) Agency Revenue Model: In this model, an agent connects buyers and sellers (common in real estate, travel, or freelancing) and earns a predetermined commission or fee for brokering the deal. The pricing is usually set by the primary seller, not the agent.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?
1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.
2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.
3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.
4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.
A1 and 3
B2 and 4 only
C1, 2 and 4
D1 and 4 only
Correct Answer: Option C
Detailed Analysis of the Statements:
Statement 1 is correct: Blockchain relies on a shared ledger system where records are visible to authorized or relevant stakeholders (depending on permission levels), providing complete transparency while cryptographic security prevents unauthorized alteration.
Statement 2 is correct: A core feature of blockchain is its distributed ledger architecture. Copies of the entire database are stored across multiple nodes (computers) on a network, and consensus protocols ensure they sync almost instantly when a new block is added.
Statement 3 is technically inaccurate in a strict context: While a consortium blockchain restricts access to a specific group of organizations (making it a "federated" or semi-private network), it is not a blend of public and private blockchains. The correct term for a blend of public and private features that allows selective data access to the public while keeping some data private is a Hybrid Blockchain.
Statement 4 is correct: Cryptographic hashing and mathematical consensus algorithms (like Proof of Work or Proof of Stake) ensure immutability. Once data is verified and written into a block, it is practically impossible to alter or delete without changing every subsequent block, which requires controlling more than 51% of the network's computing power.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs Art & Culture
Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong':
1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children's and Family Film category.
2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category.
A1, 2 and 3
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of the Statements:
Statement 1 is correct: The Manipuri-language film Boong won the prestigious Best Children's and Family Film award at the 79th British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Awards held in February 2026. It famously beat major international animated and live-action titles like Zootopia 2 and Lilo & Stitch. Statement 2 is correct: The film marked the spectacular directorial debut of filmmaker Lakshmipriya Devi, who also wrote the heartwarming coming-of-age screenplay centered around a young boy's quest to find his missing father in Manipur. Statement 3 is correct: Boong made cinematic history on the global stage by becoming the first-ever Indian film to win a BAFTA award specifically in the Children's and Family Film category.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs Science and Technology
Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System', is/are correct?
1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.
2. It was developed by IIT Delhi.
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option A
Analysis of the Statements:
Statement 1 is correct: The primary goal of the Bharat Forecast System (BharatFS) is to generate micro-level, hyper-local weather predictions down to the Panchayat cluster level (or block level). Operating on an ultra-precise $6\text{ km} \times 6\text{ km}$ horizontal grid resolution, it can map distinct forecasts every 6 kilometers to significantly improve early warnings for localized extreme events like cloudbursts, helping rural communities and farmers. Statement 2 is incorrect: It was not developed by IIT Delhi. The system was indigenously developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, in collaboration with the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF) and the India Meteorological Department (IMD) under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs Economy Geography
Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?
ACG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat
BTata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam
CHCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh
DSicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha
Correct Answer: Option C
Why Option (c) is incorrectly matched:
The HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture (India Chip Pvt. Ltd.) is setting up its Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test (OSAT) facility in Uttar Pradesh (at the Yamuna Expressway Industrial Development Authority - YEIDA region near Jewar, Greater Noida), not in Madhya Pradesh.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs
Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?
1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.
2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.
3. There is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.
A1 and 2 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option C
Analysis of the Statements:
Statement 1 is correct: The four major tennis tournaments (Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, and US Open) operate under a unified, shared governance structure facilitated by the Grand Slam Board (formerly the Grand Slam Committee). This board consists of representatives from the four tournaments and the International Tennis Federation (ITF) to ensure uniform rules and partnership code-of-conduct enforcement across all majors. Statement 2 is incorrect: While the rules prevent players under the age of 14 from competing, being "above the age of 14" does not automatically open entry to all internationally ranked players. To enter the Grand Slam qualification or main draws, players must meet strict performance-based ranking thresholds (typically a ranking of 500 or better) and adhere to structural age-eligibility phase-ins (such as the WTA/ATP Age Eligibility rules that restrict workload for players aged 14–17). Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the official Grand Slam Rulebook, there is no limitation on the collective number of wild cards a player may receive to compete in Grand Slam Tournaments. While regular ATP and WTA tour events place strict limits on annual wild cards to protect competitive integrity, each Grand Slam tournament committee retains absolute independent discretion over its entry invitations.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Science and Technology
'X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X':
AMichel H. Devoret
BRichard Robson
CJohn Clarke
DJoel Mokyr
Correct Answer: Option C
Why John Clarke is the correct choice:
The Award & Subject: He was co-awarded the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics alongside Michel H. Devoret and John M. Martinis for "the discovery of macroscopic quantum mechanical tunnelling and energy quantisation in an electric circuit." His foundational work paved the way for superconducting qubits used in modern quantum computing.
Vajiram & Ravi
Birthplace: He was born in Cambridge, United Kingdom.
Legacy IAS Academy
University Affiliation: At the time of the prize announcement, he was serving as a Professor Emeritus of Physics at the University of California, Berkeley (an American university).
Legacy IAS Academy
Why the other options are incorrect:
(a) Michel H. Devoret: While he co-won the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics and taught at an American university (Yale/UC Santa Barbara), he was born in France, not the UK.
Vajiram & Ravi
(b) Richard Robson: He won the 2025 Nobel Prize in Chemistry (for metal-organic frameworks) and was born in the UK, but he spent his career at an Australian university (University of Melbourne), not an American one.
Dalvoy
(d) Joel Mokyr: He won the 2025 Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences, and while he is a professor at an American university (Northwestern University), he was born in the Netherlands, not the UK.
Dalvoy
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs
The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct?
1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025.
2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.
3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.
A1, 2 and 3
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1 only
Correct Answer: Option C
Detailed ExplanationStatement 1 is correct: The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) officially notified IS 19445 : 2025 (Bomb Disposal Systems — Performance Evaluation and Requirements) as India’s first dedicated national standard for evaluating bomb disposal equipment (such as bomb suits, blankets, and baskets). Statement 2 is correct: One of the core objectives of this standard is to establish uniform testing and procurement benchmarks. This directly improves the reliability and interoperability of the equipment across various state police forces, central paramilitary forces (CAPFs), and defence agencies during joint security operations. Statement 3 is incorrect: The standard was developed indigenously. It was formulated following a request from the Ministry of Home Affairs, under a panel convened by the Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory (TBRL), Chandigarh, a premier lab of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). There was no collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute of Russia.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) International Relations
The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?
1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg
2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation
3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific
4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow
A2 and 3
B1 and 4
C3 and 4
D1 only
Correct Answer: Option B
Detailed Explanation of the Statements
The question asks to identify which outcomes are not correct based on the official list of deliverables from German Chancellor Friedrich Merz's state visit to India in January 2026. Statement 1 is NOT correct: While an MoU on traditional medicine and Ayurveda was signed, the partner institution was Charité University, Berlin (Germany's premier medical research institution), not the University of Hamburg. Statement 2 is correct: A Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development was officially signed between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation (Deutscher Hockey-Bund e.V.) to promote grassroots sports exchange. Statement 3 is correct: Both nations officially deepened their maritime and geopolitical convergence by announcing the establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific. Statement 4 is NOT correct: Germany announced the opening of a new Honorary Consulate in Ahmedabad, Gujarat (which was the primary location for the bilateral summit, the CEO forum, and the International Kite Festival attended by the Chancellor). No consul was opened in Lucknow. Since statements 1 and 4 are the incorrect outcomes, the option that groups them together is (b).
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs
Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?
1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.
A1, 2 and 3
B1 and 3 only
C2 only
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option B
The NIRANTAR platform (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience) is an institutional mechanism launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). It is designed to foster coordination, eliminate institutional silos, and create synergy among existing environmental research bodies without establishing new infrastructure. It is structured around four distinct thematic verticals: Statement 1 is correct: The Ecosystem Survey and Analysis vertical is indeed led by the Botanical Survey of India (BSI), Kolkata. This vertical focuses on baseline biodiversity assessment, floristic mapping, and ecosystem health monitoring. Statement 2 is incorrect: The lead institute for the Research and Management of Ecosystem Services vertical is the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun, not the Central Zoo Authority (CZA). Statement 3 is correct: The Capacity Development Support vertical is led by the Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), Bhopal. This vertical focuses on professional training, administrative upskilling, and multi-institutional knowledge exchange for sustainable resource management.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Current Affairs
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (INTERPOL Notice) | List II (Description)
A. Silver Notice | 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies
B. Blue Notice | 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation
C. Black Notice | 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety
D. Green Notice | 4. To identify and trace criminal assets
AA-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
BA-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
CA-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
DA-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation of the Matches
Here is how the INTERPOL notices correctly match with their descriptions:A. Silver Notice $\rightarrow$ 4. To identify and trace criminal assets: This notice is used to monitor, locate, and identify assets derived from criminal activities or belonging to individuals subject to sanctions.B. Blue Notice $\rightarrow$ 2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation: It is issued to locate a person of interest or obtain evidence in an ongoing investigation.C. Black Notice $\rightarrow$ 1. To seek information on unidentified bodies: This is specifically used to determine the identity of deceased individuals.D. Green Notice $\rightarrow$ 3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety: It is issued to provide intelligence about career criminals who are likely to repeat crimes in other countries.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?
1. Bahrain
2. Syria
3. Qatar
4. Egypt
A1 and 2
B1 and 3
C2 and 3
D3 and 4
Correct Answer: Option B
The Strait of Hormuz is a strategically vital waterway that connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea (which is part of the Indian Ocean). It is the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean.
Bahrain (1) and Qatar (3) are island/peninsular nations located entirely within the Persian Gulf. Therefore, any maritime trade or ship leaving these countries to reach the Indian Ocean must pass through the Strait of Hormuz.
Syria (2) and Egypt (4) are located in the Levant and North Africa, respectively. They have coastlines along the Mediterranean Sea (and Egypt also borders the Red Sea). They do not use the Strait of Hormuz to access the Indian Ocean; instead, they use the Suez Canal and the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?
1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation of the Statements
Statement 1 is correct: Oeko-Tex Standard 100 is one of the world's best-known labels for textiles tested for harmful substances. Certification proves that the product is free from toxic chemicals, which gives Indian exporters a massive competitive edge in high-end global markets (like the EU and US) where buyers strictly prioritize consumer safety and non-hazardous materials.
Statement 2 is correct: Eri Silk is already naturally sustainable because it is produced via a non-violent process (the silk is harvested only after the moth leaves the cocoon, earning it the name "Peace Silk"). Combining this inherent eco-friendly nature with a globally recognized safety and quality certification like Oeko-Tex validates it for premium, eco-conscious global brands.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?
1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation of the Statements
Statement 1 is incorrect: The RAD initiative specifically promotes Integrated Farming Systems (IFS), which encourages crop diversification, multi-cropping, and combining agriculture with activities like horticulture, livestock, and fishery. It explicitly discourages monoculture because monoculture increases vulnerability to pests and climate risks.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The focus of RAD is entirely on rainfed areas (regions dependent on rainfall rather than artificial irrigation), not irrigated regions.
Statement 3 is correct: The core objective of RAD is to make rainfed agriculture more productive, sustainable, and resilient. It does this by introducing IFS, which helps farmers diversify their income streams and minimizes the risks posed by erratic climate patterns.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?
1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option A
Explanation of the Statements:
Statement 1 is correct: The Pangti village and other local communities around Doyang Lake in Nagaland were once known for hunting Amur Falcons. However, through massive, sustained community-led conservation efforts, the area was transformed into a safe haven. Today, Nagaland is proudly celebrated as the "Falcon Capital of the World."
Statement 2 is incorrect: While scientists use advanced tracking technologies (like satellite radio transmitters) to study and map their incredible migration routes, these technologies do not "guide" the birds. The falcons navigate naturally using their own innate biological compass, genetic programming, and environmental cues.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Amur Falcons have absolutely not adapted to permanent residency in India. They are strictly migratory. They breed in East Asia (Siberia, Northern China, Mongolia), use Northeast India (especially Nagaland) as a crucial stopover site to feast on termites and build fat reserves, and then complete an epic journey across the Indian Ocean to winter in Southern Africa.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?
1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation of the Statements:
Statement 1 is correct: Uttar Pradesh shares its border with the highest number of states—8 states (Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Bihar) plus 1 Union Territory (Delhi).
Statement 2 is incorrect: West Bengal shares the longest international border among all Indian states (running approximately 2,217 km along Bangladesh). While Rajasthan has a massive international border with Pakistan (1,037 km), it is not the longest.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Sikkim is not the only state that shares its boundary with just one other Indian state. Meghalaya also shares its land border with only one Indian state (Assam), with the rest of its boundary touching Bangladesh. (Sikkim shares its domestic border only with West Bengal).
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:
1. It has an antecedent drainage system.
2. It flows through three countries.
3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
4. It does not form distributaries.
ABrahmaputra
BIndus
CSutlej
DTeesta
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation of the Criteria:
Antecedent Drainage: An antecedent river is one that existed before the uplifting of the mountains (the Himalayas) and maintained its course by cutting deep gorges through the rising land. The Sutlej, Brahmaputra, and Indus are all antecedent rivers, but this feature eliminates Teesta.
Flows through Three Countries: The Sutlej flows through China (Tibet), India, and Pakistan. (The Brahmaputra flows through China, India, and Bangladesh; the Indus flows through China, India, and Pakistan).
Originates in Tibet and Crucial for Irrigation: The Sutlej originates near Mount Kailash from Lake Rakshastal in Tibet. It is the backbone of the Indus Basin Irrigation System, feeding major canals like the Indira Gandhi Canal and supporting the Bhakra-Nangal dam project.
Does not form distributaries: This is the deciding factor. Unlike the Indus and Brahmaputra, which branch out into extensive networks of distributaries forming massive deltas before emptying into the sea (the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal, respectively), the Sutlej is a tributary. It merges into the Indus River (via the Panjnad River in Pakistan) and therefore does not form its own independent deltaic distributaries at the ocean.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy?
1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination.
3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation of the Statements:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Vizhinjam is not built to be an exclusive domestic cargo hub, nor does it eliminate foreign collaboration. In fact, it is designed as an International Deepwater Trans-shipment Seaport operated in a Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model with the Adani Group, actively aiming to attract global shipping lines.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While it may handle cruise ships as a secondary benefit, its primary, structural purpose is commercial cargo and container trans-shipment, not tourism or heritage shipping.
Statement 3 is correct: This is the core economic and strategic rationale behind the project. Vizhinjam has a natural, uncontaminated deep draft of up to 20-24 meters, allowing it to accommodate mega-container ships (Ultra Large Container Vessels). Located incredibly close to the International East-West Shipping Channel, it allows India to trans-ship its own cargo locally rather than relying on foreign hubs like Colombo, Singapore, or Dubai, thereby saving billions in forex and boosting maritime revenue.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?
1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option D
Explanation of the Statements:
Statement 1 is incorrect: While mangroves do reduce tidal energy, they do not store freshwater in a way that makes their saline estuarine belts ideal for paddy cultivation. Paddy (rice) cultivation generally requires freshwater and low salinity. Clearing mangroves for agriculture actually disrupts the coastal ecosystem and leads to severe soil salinity issues.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Mangroves are halophytes (salt-tolerant plants), meaning they have salt-resistant or salt-secreting adaptations, not salt-sensitive ones. Furthermore, their ecological role is to maintain the coastal estuarine balance, not to serve as a tool for converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones. In fact, converting mangrove forests into aquaculture ponds has historically caused severe ecological damage.
Statement 3 is correct: This perfectly captures the rationale for mangrove conservation in the context of climate resilience. Mangroves have complex, dense root systems that act as a natural bio-shield, absorbing the impact of storm surges, tsunamis, and high tides. Simultaneously, they support local rural economies by providing wood, medicinal plants, and acting as breeding grounds for fish and crabs (livelihood bases).
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation of the Statements:
Statement 1 is correct: The Hoolock Gibbon is the only ape species found in India, specifically in the Northeast. The Hoollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam is a famous protected area dedicated to them. The Western Hoolock Gibbon is currently listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Statement 2 is correct: Gibbons are famous for brachiation—a specialized form of arboreal locomotion where they use their long arms to swing from branch to branch through the forest canopy.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Gibbons do not possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas. In fact, they are lesser apes, characterized by their lightweight, slender bodies, and elongated arms, which are perfectly adapted for agility and swinging through trees. Gorillas are great apes that spend most of their time on the ground due to their massive weight.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change:
I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.
II. India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.
III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?
1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation of the Statements:
Statement I is true: India formally submitted its Long-Term Low-Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) at COP27, outlining the transition pathway to achieve its net-zero emissions target by 2070.
Statement II is true: India's 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) recorded a significant drop in greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 compared to 2019. This drop was empirically driven by the economic slowdown and lockdowns during the COVID-19 pandemic.
Statement III is false/flawed: Climate-resilient development does not necessarily depend on "quick and short-term" targets. In fact, true climate resilience requires sustained, long-term structural transitions across decades (like the 2070 net-zero target).
Evaluation of the Relationships:
Relationship 1 is correct: Statement I sets a long-term goal (net-zero by 2070), and Statement II provides the empirical data (actual recorded emission drops) that supports the feasibility and downward trajectory needed for that long-term strategy.
Relationship 2 is correct: Statement III promotes a "quick and short-term" approach, which directly contradicts the fundamental philosophy of Statement I, which is explicitly a long-term strategy (LT-LEDS).
Relationship 3 is incorrect: Statement III cannot establish a premise for sustainability because its short-term focus contradicts the long-term planning required for sustainable development.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?
AUttarakhand REDD+ project
BICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas
CKhasi Hills Community REDD+ project
DSikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project
Correct Answer: Option C
Here is a quick breakdown of why:
The Project: The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project, located in Meghalaya, India, was established to restore degraded forests and preserve the region's rich biodiversity.
The Certification: It became India's first project to be certified under the Plan Vivo standard, which specifically focuses on community-led forestry and land-use projects that combat climate change while supporting local livelihoods.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?
1. It is the largest desert lake in the world.
2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'.
A1 only
B1 and 3 only
C2 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option B
Here is why:
Statement 1 is correct: Lake Turkana is indeed the world's largest permanent desert lake (and the world's largest alkaline lake).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The lake is located primarily in northern Kenya, with its northernmost tip crossing into Ethiopia. It is not in South Sudan, nor is it along the Sahara desert (it lies in the East African Rift Valley).
Statement 3 is correct: It is famously nicknamed the "Jade Sea" due to its breathtaking turquoise-green color (caused by algae). The Lake Turkana National Parks are also listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihoods and "Blue Transformation".
Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct?
ABetter production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean
BBetter production, better nutrition, better environment and better life
CBetter coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life
DBetter estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation
Correct Answer: Option B
The "Four Betters" represent the structural core of the Food and Agriculture Organization's (FAO) Strategic Framework. They are designed as a systems lens to guide the transformation of global agrifood systems—including fisheries and aquaculture under the Blue Transformation roadmap—toward the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). Even though the context here specifically targets marine ecosystems and oceans, the foundational pillars of the FAO framework remain fixed. The four components are explicitly defined as:Better Production: Ensuring sustainable consumption and production patterns, through efficient and resilient inclusive supply chains. Better Nutrition: Ending hunger, achieving food security, and improving nutrition in all its forms, including promoting healthy aquatic diets. Better Environment: Protecting, restoring, and promoting sustainable use of terrestrial and marine ecosystems, while combating climate change. Better Life: Promoting inclusive economic growth, reducing inequalities, and improving the livelihoods of rural and coastal communities, explicitly aiming to "leave no one behind."
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?
1. They acted as army fortresses.
2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.
A1 only
B1 and 3
C3 only
D2 and 4
Correct Answer: Option C
Moidams (also spelled Maidams) are the vaulted mound-burial systems of the Tai-Ahom dynasty, which ruled the Brahmaputra Valley in Assam for nearly 600 years.
The Core Purpose: They served strictly as the burial grounds for the kings (Swargadeos), royals, and high-ranking nobles. They were neither fortresses, recreation spaces, nor military drill centers.
Structure: A Moidam typically consists of a massive earth mound or tumulus rising over a subterranean brick or stone burial chamber. Inside, the deceased royal was laid to rest along with their belongings, ornaments, and occasionally even attendants.
Global Recognition: The Charaideo Moidams in Assam were inscribed onto the UNESCO World Heritage Site list in July 2024 under the cultural category, making them India's 43rd World Heritage Site and the first cultural site from Northeast India to receive this distinction.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Environment & Ecology
Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid):
1. It is an epiphytic orchid.
2. The species is endemic to North-east India.
3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A1 only
B1 and 3
C2 and 3
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option B
Statement 1 is correct: Rhynchostylis retusa (commonly known as the Foxtail Orchid) is an epiphytic orchid, meaning it grows harmlessly upon another plant or tree and derives its moisture and nutrients from the air, rain, and debris accumulating around it.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The species is not endemic to North-east India. While it is widely famous and abundant there, it is found across a broad geographical range, including the Western Ghats of India, the rest of the Indian subcontinent, and throughout Southeast Asia (countries like Malaysia, Indonesia, Sri Lanka, and the Philippines).
Statement 3 is correct: Because of its cultural and ecological significance, it is officially designated as the State Flower of both Assam (where it is known as Kopou Phool and is an integral part of the Bihu festival) and Arunachal Pradesh.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Economy
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India:
I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.
II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.
III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.
Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?
1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option B
Explanation
Relationship 1 is correct: Statement I outlines the foundational goal of the Sagarmala Programme (port-led growth via sustainable infrastructure). Statement II points to the real-world results (growth in traffic, higher global rankings), which directly validates that the strategies envisioned in Statement I have been effective.
Relationship 2 is correct: Statement III discusses Sagarmala 2.0 and the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047. This newer iteration doesn't replace the original goals of port-led development (Statement I); rather, it extends them by integrating modern, future-oriented goals like maritime innovation, green shipping, and smart ports to align with the Viksit Bharat 2047 vision.
Relationship 3 is incorrect: Statement I does not contradict Statement III. The transition from foundational infrastructure (Sagarmala 1.0) to a tech-driven innovation hub (Sagarmala 2.0) represents a natural, complementary evolution and expansion of the policy, not a contradiction.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?
1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option B
Statement 1 is correct: The Western Coast of India has experienced tectonic movements resulting in both submergence and emergence. The northern part of the west coast (including parts of Maharashtra and Gujarat) features submerged coastlines due to faulting and tectonic activity during the separation of the Indian plate from Africa.
Statement 2 is correct: The Peninsular Block is composed of very old, highly stable, and deeply eroded rock systems. Over millions of years, weathering and erosion have reduced the ancient mountains into residual hills (or relict mountains). The Veliconda Hills (Andhra Pradesh) and Mahendragiri Hills (Odisha) are prime examples of such residual structures in the Eastern Ghats.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Deep, V-shaped valleys formed by fast-flowing, youthful rivers are a characteristic feature of the Himalayan Mountain System, not the Peninsular Block. The peninsular rivers are much older, have reached their base level of erosion, and flow through shallow, broad, and graded valleys with gentle gradients.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option B
Statement 1 is correct: Due to its proximity to the equator and being completely surrounded by the sea, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands experience a classic humid, tropical coastal climate. The temperatures remain warm and relatively uniform throughout the year, with high levels of relative humidity.
Statement 2 is correct: The islands lie directly in the path of both major monsoon systems in India. They receive heavy rainfall from the South-West monsoon (roughly May to September) and the North-East monsoon (roughly October to December).
Statement 3 is incorrect: The maximum precipitation occurs during the monsoon months, typically between May and November. The period between December and April/May is actually considered the relatively dry season for the islands, making the statement opposite to reality.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
A1 only
B1 and 2
C2 and 3
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option B
Statement 1 is correct: In early 2025, Madhav National Park was officially designated as India's 58th Tiger Reserve (and the 9th Tiger Reserve within Madhya Pradesh) by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA).
Statement 2 is correct: Sakhya Sagar is a prominent lake created on the Manihar River within the national park. It was officially designated as a Ramsar Site (Wetland of International Importance) in 2022.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Madhav National Park is located entirely within the Shivpuri district of northwest Madhya Pradesh. Its area is not shared with Rajasthan, though it sits close to the border regions of the Chambal division.
Quick Facts for Revision:Location: Shivpuri, Madhya Pradesh (Vindhyan Hill Range) Historical Significance: It was formerly the royal hunting ground for the Mughal Emperors and the Maharaja of Gwalior. Key Landmark: George Castle, built inside the forest in 1911 by Madho Rao Scindia for King George V.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History
Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?
AEcuador
BPeru
CBolivia
DColombia
Correct Answer: Option A
The Tungurahua Volcano (known as the "Throat of Fire" in the indigenous Quechua language) is an active stratovolcano situated in the central Andean region of Ecuador. In April 2025, UNESCO's Executive Board officially designated the Tungurahua Volcano region as a UNESCO Global Geopark to recognize its extraordinary 417-million-year geological history, unique volcanic and glacial landscapes, and the successful involvement of local communities in sustainable geo-tourism.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History
Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period:
I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.
II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.
Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?
1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle).
3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.
A1 and 2 only
B1, 2 and 3
C1 and 3 only
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option B
Here is a quick breakdown of why:
Statement 1 supports Statement I & II: The Rigveda explicitly mentions the ashma chakra (a stone pulley wheel) and ahava (water pails/troughs), which proves that well-irrigation and water-lifting technology existed to draw water from underground levels.
Statement 3 supports Statement II: The historical use of oxen for heavy labor (like pulling carts and ploughing) directly supports the premise that draught-animal power was available and employed to work these water-drawing mechanisms.
Statement 2 is irrelevant: While axes (parashu) and sickles (datra) prove that agriculture and land-clearing were happening, they do not provide any evidence specifically regarding wells, irrigation, or animal-drawn water systems.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History
Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?
AThe Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.
BThe Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.
CThe Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.
DThe Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.
Correct Answer: Option C
The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928, Gujarat): This movement was launched under the leadership of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel specifically to protest the Bombay colonial government's arbitrary decision to increase land revenue by 22% in the Bardoli taluka during a period of severe agricultural distress.
The Eka Movement (1921–1922, Awadh/UP): Also known as the Unity Movement, this was a peasant uprising triggered by the oppressive demands of local landlords (taluqdars and zamindars). The landlords were extracting exorbitant rents that were 50% higher than the officially recorded rates, alongside illegal cesses (nazrana). The peasants took a ritual vow (Eka) to pay only the recorded, lawful rent.
Why other options are incorrect:
(a) is incorrect: It reverses the relationship with the Congress. The Bardoli Satyagraha was fully aligned with mainstream Congress methods, heavily guided by Mahatma Gandhi's principles, and led by senior Congress leader Vallabhbhai Patel. Conversely, while the Eka Movement originally grew out of the Congress-led Non-Cooperation and Khilafat frameworks, it quickly turned radical, adopted independent militant postures, and was eventually distanced by the Congress leadership.
(b) is incorrect: The taluqdars of Awadh were the oppressors in the Eka Movement, not its leaders; the movement was led by a charismatic lower-caste leader named Madari Pasi. Meanwhile, the Bardoli Satyagraha was led by prosperous, land-owning peasants (Patidars), rather than landless laborers.
(d) is incorrect: The geographic locations are wrong. The Eka Movement was centered in the northern districts of Awadh (Hardoi, Bahraich, Sitapur, and Barabanki), not Varanasi or Mirzapur. The Bardoli Satyagraha took place in the Surat district of mainland Gujarat, not the Saurashtra peninsula.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History
Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns:
I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.
II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.
III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?
1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.
A1 and 2 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option A
Inference 1 is correct: The wide occurrence of terracotta and cubical spindle-whorls inside individual houses confirms that spinning yarn was a widespread domestic activity. The absolute absence of mechanized spinning wheels (which were invented much later in history) means that twisting fibers into thread had to be done entirely by hand using these basic hand-spindles—making textile production a highly tedious, manual, and laborious activity done at home.
Inference 2 is correct: The discovery of highly standardized weights (mostly cubical chert weights following binary and decimal systems) and ivory or shell measurement scales with precise, uniform graduations (such as those found at Lothal and Mohenjo-daro) proves that the Harappans possessed advanced scientific and mathematical knowledge to regulate trade, civic construction, and engineering.
Inference 3 is incorrect: Statement III actually suggests the exact opposite of a "common property system." Large private houses with individual courtyards, private wells, dedicated bathing platforms, and multiple rooms point directly toward a well-stratified society with private property ownership. It highlights distinct socio-economic variations, where affluent families owned spacious, self-contained domestic units, rather than sharing communal or common living property.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History
Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India:
1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595-596).
2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A1 and 2 only
B1 and 3 only
C2 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option D
Statement 1 is correct: The Mankani (Sankheda) copper plates issued by Taralasvamin in Gujarat are dated to the Kalachuri year 346, which corresponds to AD 595–596. This charter is widely recognized by historians as containing the earliest known dated epigraphic (inscriptional) evidence using the decimal place-value system within India. Statement 2 is correct: While mathematical treatises like Aryabhata's Aryabhatiya (AD 499) used decimal place-value concepts much earlier, its adoption in official stone and copper-plate inscriptions across the subcontinent took centuries. By the 9th century AD, this notation completely replaced older numeral systems and became the universal standard all over India (famously highlighted by the Gwalior inscription of AD 876). Statement 3 is correct: Driven by robust maritime trade and cultural exchanges, Indian mathematical concepts traveled to Southeast Asia incredibly early. Sanskrit and Sanskrit-influenced inscriptions—such as the Sambor stone inscription in Cambodia and the Kedukan Bukit inscription in Sumatra—clearly demonstrate the functional use of the decimal place-value system and zero as early as AD 683 (the 7thcentury).
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Art & Culture
The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:
AA joyous folk dance
BBuddha in a meditative pose
CThe depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha
DSamudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)
Correct Answer: Option A
The Scene:
The Bagh Caves, located in Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh, date back to the 5th–6th century CE (contemporary to the Gupta era). The most famous surviving mural here is found in Cave 4 (known as the Rang Mahal or Palace of Colors). This magnificent painting depicts Hallisalasya, a vibrant group folk dance characterized by a circular formation.
The Details:
The composition shows a central troupe of female dancers moving rhythmically around a male musician who is playing a hand drum. The dancers are depicted with expressive, fluid bodily postures, intricate hairstyles, and traditional attire, beautifully capturing a celebratory, secular moment of ancient Indian life.
Why other options are incorrect:
(b) Buddha in a meditative pose: While the Bagh Caves are entirely Buddhist in their religious architecture and contain numerous monolithic statues and paintings of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas, the Hallisalasya mural is a secular, cultural scene painted alongside these spiritual depictions.
(c) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha & (d) Samudramanthan: These are major Hindu mythological themes. Because the Bagh Caves are purely a Buddhist rock-cut monastery complex, these Puranic theme designs are not featured in its murals.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Art & Culture
Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?
ADeva (gods)
BYaksha (demi-gods)
CManushya (humans)
DTiryancha (animals and plants)
Correct Answer: Option B
In Jain philosophy, the universe is populated by uncreated, eternal souls (jivas). Depending on their accumulated karma, these souls cycle through the Samsara (the cycle of birth and death) across four distinct realms or forms of existence. This concept is known as Gati (states of existence) or Chaturgati (the fourfold path of worldly life).
The four recognized Gatis are:
Deva (Celestial/Gods): Heavenly beings who enjoy worldly pleasures but are still bound by karma and must eventually be reborn.
Manushya (Humans): The most critical form of existence because it is only from the human birth that a soul can achieve absolute liberation (Moksha).
Tiryancha (Animals, Plants, and Microorganisms): This broad category includes all non-human, non-divine sub-human life forms, spanning from complex animals down to single-sensed organisms like plants and elements.
Naraki (Hellish beings): The fourth form (not listed in the core options), which includes souls experiencing intense suffering in the various hellish realms due to bad karma.
Why Yaksha is the correct choice:
While Yakshas and Yakshinis are highly visible figures in Jain art, temple architecture, and popular folklore—often acting as protective guardian deities (Shasana Devatas) of the Tirthankaras—they are not classified as an independent, major category of life. Instead, within Jain cosmology, they are considered a sub-category or a lower class of spirits belonging to the broader Deva (celestial) realm.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History
Consider the following statements:
I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, hamsa, and kakanika.
II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.
The above statements have been associated with which of the following?
1. Emergence of urban life
2. Transition to money economy
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: Option C
Analyzing Statement I & II:
Early Buddhist canonical literature written in Pali (like the Vinaya Pitaka and Jataka tales) frequently mentions various denominations of coins such as the kahapana (punch-marked coin), nikkha (gold currency unit), and kakanika (a copper coin of very low value). This written record perfectly matches archaeological findings. Thousands of actual silver and copper punch-marked coins (the earliest true coinage of India) have been excavated across the Indo-Gangetic plains at sites like Taxila, Rajgir, and Pataliputra.
Why they link to both 1 and 2:
Link to 2 (Transition to a money economy): The sudden, widespread appearance of these coins in both literature and the ground marks the precise historical moment India transitioned away from a purely barter-based system. The standardized use of fractional currency like the kakanika shows that money wasn't just used for state-level tributes; it had penetrated daily market transactions.
Link to 1 (Emergence of urban life): A money economy does not exist in a vacuum; it is the lifeblood of cities. The availability of coinage directly fueled the Second Urbanization in the Ganges Valley. It enabled long-distance trade, allowed merchant guilds (shrenis) to accumulate capital, facilitated the collection of cash taxes by new bureaucratic states (the Mahajanapadas), and supported a growing population of urban artisans and traders who did not produce their own food.
Therefore, the literary and physical evidence of early coinage is inextricably bound to both systemic shifts.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Art & Culture
Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?
1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal
A1 and 2
B2 and 3
C3 only
D3 and 4
Correct Answer: Option C
To determine the correct answer, we must examine the specific architectural styles of the towers (shikharas or vimanas) of each temple:
3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh (Uttar Pradesh): This is a classic Gupta-period temple (circa 6th century CE) and is universally celebrated as one of the earliest surviving stone temples in India to feature a formal, curvilinear Nagara-style shikhara. It also features a classic Panchayatan layout (a main shrine surrounded by four smaller subsidiary shrines). This makes statement 3 definitively correct.
1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami (Karnataka): Built by the Early Chalukyas in the late 7th century, this temple features a distinct octagonal, heavy, tiered tower. This is a classic hallmark of the southern Dravida style (Vimana), not the Nagara style. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal (Karnataka): Commissioned by Queen Lokamahadevi to celebrate Vikramaditya II's victory over the Pallavas, this temple was explicitly modeled after the Kailasanatha Temple at Kanchipuram. It was constructed by architects brought in from the south, featuring a soaring, tiered, pyramidal Dravida vimana. Thus, statement 4 is incorrect.
The Scholarly Ambiguity regarding Statement 2
2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole (Karnataka): Architecturally and historically, this temple is famous among archaeologists for being an early experimental laboratory of the Chalukyas, where they integrated a Northern Rekha-Nagara curvilinear shikhara onto a Deccan-style base. Both the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) and UNESCO recognize its tower as an early Northern/Nagara variant.
The Exam Standard: However, structural evaluation standards often categorize early Chalukyan experiments under a broader transitional or proto-Dravida/Vesara lens, leading the official answer keys to exclude it from a "pure" Nagara classification. For competitive examinations, (c) 3 only is upheld as the definitive answer.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Art & Culture
The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?
AAiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness
BProviding support to Indian importers
CEncouraging export of cotton produce from India
DPreventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold
Correct Answer: Option A
.The Core Motive:The Hilton-Young Commission (Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance) recommended fixing the exchange rate at 1 shilling 6 pence (1s 6d) per rupee, which was artificially higher than the pre-war natural market rate of 1 shilling 4 pence (1s 4d). The British colonial administration insisted on this overvalued rupee primarily to manage "Home Charges." These were massive, mandatory annual sterling-denominated remittances transferred from India to Britain to cover British administrative costs, military expenses, pensions, and interest on public debt. By fixing the rupee at a higher rate, a single British pound could be purchased with fewer rupees. This dramatically reduced the colonial government's budget pressure when converting Indian tax revenue into sterling to send to London, ensuring that India effortlessly serviced its sterling debt and maintained its creditworthiness in London's financial markets. Why other options are incorrect:(b) Providing support to Indian importers: While an overvalued rupee made foreign goods cheaper (effectively acting as a hidden subsidy for British manufacturing hubs like Lancashire to dump textiles into India), this was a convenient consequence for British businesses—not the primary structural motivation of the British Government. (c) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India: This is the exact opposite of what happened. An artificially strong, overvalued rupee made Indian raw materials and agricultural exports (like cotton) much more expensive and uncompetitive globally, sparking intense protests from Indian industrialists and nationalists (often called the Ratio Controversy). (d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold: Though the commission also conceptualized moving toward a Gold Bullion Standard (which later paved the way for the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India in 1935), the specific, aggressive choice of the 1s 6d ratio over 1s 4d was purely driven by imperial fiscal remittance advantages, rather than protecting gold parity.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Art & Culture
Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?
ANat Bhairavi
BKamavardhini
CHanumatodi
DDheera Shankarabharanam
Correct Answer: Option D
The Equivalence:
Dheera Shankarabharanam (often referred to simply as Shankarabharanam) is the 29th Melakarta (parent scale) raga in Carnatic music. It uses the exact same interval pattern of notes as Raga Bilawal in Hindustani classical music. Both of these ragas correspond to the Western Major Scale (Do-Re-Mi-Fa-Sol-La-Ti-Do), consisting entirely of natural notes (Shuddha Swaras in Hindustani).
Why other options are incorrect:
Nat Bhairavi: This Carnatic raga corresponds to Raga Asavari in Hindustani music (similar to the Natural Minor scale).
Kamavardhini: This Carnatic raga corresponds to Raga Purvi in Hindustani music.
Hanumatodi: This Carnatic raga corresponds to Raga Bhairavi in Hindustani music.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Art & Culture
In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni ('mistress of the field') originate?
ARigveda
BAtharvaveda
CAshtadhyayi
DArthashastra
Correct Answer: Option B
The correct answer is (b) Atharvaveda.
Why Atharvaveda?
The term kshetra-patni (literally meaning "mistress/lady of the field") refers to a female guardian deity or personification of cultivated land. While the older Rigveda mentions the masculine counterpart Kshetrapati ("Lord of the Field") reflecting a semi-nomadic, pastoral society, the Atharvaveda belongs to the Later Vedic period. During this time, society transitioned into settled agriculture and family-owned land. The Atharvaveda contains numerous hymns, charms, and rituals dedicated to everyday domestic life, agriculture, and fertility—where kshetra-patni is invoked to bless the soil. Why other options are incorrect:Rigveda: Contains Kshetrapati (masculine) but lacks the feminine kshetra-patni. Ashtadhyayi: Written by Panini, this is a foundational treatise on Sanskrit Grammar. While it analyzes language, it is not the historical origin text for this Vedic religious term. Arthashastra: Written by Kautilya, this is a text on Statecraft and Economics. It deals extensively with agricultural administration (using terms like Sitadhyaksha or Superintendent of Agriculture) but was composed centuries later and does not use Vedic liturgical terms.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Art & Culture
Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:
AAgra Gharana
BGwalior Gharana
CPatiala Gharana
DJaipur-Atrauli Gharana
Correct Answer: Option D
About Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur
Musical Lineage: Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur (1910–1992) was an extraordinary Hindustani classical vocalist. He was initially trained under Neelkanth Bua Alurmath (of the Gwalior Gharana), but he achieved his definitive artistic pinnacle under the tutelage of Ustad Alladiya Khan (the founder of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana) and his sons, Ustad Manji Khan and Ustad Bhurji Khan.
Style: He was renowned for his mastery over Anvat (rare) and Achhop (complex) ragas and his seamless, effortless style of singing in the Jaipur-Atrauli tradition, characterized by complex, rhythmic note patterns (taans).
Awards: He was honored with all three highest civilian Padma awards—Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Vibhushan.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History Polity
Consider the following assertion:
The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.
Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?
1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 2 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option D
Detailed Analysis of the Statements
The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (which culminated in the Government of India Act, 1919) played a foundational role in institutionalizing community-based identity politics in modern India.
Statement 1 supports the assertion: The Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909 had already introduced separate electorates for Muslims. The 1919 Reforms went a step further by retaining this system and extending it to other communities, including Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans. This legally cemented the idea that political representation in India was tied to religious and community identity rather than a unified secular citizenship.
Statement 2 supports the assertion: The British colonial administration utilized the policy of "Divide and Rule" to fracture the growing tide of Indian nationalism (which was peaking around this time with the Home Rule Movement and the entry of Mahatma Gandhi). By carving out distinct political spheres for different communities, the colonial state ensured that Indian politicians would compete against each other for communal quotas rather than presenting a unified front against British rule.
Statement 3 supports the assertion: Seeing that the colonial state was distributing political power, legislative seats, and administrative favors along community lines, various socio-economically marginalized groups—including the depressed classes, non-Brahmins in Madras, and backward communities—began to organize themselves politically. They rallied to demand their own separate electorates or reserved seats to safeguard their interests, realizing that political leverage under the new reforms depended entirely on organized communal/caste identity.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History
Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:
1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.
2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.
3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A2 and 3 only
B1 and 3 only
C1, 2 and 3
D2 only
Correct Answer: Option A
Detailed Analysis of the Statements
The British annexed Awadh in 1856 on the grounds of "maladministration" by Nawab Wajid Ali Shah. Immediately following the annexation, they introduced radical administrative and land revenue reforms that profoundly disrupted the social order, directly contributing to the outbreak of the Revolt of 1857.
Statement 1 is incorrect: While the taluqdars (hereditary landlords) were indeed dispossessed of their estates, they were not allowed to retain their arms and forts. The British ordered the immediate disarming of the population, which included dismantling the forts of the taluqdars and confiscating their weapons to eliminate any potential military resistance to British rule.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1856, the British introduced the Summary Settlement of Revenue. This settlement was built on the ideological assumption that the taluqdars were usurpers and "outsiders" who had acquired their land through force or fraud, lacking any organic, traditional right to the soil.
Statement 3 is correct: Driven by the Utilitarian philosophy and the "Ryotwari" mindset of the British administration (championed by officials like James Thomason), the British believed that removing the taluqdars would benefit the actual tillers of the soil. They aimed to settle revenue directly with the primary cultivators (peasants), expecting this would increase state revenue while relieving the peasants from exploitation by middlemen.
The Historical Irony: In reality, the Summary Settlement did not help the peasants. While it stripped the taluqdars of power, it significantly increased the tax burden on the peasants and subjected them to rigid, inflexible British revenue collection. When the 1857 Revolt broke out, the peasants of Awadh actually joined forces with their displaced taluqdars to fight the British.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History
Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?
1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose
A1, 2 and 3
B1, 2 and 4
C2 and 4 only
D1, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: Option B
Context and Analysis of the Statements
The formation of the All India Forward Bloc in May 1939 was the direct result of the intense ideological rift within the Indian National Congress (INC) between the right wing (led by Mahatma Gandhi and the Congress Working Committee) and the left wing (led by Subhas Chandra Bose).
Statement 1 is correct: Bose won the Congress presidential election at Tripuri in 1939 against Pattabhi Sitaramayya (who was openly backed by Gandhi). Gandhi took the defeat personally, stating "Pattabhi's defeat is my defeat." Despite winning the democratic vote, Bose could not function effectively because he failed to win the confidence of Gandhi and the old guard, who refused to cooperate with him. This eventually forced Bose to resign from the presidency.
Statement 2 is correct: The Congress Left-wing was highly factionalized and disunited. It consisted of various groups like the Congress Socialist Party (CSP), Communists, and Royists. When the right wing pushed the Pant Resolution (which demanded that Bose form his working committee strictly according to Gandhi's wishes), the Left failed to stand unitedly behind Bose, leading to his political isolation within the party framework.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Initially, the Communists (CPI) and other leftists did support Bose during his presidential election campaign against the right-wing candidate. It was only later, during the critical voting on the Pant Resolution at the Tripuri session, that they developed cold feet or chose to remain neutral to avoid a complete split in the Congress. The assertion that they "did not support Bose in his endeavours" broadly as a contributing factor to the formation of the Forward Bloc is structurally incorrect because Bose actually formed the Forward Bloc to bring all these leftist elements (including Communists) under one umbrella (the Left Consolidation Committee).
Statement 4 is correct: Socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan (CSP) and M.N. Roy believed that national unity under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi was paramount with World War II looming. They feared that backing Bose's radical, uncompromising stance would fracture the Congress and weaken the anti-imperialist struggle. Therefore, they preferred maintaining Congress unity over factional alignment with Bose, leaving him with no choice but to form a new vanguard group within the Congress—the Forward Bloc.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History
Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched?
1. Senguttuvan : Chera
2. Udiyanjeral : Chola
3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya
A1 and 2
B2 only
C1 and 3
D3 only
Correct Answer: Option B
Detailed Analysis of the Pairs
The question tests your knowledge of the Sangam Age (early historical Tamilakam), which was ruled by the three crowned kings known as the Muventhar (the Cheras, Cholas, and Pandyas).
Senguttuvan : Chera (Correctly Matched):
Cheran Senguttuvan (also known as the Red Chera) is the most famous ruler of the Chera dynasty. He is highly celebrated in the Sangam epic Silappatikaram for establishing the Pattini cult (the worship of Kannagi as the ideal wife) and for his military expeditions to the Himalayas.
Udiyanjeral : Chola (Incorrectly Matched):
Udiyanjeral (or Udiyan Cheralathan) was actually a Chera king, not a Chola. He is traditionally considered the first recorded ruler of the Chera line in Sangam literature. According to legends, he earned great fame by feeding the armies of both the Pandavas and the Kauravas during the Mahabharata War.
Nedunjeliyan : Pandya (Correctly Matched):
Nedunjeliyan is the most celebrated king of the Pandya dynasty. He is famous for his victory in the Battle of Talaiyalanganam, where he defeated a combined coalition of the Cheras, Cholas, and five other minor chieftains. He is also the Pandyan king associated with the tragic climax of the Silappatikaram.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History
Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?
1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.
A1 only
B1 and 3 only
C2 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: Option B
Detailed Analysis of the Statements
Statement 1 is correct: The Amaravati Stupa (historically known as the Mahachaitya) was located on the banks of the Krishna River in the Palnadu district of modern-day Andhra Pradesh, which falls squarely within the lower Krishna valley. It was a major center of Buddhism developed under the patronage of the Satavahanas and later the Ikshvakus.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Amaravati Stupa was massive, it was not next only to Sanchi in size. In fact, when it was fully intact, the Amaravati Stupa was significantly larger than the Great Stupa at Sanchi. The diameter of the Sanchi Stupa dome is about 36 meters, whereas the Amaravati Stupa dome had a diameter of roughly 49 meters, making it one of the largest stupas ever built in ancient India.
Statement 3 is correct: The Amaravati school of art had a profound and widespread geographical influence. Its signature style—characterized by intense dynamism, slender human figures, and the use of white marble-like limestone—profoundly shaped later South Indian art styles (like Pallava and Chola art). Furthermore, due to maritime trade and religious ties, Amaravati-style Buddhist sculptures were exported extensively to Sri Lanka (such as at Anuradhapura) and various parts of South-east Asia (including Thailand, Indonesia, and Vietnam).
Key Features of the Amaravati School for UPSC
To help you with conceptual clarity, here are the defining characteristics of this school of art:
Material Used: Distinctive white marble-like limestone (often referred to as Palnad marble).
Theme: Primarily Buddhist, depicting Jataka tales and life events of the Buddha. It evolved from aniconic (using symbols) to iconic (depicting Buddha in human form) over time.
Distinct Feature: Ayaka Pillars. Unlike central Indian stupas, the Amaravati Stupa featured platforms at the four cardinal directions topped by five free-standing pillars (Ayaka Khambhas), symbolizing the five main events of Buddha's life.
Narrative Style: The relief sculptures are famous for their crowded, dynamic layouts depicting emotions, movement, and complex narratives with incredible fluid delicacy.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) History
Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?
1. Vitasta : Chenab
2. Asikni : Jhelum
3. Parushni : Ravi
4. Yavyavati : Beas
A1 and 2
B3 and 4
C3 only
D4 only
Correct Answer: Option C
Analysis of the Pairs
In the Vedic literature (such as the Rigveda), the rivers of the Northwestern Indian subcontinent (the Sapta-Sindhu region) were referred to by ancient names that differ significantly from their modern names.
Let's look at the correct matching for each river mentioned in the question:
Vitasta: This is the ancient name for the Jhelum, not the Chenab. (Pair 1 is incorrectly matched)
Asikni: This is the ancient name for the Chenab, not the Jhelum. (Pair 2 is incorrectly matched)
Parushni: This is the ancient name for the Ravi. It is famous in Rigvedic history as the site of the "Battle of the Ten Kings" (Dasharajna Yuddha). (Pair 3 is correctly matched)
Yavyavati: This is generally identified by historians as the ancient name for the Hariyupiya or modern-day Ghaggar (or a tributary in the Zhob/Gomal region), while the ancient name for the Beas is Vipasa. (Pair 4 is incorrectly matched)
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?
AThe meditation of the Buddha
BThe Buddha's First Sermon
CThe Buddha's Mahaparinibbana
DThe Buddha's Mahabhinishkramana
Correct Answer: Option A
Understanding Early Buddhist Iconography
In early Buddhist art (from the Maurya, Shunga, and early Satavahana periods, such as the carvings at Sanchi and Bharhut), the Buddha was never depicted in human form. This tradition is known as aniconism.
Instead of showing a physical body, artists used various symbols to represent the Buddha and the pivotal events of his life. An empty seat or throne (asana), usually placed beneath a Bodhi tree, was a central symbol.
What it Represents: The empty seat primarily represents the place of his Enlightenment (the Vajrasana or Diamond Throne) where Siddhartha Gautama sat in deep meditation to attain supreme wisdom. It signifies his spiritual presence, his conquest over Mara, and the ultimate state of emptiness (Shunyata) or detachment from the physical world.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Geography
Consider the following assertion:
In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.
Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion?
1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems
A1 only
B2 only
C1 and 2
D3
Correct Answer: Option D
The correct answer is (d) 3.
Why Statement 3 is the Correct Basis
The assertion describes a massive, prehistoric geological reorganization of the river systems in northern India during the Pleistocene epoch. The primary biological evidence for this interconnectedness is the presence of very closely related (historically considered the same or sister species) river dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems.
The Biological Mystery: The Indus and Ganga-Brahmaputra river basins are currently separated by a massive, dry land divide in Punjab and Haryana. Marine/river dolphins cannot travel across land.
The Geological Explanation: The presence of the Platanista dolphins (the Indus river dolphin and the Ganges river dolphin) in two completely separate, unconnected modern river systems proves that at some point during the Pleistocene period, these rivers were connected.
The River Capture: Tectonic uplifts and changing topography forced rivers like the Yamuna and Sutlej to radically shift their courses. At one point, they shared a common channel or tributary system, allowing the dolphins to migrate between what we now know as the Indus and Ganga basins before tectonic shifts permanently cut them off from each other.
Why the Other Options are Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Nadi-Sukta (Hymn of Rivers) in the Rigveda is a text composed much later (Bronze Age/Iron Age) than the Pleistocene epoch. While it mentions rivers like the Sarasvati, Ganga, Yamuna, and Sutlej, it describes the geography of the Vedic period, not the deep-time geological shifts of the Pleistocene.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Robert Bruce Foote is famously known as the "Father of Indian Prehistory" for his groundbreaking discovery of Paleolithic stone tools (like the Pallavaram handaxe). He did not conduct the foundational geological or hydrological explorations regarding the Pleistocene course-shifting of the Sutlej and Yamuna to support this specific hydro-biological theory.
Therefore, the biological evidence of the river dolphins is the key basis for this geological assertion.
2026
Prelims General Studies (Paper 1) Ancient History History
Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?
1. Vitasta : Chenab
2. Asikni Jhelum
3. Parushni: Ravi
4. Yavyavati: Beas
Select the answer using the code given below :
A1 and 2
B3 and 4
C3 only
D4 only
Correct Answer: Option C
Here is the matching based on Rigvedic and other ancient sources (e.g., Nadistuti sukta):
1. Vitasta : Chenab — Incorrect. Vitasta (or Vetasta) is the ancient name for the Jhelum River.
2. Asikni : Jhelum — Incorrect. Asikni (or Asiknī) is the ancient name for the Chenab River.
3. Parushni : Ravi — Correct. Parushni (or Paruṣṇī, also later Iravati) is the ancient name for the Ravi River.
4. Yavyavati : Beas — Incorrect. Beas is Vipāśā (or Vipas/Vyas). Yavyavati is a different river (often identified with a branch of the Gomatī or the Zhob River, or linked to contexts near the Drishadvati/Hariyupiya).
The standard Rigvedic Punjab rivers (part of Sapta Sindhu) are: Vitasta (Jhelum), Asikni (Chenab), Parushni (Ravi), Vipasa (Beas), Shutudri/Sutudri (Sutlej), plus Sindhu (Indus) and Sarasvati. Only pair 3 matches correctly.
About UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 Previous Year Questions
Practicing previous year questions is one of the most effective strategies for UPSC CSE exam preparation. This page contains 100 authentic questions from the UPSC CSE Prelims 2026 examination, complete with answers and detailed explanations.
At Quintessence Classes, we believe that understanding past exam patterns is crucial for success in competitive examinations. Our curated PYQ collection helps students identify frequently tested topics, understand the difficulty level, and practice with real exam questions. Whether you are preparing for UPSC CSE, JKPSC KAS, or JKSSB exams, our previous year questions database is designed to give you an edge in your preparation.
